10 Questions Test Flashcards
(130 cards)
1
Q
What causes Limit Load Factor to be Exceeded
A
Level altitude Turns increase load factor exponentially.
Vertical gusts can increase angle of attack to resulting in increased load factor
Speed determines the amount of excess load that can be imposed upon the wing.
2
Q
What is the load factor range for Normal, Utility, and Aerobatic
A
Load Factor range for Normal category is (3.8) - (-1.52)
Load Factor range for Utility category is (4.4) - (-1.76)
Load Factor range for Aerobatic category is (6.0) - (-3.0)
3
Q
Increased load factor and stall relation
A
Load factor increases weight which increases stalling speed. Load factor increases as bank increases, and wings stall because you increase your Weight which means your aircraft is producing less lift with the increased weight, increasing stall speed.
4
Q
Maneuvering speed defined
A
Maximum speed which the limit load factor can be imposed without causing structural damage
5
Q
Maneuvering speed and Weight relation
A
Maneuvering speed increases with increase in weight. The described maneuvering speed is set to Max Gross Weight. You must calculate Va for your weight of the aircraft before taking off, so if you reach limit load factor you stall before you break.
6
Q
Loss of control inflight (LOC-I) definition
A
Defined as the deviation of the aircraft from the intended flight path
7
Q
Spin Defined
A
Controlled or Uncontrolled maneuver in which the aircraft descends in a spinning path, caused by aggravated stalls.
8
Q
Spins Cause
A
Exceeding critical angle of attack while applying excessive or insufficient rudder/aileron
9
Q
When are spins most likely to occur
A
Engine failure during takeoff climb out
Crossed-control turn from base to final
Engine failure on approach to landing
Go around with full nose-up trim
Go-around with improper flap retraction
10
Q
How do you recover from a spin
A
Throttle Idle, Ailerons Neutral, Rudder opposite of spin, then Stall recovery
11
Q
Adverse Yaw cause
A
In a roll one aileron is deflected downward and the other is deflected upward, the aileron that is deflected downward produces more lift and more drag causing a yaw opposite to your turn
12
Q
What is Gross weight
A
The maximum allowable weight of both the airplane and its contents.
13
Q
What is useful load
A
Weight of the pilot, copilot, passengers, baggage, usable fuel and drainable oil
14
Q
What flight characteristics will be affected when aircraft is overloaded
A
Higher Takeoff Speed
Longer Takeoff Roll
Reduced rate of climb
Lower maximum altitude
Shorter range
Reduced cruising speed
Reduced maneuverability
Higher Stalling Speed
Higher Landing Roll
Longer Landing roll
Excessive weight on nosewheel
15
Q
What affects does a forward CG have
A
Increased Stall Speed (Higher AoA to remain level)
Decreased Cruise Speed (More drag at higher AoA)
Increased Lateral Stability (More leverage)
16
Q
What affects does a aft CG have
A
Decreased stall speed (Lower AoA to remain level)
Increased Cruise speed (Lower AoA)
Less Stable (Less leverage)
Poor Stall/Spin recovery (due to less stability)
17
Q
What are the weights to Gasoline, Oil, and Water
A
Gas 6lbs
Oil 7.5lbs
Water 8.35lbs
18
Q
Is it okay having a change CG not logged
A
No, its a requirement for an A&P to annotate and log any change of the CG
19
Q
What are the main elements of aircraft performance
A
Takeoff and Landing distance
Rate of climb
Ceiling
Payload
Range
Speed
Fuel Economy
Maneuverability
Stability
20
Q
What factors effect an aircraft on takeoff and landing
A
Air Density
Surface Wind
Runway surface
Upslope or Downslope runway
Weight
21
Q
How does weight affect takeoff and landing performance?
