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Flashcards in 1000 - Midterm 1 Deck (201):
1

Why are managers important?

They ensure that all employees are getting their jobs done

2

What is the single most important variable in employee productivity and loyalty?

Quality of the relationship between employees and their direct supervisors

3

What is a manager?

Someone who coordinates and oversees the work of other people so that organizational goals can be accomplished

4

Managers are classified into three categories:

1) First line
2) Middle
3) Top

5

What is a first-line manager?

They manage the work of non-managerial employees i.e. supervisors, shift managers, district managers, department managers

6

What is a middle manager?

They manage the work of first-line managers and can be found between the lowest and top levels of organization
i.e. regional manager, project leader, store manager, division manager

7

What is a top manager?

They are responsible for making organization-wide decisions and establishing the plans and goals that affect the entire organization
i.e. executive vice president, president, managing director, CPO, CEO

8

What is an organization?

A deliberate arrangement of people to accomplish some specific purpose
i.e. college, university, churches, Facebook

9

All organizations contain three attributes:

1) Distinct purpose
2) Composed of people
3) Develop some DELIBERATE STRUCTURE which members do their work

10

What is management?

Involves coordinating and overseeing the work activities of others so that their activities are completed efficiently and effectively

11

What is efficiency?

Getting the most output from the least amount of inputs
- Concerned with the MEANS

12

What is effectiveness?

"Doing the right things"; doing work activities that will help the organization reach its goals
- Concerned with the ENDS

13

Management researchers have developed 3 approaches to describe what managers do:

1) Functions
2) Roles
3) Skills

14

Management strives for __ (high efficiency) and __ (high effectiveness)

Low Resource Waste; High Goal Attainment

15

What are the five functions that managers performed as outlined by Henri Fayol?

1) Planning
2) Organizing
3) Commanding
4) Coordinating
5) Controlling

16

What is planning?

Setting goals, establishing strategies, and developing plans to coordinate activities

17

What is organizing?

Determining what needs to be done, how it will be done, and who is to do it, and what decisions will be made

18

What is leading?

Management function that involves working with and through people to accomplish organizational goals

19

What is controlling?

Management function that involves monitoring, comparing, and correcting work performance

20

What are managerial roles?

Specific actions or behaviors expected of and exhibited by a manager

21

What are interpersonal roles?

Ones that involve people
- figurehead, leader, liason

22

What are informational roles?

Collecting, receiving, and disseminating information
- monitor, disseminator, spokesperson

23

What are decisional roles?

Entail making decisions or choices
- entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, negotiator

24

What are the 3 critical skills in managing?

1) Technical - Job specific knowledge and techniques to perform work tasks (important to first line managers)
2) Human - The ability to work well with other people both individually and in a group (important to all)
3) Conceptual - Skills managers use to think and to conceptualize about abstract and complex situations (important to top managers)

25

What is sustainability?

Ability to achieve its business goals and increase long-term shareholder value by integrating economic, environmental, and social opportunities into its business strategies

26

What is universality of management?

The reality that management is needed in all types and sizes of organizations, at all organizational levels, areas, no matter where located

27

What is social obligation?

When a firm engages in social actions because of its obligation to meet certain economic and legal responsibilities

28

What is socioeconomic view?

Management's social responsibility goes BEYOND making profits to include protecting and improving society's welfare

29

What is social responsibility?

A business' intention, beyond its legal and economic obligations, to do the right things and act in ways that are good for society

30

What is the classical view?

Management's only social responsibility is to maximize PROFITS

31

What is social responsiveness?

When a firm engages in social actions in response to some popular social need i.e. Ford motors thing

32

What is social screening?

Applying social criteria (screens) to investment decisions

33

What is green management?

Managers consider the impact of their organization on the natural environment

34

What is the legal (or light green) approach?

Doing what is required legally; organizations exhibit little environmental sensitivity, they obey laws rules and regulations without legal challenge

35

What is the market approach?

