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Repro module - 4th year > 2013 final > Flashcards

2013 final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is true regarding combined oral contraceptives?

A. Decrease insulin in type 2 diabetes
B. Decrease the risk of ovarian cancer
C. Increase the risk of endometrial cancer
D. Decrease the risk of CVD

A

B. Decrease the risk of ovarian cancer

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2
Q

What is true about drugs during pregnancy?

A. They are not metabolized in the placenta
B. Ionized drugs pass easier than non-ionized drugs
C. Most of them pass through placenta via active transport
D. Drugs that cause vasoconstriction can decrease birth weight

A

D. Drugs that cause vasoconstriction can decrease birth weight

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3
Q

Which drug should be avoided throughout all trimesters of pregnancy?

A. ACEI
B. Antithyroid drugs
C. Phenytoin

A

A. ACEI

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4
Q

A drug that causes premature closure of ductus arteriosus when taken before delivery.

A

Aspirin

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5
Q

This drug doesn’t cross the placenta because of its large molecular weight.

A

Heparin

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6
Q

A drug that causes cleft lip and palate and nasal hypoplasia.

A. Phenytoin
B. Aspirin
C. Warfarin
D. Retinoids

A

C. Warfarin

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7
Q

Metabolism of this drug increases during pregnancy due to induction of hepatic microsomal
enzymes.

A. Phenytoin
B. Aspirin
C. Warfarin
D. Retinoids

A

A. Phenytoin

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8
Q

Which of the following is true about HSIL (dysplasia)?

A. Increased risk of progression to adenocarcinoma
B. HSIL is much more common than LSIL
C. 30% associated with high risk oncogenic groups
D. HPV 16 is the most common high risk oncogenic group
E. Usually arises from benign warts

A

D. HPV 16 is the most common high risk oncogenic group

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9
Q

A young female presented with a painful lump in her breast that showed three principal features: 1) cyst formation, often with apocrine metaplasia; 2) increase in fibrous stroma and 3) adenosis. What is the diagnosis of this mass?

A

Fibrocystic change

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10
Q

What is the difference between DCIS and invasive ductal carcinoma?

A

Restriction of DCIS by the basement membrane (myoepithelial cells)

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11
Q

Endometrial biopsy from a patient with ovarian cancer showed hyperplasia. What is the diagnosis of the ovarian tumor?

A

Granulosa cell tumor

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12
Q

A Kuwaiti family has a positive history of breast cancer. How would they be genetically investigated?

A

Linkage analysis

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13
Q

A 40-year-old woman presented with dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Ultrasound of the uterus showed an enlarged asymmetrical mass. Histopathological examination showed dilated endometrial glands in the myometrium. What is the diagnosis?

A

Adenomyosis

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14
Q

Choose the most appropriate diagnosis: Infiltrative proliferation of endometrial glands that had mutation in PI3K/Akt.

A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Endometrioid carcinoma C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Leiomyoma

A

B. Endometrioid carcinoma

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15
Q

Choose the most appropriate diagnosis: Well-defined uterine tumor showed fascicles of spindle cells without atypia.

A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Endometrioid carcinoma
C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Leiomyoma

A

D. Leiomyoma

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16
Q

Where does the lymphatic drainage of the testis go?

A

Lumbar lymph nodes

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17
Q

Which structure helps the testes to descend into the scrotal sac?

A

Gubernaculum

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18
Q

Which structure is located in the deep perineal pouch?

A

Bulbourethral glands

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19
Q

Which shape of the pelvic inlet is the most suitable for vaginal delivery?

A

Gynecoid

20
Q

Which muscle plays a role in thermoregulation?

A

Cremasteric muscle

21
Q

At which stage of the ovarian follicle will the oocyte be surrounded by cuboidal cells?

A. Primordial follicle
B. Primary follicle

A

B. Primary follicle

22
Q

Choose the most appropriate structure: It is diamond-shaped and bounded laterally by ischiopubic rami, ischial tuberosities, and
sacrotuberous ligaments.

A. Pelvic inlet
B. Pelvic outlet
C. Mixed pelvis
D. Platypelloid pelvis 
E. Gynecoid pelvis 
F. Anthropoid pelvis 
G. Android pelvis
A

B. Pelvic outlet

23
Q

Choose the most appropriate structure: Its transverse diameter =13.5 cm and anterior-posterior diameter=11 cm.

A. Pelvic inlet
B. Pelvic outlet
C. Mixed pelvis
D. Platypelloid pelvis 
E. Gynecoid pelvis 
F. Anthropoid pelvis 
G. Android pelvis
A

A. Pelvic inlet

24
Q

Which of the following is a remnant of the cephalic part of paramesonephric duct?

A

Appendix of the testis

25
Q

Which of the following is a remnant of the proximal mesonephric tubules and is attached to the ovary?