A
higher takeoff speed, Slow acceleration, Increased drag and friction, increased landing speed, increased ground roll, decreases climb rate, and longer takeoff roll
22
Q
Effects of increased density altitude
A
increased landing roll, increased TAS on approach/landing, reduced rate of climb, increased takeoff distance,
23
Q
What does air density have a direct relation too
A
lift produced, propeller efficiency, drag, and engine performance
24
Q
What affects air density
A
altitude, temperature, and humidity
25
How many N.M. can a Cessna 172 glide per 1000' loss of altitude
1.5 N.M. per 1000' loss of altitude
26
what is the common type of Hydraulic Fluid
mineral-h-5606, red
27
Fuel Injection system described
Engine Driven Fuel pump provides fuel to air control unit and Auxiliary Fuel Pump provides fuel to fuel/air control unit or to starter
Fuel/Air control unit meters fuel based on mixture control sends fuel/air mixture to throttle control
Fuel Manifold Valve distributes fuel to discharge nozzles
Discharge Nozzles inject fuel/air mixture
Fuel Pressure indicator measures fuel pressure
28
What does the aircraft electrical system provide power too.
Lighting, Turn Coordinator, Fuel Temperature Gauge, Fuel Gauges, Tachometer, Anti-Icing equipment, Avionics, Flaps, Stall Warning System
29
Oil Functions
Seal, Clean, Lubricate, Cool
30
Detonation cause and effects
Caused by High engine temperatures, High Power Setting or using lower grade of fuel
Effects are Excessive Temperature, Roughness, Loss of Power, and Excessive Piston Pressure which can lead to piston cylinder or valves failing
31
Detonation Corrective Action
Ensure proper grade of fuel is used, Keep cowl flaps open while on ground, Enrich mixture, Avoid extended high power steep climbs, Monitor engine instruments
32
Preignition Cause and Effects
Cause: Cylinder Hot Spot, Small Carbon Deposit on spark plugs, cracked spark plug, or cylinder damage
Effects: Excessive Temperature, Roughness, Loss of Power, and Pressure which can lead to piston cylinder or valves failing
33
Corrective Action Preignition
Reduce Power, Reduce climb rate, enrich mixture, open cowl flaps
34
Ammeter Indications defined
Positive After starting and in Flight - Battery Power being replenished
Full Positive in Flight - Faulty Voltage regulator causing overcharge to battery
Full Positive After starting - If static for 1 minute, Starter still Engaged, engine should be shut down
Negative After starting - Normal unless it continues which would indicate alternator failure or overload
Negative in Flight - Alternator not functioning or overload
35
Corrective Action for Continuous discharge or charge in flight
Alternator shut off/removed from circuit
All electrical equipment not essential must be turned off
Flight should be terminated
36
What can happen if alternator overcharges the battery
If the Voltage regulator is broken the battery can be overcharged which will evaporate electrolytes at extreme amounts releasing explosive chemicals and if a short circuit were to happen the battery would explode
37
What does Continuous discharge in flight indicate
Alternator off, Alternator Failure, or Overload
38
What is indicated if Oil Pressure is low but Oil temperature is normal and what is the corrective action
Lack of oil, clogged oil pressure relief valve, oil pressure gauge malfunction. Land as soon as possible
39
Partial loss of power corrective actions
Correct to Best Glide Speed, and find a field to land
If Time Permits:
Contact ATC
Check Carburetor heat
Check Fuel amount
Check Fuel selector
Check mixture control
Check Primer is in default position and locked
Check Magnetos
40
Procedures for inflight fire
Mixture Idle
Fuel Selector Off
Master Off
Cabin Heat off
Air Vents On
Establish an airspeed of 100KTS or greater
Execute forced landing procedures
41
Procedures for Startup fire
If engine starts: Increase RPM, then shut down engine
If engine doesn't start: Throttle Full, Mixture Idle, and continue to try to start engine
If fire continues: Ignition Off, Master Off, Fuel Selector Off
Evacuate aircraft and get assistance and fire extinguisher if needed
42
Purpose for continuing start up during engine fire
Sucking fuel through carburetor to vacuum the fire out
43
What are the limitations of ASI
limited to to only proper flow of air in pitot/static system
44
Errors of the airspeed indicator
Position Error caused by static sensing erroneous static pressure from spiraling slipstream
Density Error caused by changed in altitude and temperature
Compressibility Error caused by packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications
45
Limitations of the Vertical Speed Indicator
not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized, 6-9 second lag is required to stabilize or equalize pressure
46
What are the fundamental properties of Gyroscopes
Rigidity in space and Gyroscopic Precession
47
What are the attitude indicator limitations
100 - 110 degrees of bank and 60 - 70 degrees of pitch if either are exceeded the instrument will tumble or spill until reset
48
Attitude Indicator Errors
Turn error: after 180 turn, it indicates a slight turn and bank on opposite direction. Following 360 turn, it cancels out.
