100 random things from SD Flashcards

1
Q

what are the s/s of both rubella and CMV?

A

blueberry muffin rash
IUGR
deafness

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2
Q

is there a treatment for rubella

A

no

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3
Q

how do you diagnose CMV

A

mom’s urine

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4
Q

what is the MC cause of neonatal sepsis?

A

GBS

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5
Q

how do you treat neonatal sepsis?

A

ampicillin and gentamycin

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6
Q

direct hyperbilirubinemia occurs during what time frame?

A

within 24h

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7
Q

indirect hyperbilirubinemia occurs during what time frame?

A

after 24h

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8
Q

what is a normal heart rate for a neonate?

A

120-160

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9
Q

what is a normal RR for a neonate?

A

40-60

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10
Q

what is a normal rectal temp for a neonate?

A

36.5-37.5 C

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11
Q

for how long should you measure head circumference?

A

up to 36 months

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12
Q

when should the ant fontanelle close

A

10-24mos

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13
Q

when should the posterior fontanelle close

A

2mos

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14
Q

which suture most commonly closes with craniosynostosis?

A

sagittal

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15
Q

____% of babies with strabismus will develop amblyopia

A

50%

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16
Q

how do you distinguish a peritonsillar abcess from other ENT conditions

A

peritonsillar abcess will have trismus

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17
Q

why can’t you give bacrim at less than 2mos?

A

risk of kernicterus

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18
Q

what vaccines do you need before kindergarten?

A

5 DTP
4 polio
2 MMR
1 varicella

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19
Q

starts with fever of 103
get koplik spots
rash starts on forehead, moves downward, and fades in same pattern

A

measles

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20
Q

starts with low fever
LAD present
pale pink rash starts on face, moves to body, might be itchy