Whatever customers demand in terms of environmentally friendly products will be what the organization provides

36

What is the stakeholder approach?

Organization works to meet the environmental demands of multiple stakeholders i.e. employees, suppliers, community

37

What is the activist (or dark green) approach?

Looks for ways to protect the earth's natural resources; highest degree of environmental sensitivity and illustrates social responsibility

38

What are ethics?

Principles, values and beliefs that define what is right and wrong behavior

39

What are values?

Basic convictions about what is right and wrong

40

What is ego strength?

A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions

41

What is locus of control?

A personality attribute that measures the degree to which people believe they control their own fate

42

What is values-based management?

The organization's values guide to employees in the way they do their jobs
i.e. "Make it better"

43

What is a whistle blower?

Individuals who raise ethical concerns or issues to each other

44

What is a social entrepreneur?

An individual or organization who seeks out opportunities to improve society by using practical, innovative, and sustainable approaches

45

What is a decision?

A choice among two or more alternatives

46

What is a problem?

An obstacle that makes it difficult to achieve a desired goal or purpose

47

What are the 7 steps to decision making process?

1) Identifying a problem
2) Identifying decision
3) Allocating weights to the criteria
4) Developing alternatives
5) Analyzing alternatives
6) Selecting an alternative
7) Implementing the alternative

48

What is a problem?

An obstacle that makes it difficult to achieve a desired goal or purpose

49

What is a decision?

A choice among two or more alternatives

50

What is decision criteria?

Criteria that define what's important or relevant to resolving a problem

51

What is escalation of commitment?

An increased commitment to a previous decision despite evidence it may have been wrong

52

What is intuitive decision making?

Making decisions on the basis of experience, feelings, and accumulated judgment

53

What is evidence-based management (EBMgt)?

The systematic use of the best available evidence to improve the management practice

54

What are structured problems?

Straightforward, familiar, and easily defined problems

55

What are programmed decisions?

A repetitive decision that can be handled by a routine approach

56

What is a procedure?

A series of sequential steps used to respond to a well-structured problem

57

What is a rule?

An explicit statement that tells managers what can or cannot be done

58

What is a policy?

A guideline for making decisions

59

What are unstructured problems?

Problems that are new or unusual and for which information is ambiguous or incomplete

60

What are nonprogrammed decisions?

Unique and nonrecurring decisions that require a custom-made solution

61

What is certainty?

A situation in which a manager can make accurate decisions because all outcomes are known

62

What is a risk?

A situation in which the decision maker is able to estimate the likelihood of certain outcomes

63

What is uncertainty?

A situation in which a decision maker has neither certainty nor reasonable probability estimates available

64

What is linear thinking style?

Decision style characterized by a person's preference for using external data and facts and processing this information through rational, logical thinking

65

What is nonlinear thinking style?

Decision style characterized by a person's preference for internal sources of information and processing this information with internal insights, feelings, and hunches

66

What are heuristics?

Rules of thumb that managers use to simplify decision making

67

What are goals / objectives?

Desired outcomes or targets

68

What are plans?

Documents that outline how goals are going to be met

69

What are stated goals?

Official statements of what an org. says, and what it wants its stakeholders to believe its goals are

70

What are real goals?

Goals that an org. actually pursues, as defined by the actions of its members

71

What are strategic plans?

Plans that apply the entire organization and establish the organizations overall goals

72

What are operational plans?

Plans that encompass a particular operational area of the organization

73

What are long-term plans?

Plans with a time frame beyond 3 YEARS

74

What are short-term plans?

Plans covering ONE YEAR or LESS

75

What are specific plans?

Plans that are clearly defined and leave no room for interpretation

76

What are directional plans?

Plans that are flexible and set out general guidelines

77

What is a single-use plan?

A one-time plan designed to meet the needs of a unique situation

78

What are standing plans?