A

Epoophoron

26
Q

Which anomaly results from failure of fusion of paramesonephric ducts but the lower ends join to form the vaginal plate?

A. Bicornis bicollis
B. Bicornuate uterus
C. Didelphys

A

A. Bicornis bicollis

27
Q

Which structure is formed by proliferation of cells from paramesonephric ducts?

A. Mullerian eminence
B. Vaginal cord

A

A. Mullerian eminence

28
Q

Which of the following repels the maternal immune cells to protect the embryo?

A

Chorionicgonadotrophin

29
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for endometrial cancer? (PBL week 5)

A. Smoking
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Obesity

A

C. Obesity

30
Q

Where does metabolism of oxytocin occur during pregnancy? (Learning topic)

A. Placenta
B. Maternal liver
C. Maternal kidney
D. Fetal liver
E. Fetal kidney
A

A. Placenta

Note: Oxytocin is metabolized in the liver and kidney in non-pregnant females. However, it is mainly degraded by placental oxytocinase during pregnancy.

31
Q

The fundus of the uterus in a 30-year-old pregnant female is located at the umbilicus. What is the gestational age? (Clinical skills)

A

22 weeks

Note: Symphysis-fundal height is a maneuver used to determine the gestational age. There are 3 landmarks that you have to know:

1) Pubic symphysis -> 12 weeks
2) Umbilicus -> 22 weeks
3) Xiphisternum (xyphoid process) -> 38 weeks

32
Q

Which bacterium has to be screened in pregnant women to prevent neonatal meningitis/infection? (Basic knowledge)

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

33
Q

A female gets her period regularly every 35 days for 5 days. On which day does she ovulate?

A

21

34
Q

Choose the definition of the following stages of labor: Second stage of labor. (PBL week 4)

A. From the onset of labor till full cervical dilatation
B. From full cervical dilatation till delivery of the fetus
C. From delivery of the fetus till delivery of the placenta

A

B. From full cervical dilatation till delivery of the fetus

35
Q

Choose the definition of the following stages of labor: Third stage of labor. (PBL week 4)

A. From the onset of labor till full cervical dilatation
B. From full cervical dilatation till delivery of the fetus
C. From delivery of the fetus till delivery of the placenta

A

C. From delivery of the fetus till delivery of the placenta

36
Q

Choose the appropriate parity code in the following scenario: A woman delivered for the 2nd time one week ago. Both deliveries happened at 34 weeks of gestation and resulted in live infants.

A

G2 P(0 + 2 + 0 +2)

37
Q

Choose the appropriate parity code in the following scenario: A woman delivered 3 days ago at 38 weeks of gestation. She used IVF (In vitro fertilization) after 5 years of infertility and gave birth to healthy twins (boy and girl) after a C-section.

A

G1 P(1 + 0 + 0 +2)

38
Q

A woman has her periods with normal amount every 45 days. What is that called?

A

Oligomenorrhea

39
Q

Which of the following events occur during the first half of pregnancy?

A

Increased lipogenesis

40
Q

Why does vital capacity stay the same during pregnancy despite the decrease in ERV and IRV?

A. Tidal volume increases
B. Minute volume increases

A

A. Tidal volume increases

41
Q

Which of the following facilitates oxygen diffusion through the placenta from the mother to the fetus even though PO2 = 30 mmHg in the fetal tissues?

A

Fetal hemoglobin shifts oxygen dissociation curve to the left

42
Q

EBM: The strongest feature that increases the validity of an RCT and makes treatment arms equal
on all factors except for the treatment.

A. No drop-outs
B. Blinding
C. Intention to treat
D. Stratification
E. Randomization
A

E. Randomization

43
Q

EBM: This feature prevents systemic error (bias) in outcome assessment in an RCT.

A. No drop-outs
B. Blinding
C. Intention to treat
D. Stratification
E. Randomization
A

B. Blinding

44
Q

EBM: A screening test for iron deficiency anemia has a pretest probability pf 90%. What is the effect of decreasing pretest probability from 90% to 10%?

A.
Sensitivity: Increased
Specificity: Decreased
PPV: Decreased
NPV: Increased
B.
Sensitivity: Decreased
Specificity: Increased
PPV: Increased
NPV: Decreased
C.
Sensitivity: Same
Specificity: Same
PPV: Decreased
NPV: Increased
D.
Sensitivity: Same
Specificity: Same
PPV: Increased
NPV: Decreased
A 
C.
Sensitivity: Same
Specificity: Same
PPV: Decreased
NPV: Increased
45
Q

EBM: An RCT usually has a description of the baseline characteristics (age, sex, race … etc.) based on the treatment status (treatment group and placebo group). What is the main purpose of providing this table?

A. To show that confounding effect was minimized
B. To show that random error was controlled
C. To show the efficacy of the treatment
D. To show the statistical difference in different groups

A

A. To show that confounding effect was minimized

Repro module - 4th year (18 decks)

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