Acceleration error: horizon bar moves down indicating a climb.
Deceleration error: horizon bar moves up indicating a descent.
These errors fix themselves after a couple minutes of straight and level flight
49
Limitations Heading Indicator
55 degrees of bank or pitch will cause tumble or spills until reset
50
Heading Indicator Errors
Due to gyroscopic precession friction causes heading indicator to drift
51
Hows does a Turn Coordinator work
When the aircraft yaws, or rolls, it produces a force in the horizontal plane that, due to precession, causes the gyro and its gimbal to rotate about the gimbal's axis
52
What information does the turn coordinator provide
Slip, Skid, Rate of turn, Yaw, and Roll
53
Slip Defined
The ball on the turn coordinator is on the inside of the turn, not enough rate of turn for amount of bank
54
Skid Defined
The ball on the turn coordinator is on the outside of the turn, too much rate of turn for the amount of bank
55
Limitations of magnetic compass
At steeper bank angles the compass indicates erratic and unpredictable
56
Compass Errors
Oscillation of the compass is erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control
Deviation electrical and magnetic disturbances
Variation angular difference between true north and magnetic north
Accelerate North Decelerate South
Slow turn From North, Fast turn from South
57
What are three most common ways to navigate
Radio Navigation, Pilotage, and Dead Reckoning
58
Latitude and Longitude Defined
Latitude is Horizontal and Longitude is Vertical
59
Types of Navigation AIDs
VOR
VORTAC
VOR-DME
DME
RNAV
60
VOR Defined
Very High Frequency Omnidirectional radio, projects radio signals through all directions
61
Navaid classification
Terminal, High, and Low
62
Methods for checking VOR accuracy
VOT check
Ground Checkpoint
Airborne Checkpoint
Dual VOR Check
63
What are three fundamental elements of GPS
Space element (30 satellites)
Control Element (accuracy of GPS and their clocks)
User Element (position, velocity, and precise timing)
64
Purpose of RAIM
Self monitor of GPS signals to make sure GPS signals are accurate
65
What happens if RAIM capability is lost
No way to check accuracy of GPS in flight
66
How to determine which operations GPS is approved for
Check the POH/AFM to determine limitations and operating procedures
67
How many satellites does a GPS require to compute position?
3 Satellites - 2D latitude and longitude position
4 Satellites - 3D latitude, longitude, and altitude
5 Satellites - 3D and RAIM
6 Satellites - 3D and RAIM (adds redundancy)
68
What happens to a Flight Plan if not activated
If an hour passes the flight plan will be canceled
69
If you can't locate your position what should you do?
Climb to a higher altitude for better communication
and landmark visibility
Communicate (contact 121.5 if you have to)
Confess your problem
Comply with orders
70
What is CTAF
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency is a frequency used to carry out airport advisory practices
71
What is a UNICOM
Airport information or traffic advisory frequency
72
What is a ATIS
Automatic Terminal Information Service the continuous broadcast of recorded non control information in selected high activity terminal areas.
73
Operating in an airspace with no control tower, FSS, or UNICOM which procedure should be followed
The procedures to follow are MULTICOM frequency 122.9 and use self announcing procedures
74
What is the proper frequency for activating the VFR flight plan
FSS or Consult communications section in the Chart Supplement
75
Frequency printed on NAVAID on sectional charts are
the best frequency for FSS in the vicinity of the NAVAID
76
Where can you find the frequency for the controlling agency of a facility
Special use airspace information can be found on the end panel of a VFR sectional chart
77
What responsibilities does a Private Pilot have in a inflight emergency
The PIC is directly responsible and final authority to the operation of the aircraft
The PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent of that emergency
Each person who deviates from any rule in Part 91 must send a written report to the FAA upon request
78
May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft?