Ongoing plans that provide guidance for activities performed repeatedly

79

What is traditional goal setting?

An approach to setting goals in which top managers set goals that then flow down through the organization and become subgoals for each organizational area

80

What are means-ends chain?

An integrated network of goals in which the accomplishment of goals at one level serves as the means for achieving the goals or ends at the next level

81

What is management by objectives (MBO)?

A process of setting mutually agreed-upon goals and using those goals to evaluate employee performance

82

What is a mission?

Purpose of an organization

83

What is a commitment concept?

Plans should extend far enough to meet those commitments made when the plans were developed

84

What is a formal planning department?

A group of planning specialists whose sole responsibility is helping to write organizational plans

85

What is environmental scanning?

Screening information to detect emerging trends; large amounts of information to anticipate and interpret changes in environment

86

What is competitor intelligence?

Gathering information about competitors that allows managers to anticipate competitors' actions rather than merely react to them

87

What is organizing?

Arranging and structuring work to accomplish the organization's goals

88

What is organizational structure?

The formal arrangement of jobs within an organization

89

What is an organizational chart?

The visual representation of an organization's structure

90

What is an organizational design?

Creating or changing an organization's structure

91

What is work specialization?

Dividing work activities into separate job tasks

92

What is departmentalization?

The basis by which jobs are grouped together

93

What is staff authority?

Positions with some authority that have been created to support, assist, and advise those holding line authority

94

What is unity of command?

Management principle that each person should report to only ONE manager

95

What is responsibility?

The obligation or expectation to perform any assigned duties

96

What is span of control?

Number of employees a manager can efficiently and effectively manage

97

What is centralization?

The degree to which decision making is concentrated at upper levels of the organization

98

What is decentralization?

The degree to which lower level employees provide input or actually make decisions

99

What is employee empowerment?

Giving employees more authority/power to make decisions

100

What is formalization?

How standardized an organization's jobs are and the extend to which employee behavior is guided by rules and procedures

101

What is mechanistic organization?

An organizational design that's rigid and tightly controlled

102

What is organic organization?

An organizational design that's highly adaptive and flexible

103

What is unit production?

The production of items in units or small batches

104

What is mass production?

The production of items in large batches

105

What is process production?

The production of items in continuous processes

106

What is simple structure?

An organizational design with low departmentalization, wide spans of control, centralized authority, and little formalization

107

What is functional structure?

An organizational design that groups together similar or related occupational specialities

108

What is divisional structure?

An organizational structure made up of separate, semiautonomous units or divisions

109

What is line authority?

Authority that entitles a manager to direct the work of an employee

110

What is cross-functional team?

A work team composed of individuals from various functional specialties

111

What is acceptance theory of authority?

The view that authority comes from the willingness of subordinates to accept it

112

What is parochialism?

Viewing the world solely through your own perspectives, leading to an inability to recognize differences between people

113

What is an ethnocentric attitude?

The parochialistic belief that the best work approaches and practices are those of the HOME country

114

What is a polycentric attitude?

The view that the managers in the HOST country know the best work approaches and practices for running their business

115

What is a geocentric attitude?

A world-oriented view that focuses on using the best approaches and people from around the globe

116

What is the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)?

An agreement among the Mexican, Canadian, and U.S. governments in which barriers to trade have been eliminated

117

What is the multinational corporation (MNC)?

Refers to any and all types of international companies that maintain operations in multiple countries

118

What is multidomestic corporation?

An MNC that decentralizes management and other decisions to the LOCAL country

119

What is transnational or borderless organization?

An MNC in which artificial geographical barriers are eliminated

120

What is global sourcing?

Purchasing materials or labor from around the world wherever it is cheapest

121

What is exporting?

Making products domestically and selling them abroad

122

What is importing?

Acquiring products made abroad and selling them domestically

123

What is franchising?

An organization gives another organization the right to use its name and operating methods

124

What is strategic alliance?