A

rubella

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21
Q

starts with URI, becomes a cough with a whoop followed by cyanosis and vomiting

A

pertussis

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22
Q

when do you vax for measles

A
  1. 12-15 mos

2. 4-6y

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23
Q

when do you vax for meningitis

A
  1. 11-12y

2. 16y

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24
Q

when do you vax for pertussis

A
  1. 2mos
  2. 4mos
  3. 6 mos
  4. 15-18mos
  5. 4-6y
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25
what is the MC CHD at birth? | what is the MC CHD found in adults?
birth: VSD adults: ASD
26
with a VSD, baby is at risk for ________
endocarditis
27
with ASD, baby is at risk for ______
paradoxical embolus
28
which congenital heart condition is usually found in adults, because it is asx in kids?
ASD
29
concentric RVH
pulmonic stenosis (PS)
30
normally closes 2-3 days after birth
PDA
31
rib notching on CXR
CoA
32
with CoA, baby is at risk for _________
2ndary HTN as a kid
33
murmur heart at ULSB crescendo-decrescendo Echo shows RVH could be one of two things?
pulmonic stenosis | ASD
34
RSR' on EKG
ASD
35
murmur heard at LLSB harsh heard within 36 hours of birth
VSD
36
mom's with rubella, premature babies are at risk for ______
PDA
37
when does PDA usually close?
2-3d after birth
38
murmur at ULSB radiates to clavicle continuous, machinery
PDA
39
with PDA, there is ____-sided hypertrophy
left
40
with PS, there is _____-sided hypertrophy
right (concentric)
41
treatment for PDA?
indomethacin
42
4 aspects of tetralogy of fallot?
1. biventricular origin of aorta 2. large VSD 3. obstructed pulmonic blood flow 4. RVH
43
baby is projectile vomiting. suspect?
pyloric stenosis
44
"olive-shaped mass" on abd PE
pyloric stenosis
45
baby doesn't pass meconium within 72h | + squirt sign
Hirschprung's disease
46
how do you dx Hirschprungs?
rectal bx
47
18-month old has severe abdominal pain with currant-jelly stools and draws his legs and knees to his abdomen. suspect?
intussusception
48
double bubble sign
volvulus (air fluid levels in stomach and duodenum)
49
dx/tx of intussusception?
ba and air enema
50
birds beak cut off/corkscrew on Ba swallow
volvulus
51
bulls eye/target sign on US
intussusception
52
kid reports with painless GI bleeding and recurrent intussusception. suspect?
Meckel's diverticulum
53
which hip more commonly has developmental dysplasia?
left
54
if a female is born in the breech position, when should you to an US to check for developmental dysplasia?
6weeks
55
a thin, active 7y/o presents with a limp and groin pain that worsens with activity and decreased ROM. suspect?
legg-calve-perthes disease
56
legg-calve-perthes disease should fix itself within?
12-18mos
57
an obese 10y/o presents with a limp and groin pain that worsens with activity. suspect?
SCFE
58
"fuzzy" | femoral head appearance on XR
SCFE
59
"crescent sign" | femoral head appearance on XR
legg-calve-perthes disease
60
3y/o presents with acute limp and groin pain that is worse in the morning. suspect?
transient synovitis of hip
61
transient synovitis of the hip fixes itself within?
3-14 days
62
the MC cause of toeing before age 3 in is _______
internal tibial torsion
63
the MC cause of toeing in after age 3 is _______
femoral anteversion | corrects by 8y
64
going thru growth spurt, basketball player, lower leg pain (e.g. tibial tubercle). suspect?
osgood-schlatter's disease
65
at what joints is metatarsus adductus rotated?
tarsometatarsal joints
66
what are the 4 criteria for talipes equinovarus (club foot)?
1. plantar flx of ankle 2. adduction of heel 3. adduction of forefoot 4. pes cavus
67
fx of physis?
salter-harris fracture
68
genetic defect in type 1 collagen causes short stature, lax ligaments, bone deformities, and poor hearing?
osteogenesis imperfecta
69
child is having arthritic symptoms with fevers daily, a heat rash and systemic symptoms?
juvenile idiopathic arthritis: systemic
70
what age groups get juvenile idiopathic *poly*arthritis?
2-5 and 10-14y
71
is juvenile idiopathic *poly*arthritis symmetric or asymmetric?
symmetric
72
a preschool-age girl with dry hands and swollen DIP joints probably has?
juvenile idiopathic arthritis: psoriatic
73
with kawasaki disease, there is an increased risk of ________
aneurysms ----> sudden death
74
how do you treat kawasaki disease?
IVIG
75
2 diagnostic tests for metabolic disease?
tandem mass spectrometry | if +, metabolic challenge
76
treatment for increased GH?
somatostatin
77
to diagnose hypothyroidism, you look for what marker?
anti-TPD Ab
78
to dx hyperthyroidism, you look for what marker?
TSI
79
autosomal recessive deficiency of 21-alpha-hydroxylase which causes issues with 2ndary sex characteristics if mild, and primary sex characteristics if severe?
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
80
characteristics of complete androgen insensitivity?
male with female genitalia has testes in abdomen NO ovaries or uterus developed breasts
81
characteristics of partial androgen insensitivity?
no clear genitals at birth
82
characteristics of mild androgen insensitivity?
male born with male genitals | very few sx
83
for renal issues, what is the diagnostic method of choice?
VCUG - voiding cystourethrogram
84
if you suspect primary nephrotic syndrome, when you can you treat *without* getting a biopsy first?
age 1-8 | proteinuria lasting shorter than 8 weeks
85
post-strep glomerulnephritis is an example of?
secondary nephrotic syndrome
86
``` fever, rash, arthralgias steadily rising Cr constitutional sx no hematuria or proteinuria suspect? ```
TIN
87
deafness, thrombocytes and cataracts are all a a part of?
alport syndrome | can lead to chronic TIN
88
HUS occurs in kids of what age?
less than 4y
89
HUS is usually preceded by _________
GI illness
90
helmet and burr cells
HUS
91
what is the leading cause of HTN in kids?
vesicourethral reflex
92
a child less than 5 with a liver mass probably has?
hepatoblastoma
93
a child 15-19 with a liver mass probably has?
HCC
94
philadelphia chromosome
CML
95
hx of mono | Reed-sternberg cells
hodgkin's lymphoma
96
catecholamine secretion marker
neuroblastoma | MC malignancy of infancy
97
sunburst pattern on XR
osteosarcoma | MC bone cancer
98
"small, round, blue cells" | chromosome 22 translocations
Ewing sarcoma
99
MC cancer in kids
ALL
100
kid has leukocoria (white papillary reflex)
retinoblastoma