Aircraft operators of air carriers or aircraft operating under IFR are not allowed to use electronic devices with exceptions
79
What preflight action is required of a pilot prior to any flight?
Familiarize oneself with all available information concerning that flight
80
What Preflight action is required outside of the vicinity of the departure airport
NOTAMS
Weather reports and Forecasts
Runway lengths at airports of intended use
Alternative airports
Fuel Requirements
Takeoff/Landing Data
81
What preflight action is required concerning the use of seatbelts to passengers
The PIC must brief the passenger how to correctly put on seatbelts and harnesses
82
When are flight crewmembers required to have seatbelts fastened
During takeoff, landing, and while enroute crewmembers are required to have seatbelts and safety harnesses fastened
83
What regulations apply to operating an aircraft in formation
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another as to create a collision hazard
No person may operate an aircraft in formation except by arrangement with the PIC in each aircraft
No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight
84
In areas other then congested what minimum safe altitudes shall be useed
An aircraft shall not be operated no lower then 500 AGL except over water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or property
85
Cruising altitudes below 18,000' what altimeter setting procedure is required
Below 31.00"Hg or less, altitude must be held to the nearest reporting station altimeter report.
86
When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction
An amended clearance from ATC
An Emergency
In response to traffic and collision avoidance
87
What actions are required if you deviate from ATC instruction
PIC must notify any deviation to ATC immediately
PIC must send a written report to ATC upon request within 48 hours
88
If aircraft radio fails while operating in a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before landing
Weather conditions must be at or above VFR weather minimums
Visual contact with the tower must be maintained
A clearance to land is received
89
Traffic Pattern rules are
Airplanes approaching to land make all turns to the left unless otherwise stated
Airplanes departing comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in Part 93
90
Which landing procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a Visual Slope Indicator
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
91
What is an emergency locator transmitter
Radio sweep transmitter with its own power source connected to 121.5, 243.0, and 406.0
92
When are ELTs required aboard aircraft and what are the exceptions to this rule
No person may operate an aircraft without an ELT aboard in operable condition.
Exceptions:
Aircraft Engaged in training operations conducted within 50 NM from departure airport
Aircraft engaged in design testing
New aircraft engaged in manufacture, preparation, and delivery
Aircraft engaged in agricultural operations
93
Where is aerobatic flight prohibited
Over any congested area of city, town, or settlement
Over an open air assembly of persons
Within lateral boundaries of the surface areas Class B, C, D, E airspaces
Within 4NM of the center line of a Federal Airway
Below an altitude of 1,500' feet above the surface
When flight visibility is less than 3 SM
94
Aerobatic Flight Defined
intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in aircraft attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration
95
When are parachutes required aboard aircraft
Parachutes are required aboard aircraft if bank angle is exceeded past 60° or a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30° is exceeded
96
What minimum pilot certificate is required to operate an aircraft within Class B airspace
PIC holds at least a private pilot certificate
97
What minimum equipment is required to operate within Class C airspace
Two way radio
Mode C transponder
ADS-B out equipment
98
Departing a satellite airport without a control tower, located within a controlled airspace. What requirements must be met
You must establish two way radio with the controlling agency of the controlled airspace
99
Define Basic Radar Service, TRSA Service, Class C Radar Services, Class B radar services
Basic Radar Service - safety alerts, traffic advisories, radar vectoring,
TRSA Service - radar sequencing and separation
Class C Radar Services - Basic Radar, IFR/VFR seperation, sequencing of VFR arrivals
Class B Radar Services - Basic Radar, IFR/IFR, IFR/VFR, Weight seperation, and sequencing
100