A partnership between and organization and a foreign company partner(s) in which both share sources and knowledge in developing new products or building production facilities

125

What is a joint venture?

A specific type of strategic alliance in which the partners agree to form a separate, independent organization for some business purpose

126

What is a foreign subsidiary?

Directly investing in a foreign country by setting up a separate and independent production facility or office

127

What is free market economy?

An economic system in which resources are primarily owned and controlled by the private sector

128

What is planned economy?

An economic system in which economic decisions are planned by a central government

129

What is Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness (GLOBE) program?

The research program that studies cross-cultural leadership behaviors

130

What is institutional collectivism?

Individuals are encouraged by societal institutions to be integrated into groups within organizations and society

131

What is gender differentiation?

Society maximizes gender role differences as measured by how much status and decision-making responsibilities women have

132

What is in-group collectivism?

Members of a society take pride in membership in small groups i.e. family and close friends, and the organizations in which they're employed

133

What is performance orientation?

The degree to which a society encourages and rewards group members for performance improvement and excellence

134

What is cultural intelligence?

Cultural awareness and sensitivity skills

135

What is global mind-set?

Attributes that allow a leader to be effective in cross-cultural environments

136

What is surface-level diversity?

Easily perceived differences that may trigger certain stereotypes, but that do not necessarily reflect the ways people think or feel

137

What is deep-level diversity?

Differences in values, personality, and work preferences

138

What is a bias?

A tendency or preference toward a particular perspective or ideology

139

What is prejudice?

A preconceived belief, opinion, or judgment toward a person or a group of people

140

What is stereotyping?

Judging a person based on a perception of a group to which that person belongs

141

What is discrimination?

When someone acts out their prejudicial attitudes toward people who are the targets of their prejudice

142

What is 'glass ceiling'?

The invisible barrier that separates women and minorities from top management positions

143

Groups made up of employees connected by some common dimension of diversity is known as __

Employee resource groups

144

Better use of employee talent, increased quality of team problem-solving efforts, and ability to attract and retain diverse employees is known as __

People management benefits

145

Reduced costs, enhanced problem-solving ability, and improved system flexibility is known as __

Organizational performance benefits

146

Increased understanding of diverse marketplace, potential to improve sales and market share, competitive advantage because of improved innovation efforts / viewed as moral/ethical is known as __

Strategic benefits

147

What is strategic management?

What managers do to develop the organization's strategies

148

What are strategies?

The plans for how the organization will do what it's in business to do, how it will compete successfully, and how it will attract and satisfy its customers in order to achieve its goals

149

What is a business model?

How a company is going to make money

150

An organization's assets that are used to develop, manufacture, and deliver products to its customers are known as __

Resources

151

An organization's skills and abilities in doing the work activities needed in its business are known as __

Capabilities

152

The organization's major value-creating capabilities that determine its competitive weapons are known as __

Core competencies

153

Any activities that organization does well or any unique resources that it has are known as __

Strengths

154

Activities the organization does not do well or resources it needs but does not possess are known as __

Weaknesses

155

An analysis of the organization's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats is known as __

SWOT analysis

156

An organizational strategy that determines what businesses a company is in or wants to be in, and what it wants to do with those businesses is known as __

Corporate strategy

157

A corporate strategy that's used when an organization wants to expand the number of markets served or products offered, either through its current business(es) or through new business(es) are known as __

Growth strategy

158

A corporate strategy in which an organization continues to do what it is currently doing is known as __

Stability strategy

159

A corporate strategy designed to address declining performance is known as __

Renewal strategy

160

A strategy tool that guides resource allocation decisions on the basis of market share and growth rate of SBUs is known as __

BCG matrix

161

An organizational strategy for how an organization will compete in its business(es) is known as __

Competitive strategy

162

The single independent businesses of an organization that formulate their own competitive strategies is known as __

Strategic business unit (SBU)

163

What is strategic flexibility?

The ability to recognize major external changes, to quickly commit resources, and to recognize when a strategic decision was a mistake

164

What is a first mover?

An organization that's first to bring a product innovation to the market or to use a new process innovation

165

The process by which a person's efforts are energized, directed, and sustained toward attaining a goal, is known as __

Motivation

166

What are esteem needs?

Needs for internal esteem factors such as self-respect, autonomy, and achievement and external esteem factors such as status, recognition, and attention

167

What are self-actualization needs?

Needs for growth, achieving one's potential, and self-fulfillment; the drive to become what one is capable of doing

168

What is Theory X and what is Theory Y?

X: Negative view of people that assumes workers have little ambition, dislike work, and want to avoid responsibility, and need to be closely controlled to work effectively
Y: Positive view that assumes employees enjoy work, seek out and accept responsibility, and exercise self-direction

169

What is two-factor theory?

Proposes that intrinsic factors are related to job satisfaction, while extrinsic factors are associated with job dissatisfaction

170

What are hygiene factors?

Factors that eliminate job dissatisfaction, but don't motivate

171

What are motivators?

Factors that increase job satisfaction and motivation

172

What is the three-needs theory?

Three acquired needs - achievement, power, and affiliation, are major motives in work

173

The drive to succeed and excel in relation to a set of standards is known as __

Need for achievement (nAch)

174

The need to make others behave in a way that they would not have behaved otherwise is known as __

Need for power (nPow)

175

The desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships is known as __

Need for affiliation (nAff)

176

What is self-efficacy?

An individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task

177

The proposition that specific goals increase performance and that difficult goals, when accepted, result in higher performance than do easy goals, is known as __

Goal-setting theory

178

The theory that behavior is function of its consequences is known as __

Reinforcement theory

179

Consequences immediately following a behavior, which increase the probability that the behavior will be repeated is known as __

Reinforcers

180

The number of different tasks required in a job and the frequency with which those tasks are repeated is known as __

Job scope

181

__ is the horizontal expansion of a job by increasing job scope, and __ is the vertical expansion of a job by adding planning and evaluating responsibilities

Job enlargement; job enrichment

182

__ is the way tasks are combined to form complete jobs, and __ is the degree of control employees have over their work

Job design; job depth

183

__ is an approach to job design that focuses on how people's tasks and jobs are increasingly based on social relationships

Relational perspective of work design

184

__ is an approach to job design in which employees take the initiative to change how their work is performed

Proactive perspective of work design

185

__ are work practices designed to elicit greater input or involvement from workers

High-involvement work practices

186

__ is the theory that an employee compares their job's input-outcomes ratio with that of relevant others and then corrects any inequity

Equity theory

187

What are referents?

The persons, systems, or selves against which individuals compare themselves to assess equity

188

__ is perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals

Distributive justice

189

__ is the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards

Procedural justice

190

__ is the theory that an individual tends to act in a way based on the expectation that the act will be followed by a given outcome and on the attractiveness of that outcome to the individual

Expectancy theory

191

What is open-book management?

A motivational approach where an organization's financial statements are shared with all employees

192

What are employee recognition programs?

Personal attention and expressing interest, approval, and appreciation for a job well done

193

What is a pay-for-performance program?

Variable compensation plans that pay employees on the basis of some performance measure

194

What is organizational change?

Any alteration of people, structure, or technology in an organization

195

What is change agent?

Someone who acts as a catalyst and assumes the responsibility for managing the change process

196

What is organizational development (OD)?

Change methods that focus on people and the nature and quality of interpersonal work relationships

197

__ are work expectations that are hard to satisfy

Role conflicts

198

__ is having more work to accomplish than time permits

Role overload

199

__ is when role expectations are not clearly understood

Role ambiguity

200

__ is the ability to combine ideas in a unique way or to make unusual associations between ideas

Creativity

201

__ is taking creative ideas and turning them into useful products or work methods

Innovation