Where is Mode C transponder and ADS-B out required
Class A, B, C airspace
Above Class B and C airspace up to 10,000'
Above 10,000' in Class E airspace
Within the Mode C veil
(ADS-B out only) required 3000' - 12NM from Coastline
(Mode C only) Flying in, within, or across United States ADIZ
101
Is ATC Clearance required within Class E extensions
No, Class E extensions to Class B, C, D, and E surface areas do not require any ATC clearance. Only Class A and B airspaces require ATC clearance
102
When control towers cease operations what happens to the airspace the control tower was within
The airspace turns to a Class E or G, but specifications for each airport lie within Chart Supplements for airports
103
Types of Class E airspace
Class E airports (surface areas)
Extension to other airspaces
Transition to/from terminal
Federal Airways
Offshore beyond 3000' - 12NM
104
Purpose of Class E transition areas
To help separate IFR traffic from VFR traffic in the vicinity
105
Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within Class G airspace
Yes, you must establish two-way communication with all airports with a control tower
106
When are communications required to be established with uncontrolled airports
4NM from the airport
107
What are the weather minimums of Class G airspace in the traffic pattern
3 - 1 SM of visibility and to remain clear of clouds (Day and Night)
108
What are the Class G weather minimums more then 1,200' AGL but less then 10,000' MSL
1-512 (Day)
| 3-512 (Night)
109
What is VFR Minimums in Class B, C, D, and E airspace
1000' Ceiling and 3SM visibility
110
Do all airports provide SVFR
Some airports prohibit clearance of SVFR
111
What is a Warning Area
Airspace 3NM outward from coast containing possible hazards to aircraft
112
Special Air Traffic Rules and Special Flight Rules Area described
SATR: Flight rules governed in Part 93
SFRA: Special Air traffic rules govern the area unless otherwise authorized by ATC
113
Where can Special use airspace information be found
The controlling agency on the sectional tab or online
114
Where can information for Flyways, Corridors, and transition routes be found
on the opposite side of Terminal Area Charts (TACS) or online
115
What are Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZ) and where are they located
An area where identification and location of aircraft are required for national security
ADIZ are located on international boundaries, Coast, and Land
116
What are requirements to operate within ADIZ zones
Flight Plan, Two-way Radio, Transponder, Position Reports, and understanding of ADIZ NOTAM requirements
117
When is immediate Notification required to the NTSB
Flight Control Malfunction, Crew-member unable to perform normal duties, Inflight fire, Inflight Collision, Property Damage estimated $25,000 or greater, Overdue aircraft in accident, loss of propeller inflight, and 50% loss of information from EFIS
118
Aircraft Incident Defined
Occurrence other then an accident that affects or could affect flight safety
119
Accident Serious Injury Defined
Hospitalization for more then 48 hours within 7 days of the accident
Results in bone fracture
Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage
Involves internal organs
Involves third/second degree burns affecting 5% or more of the body
120
Accident Substantial Damage Defined
Damage that affects structural strength, performance, and flight characteristics that normally requires major repair or replacement of affected component
121
How soon do you have to report an aircraft accident or incident
10 days after the accident
7 days after an aircraft overdue is still missing
122
Can the FAA use NASA aviation safety reports for enforcement purposes
No
123
What are Visual Slope Indicators indications
Red over Red - Below Glide Path
Red over white - on glide path
White over white - Above glide path
124
What services can ARTCC provide and what is ARTCC purpose
Flight Following
ARTCC purpose is to provide air traffic services while enroute
125
When should contact be made with a control tower
15NM from the airport
126
What is good operating practice when departing airports
Remain on frequency for traffic advisories till you leave the airspace
127
Where can NOTAM information be obtained
FSS
Online
FIS-B
128
When are VFR flight plans required to be filed
VFR flight plans are not required unless operating under ADIZ/DEWIZ
129
When are ICAO flight plans required
Flight Plan within international airspace
Flights expecting routing or seperation
Flight expects ADS-B services
130
What is a DVFR flight plan
Defense VFR flight plans required for ADIZ/DEWIZ
