101-150

Question 1

All of the following are hormones EXCEPT
A. Bromocriptine
B. Somatotropin
C. Thyrotropin
D. Vasopressin
E. Somatomedin

Answer 1

Bromocriptine

Question 2

Important drugs used in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis include all of the following EXCEPT

A. PTU
B. KI
C. Thyroglobulin
D. Radioactive iodine
E. Methimazole

Answer 2

Thyroglobulin

Question 3

All of the following act by a similar mechanism EXCEPT
A. Tolbutamide
B. Tolazamide
C. Chlorpropamide
D. Glipizide
E. Metformin

Answer 3

Metformin

Question 4

All of the following antimicrobial agents are inhibitors of protein synthesis EXCEPT
A. Clindamycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Vancomycin
D. Stretomycin
E. Chloramphenicol

Answer 4

Vancomycin

Question 5

The mechanism of antibacterial action of cephalosporins involves
A. Inhibition of peptide synthesis
B. Interference with the synthesis of ergosterol
C. Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes
D. Inhibition of beta-lactamases
E. Inhibiton of DNA gyrase

Answer 5

Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes

Question 6

The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves
A. Inhibition of the conversion of
lanosterol to ergosterol
B. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyltRNA to bacterial ribosomes
D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyltransferases
E. None of the above

Answer 6

Blockade of binding of aminoacyltRNA to bacterial ribosomes

Question 7

All of the following statements about aminoglycosides are accurate EXCEPT

A. They exert synergistic effects with
beta-lactam antibiotics against
selected organisms
B. They are bactericidal
C. Their antibacterial action involves binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit and subsequent inhibition of peptidyltransferase
D. Clinical resistance occurs through plasmid-mediated formation of group transferase inactivating enzymes
E. Staphylococci resistant to methicillin are usually resistant to aminoglycosides

Answer 7

Their antibacterial action involves binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit and subsequent inhibition of
peptidyltransferase

Question 8

The primary reason for the use of drug combinations in the treatment of TB is to
A. Prolong the plasma half-life of each drug
B. Lower the incidence of adverse effects
C. Enhance the activity against metabolically inactive mycobacteria
D. Delay the emergence of resistance
E. All of the above

Answer 8

Delay the emergence of resistance

Question 9

Which ONE of the following anticancer drugs is cell cycle nonspecific?
A. Vinblastine
B. Etoposide
C. Cytarabine
D. Daunorubucin
E. All of the above

Answer 9

Daunorubucin

Question 10

Which of the following is not a proton-pump inhibitor?
A. Omeprazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Pantoprazole
D. Lansoprazole
E. None of the above

Answer 10

Metronidazole

Question 11

Filariasis, an infection which can lead to lymphatic obstructive disease, is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malay. Eradication of the microfilaria can be accomplished by the use of which of the following agents?
A. Praziquantel
B. Diethylcarbamazine
C. Niclosamide
D. Albendazole
E. Metronidazole

Answer 11

Diethylcarbamazine

Question 12

Which of the following antineosplastic agents is considered as cell cycle phasespecific agent in terms of its action on cancer cells?
A. Dactinomycin
B. Daunorubucin
C. Vincristine
D. Cisplastin
E. Mechlorethamine

Answer 12

Vincristine

Question 13

Which of the following is (are) important adjuvants in cancer chemotheraphy involving cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide to prevent urotoxicity?
A. MESNA
B. Acrolein
C. Sodium 2-sulfanylthanesulfate
D. A and B
E. A and C

Answer 13

MESNA and Sodium 2-sulfanylthanesulfate

Question 14

Which of the following is true about the drug Pritor®?
A. It is of the same therapeutic class and indication as Hypace® and Diovan ®
B. It is used to treat essential hypertension
C. It is associated with tachycardia, bradycardia, hypotension, and edema
D. A and B
E. B and C

Answer 14

It is used to treat essential hypertension

It is associated with tachycardia, bradycardia, hypotension, and edema

Question 15

Which of the following is not present in Cluviscol® tablets?
A. Vitamin D2 400 IU
B. Calcium 120mg
C. Ferrous fumarate 15mg
D. Vitamin C 150mg
E. Cobalt 3mg

Answer 15

Cobalt 3mg

Question 16

Which of the following is true regarding N-acetylcysteine?
A. Intravenously, it is indicated for the treatment of paracetamol poisoning
B. It is used as a mucolytic agent
C. It is marketed as Acetadote®, Fluimucil® and Hidonac®
D. A and B only
E. A, B and C

Answer 16

A. Intravenously, it is indicated for the treatment of paracetamol poisoning

B. It is used as a mucolytic agent

C. It is marketed as Acetadote®, Fluimucil® and Hidonac®

Question 17

Which of the following is true regarding Cellcept®?
A. It contains a prodrug that is converted
to the active drug in the liver.
B. It inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
C. It decreases B cell proliferation
D. A and B only

Answer 17

A. It contains a prodrug that is converted to the active drug in the liver.

B. It inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

Question 18

Xalatan® can best be described as a(n)
A. Cholinesterase inhibitor
B. Osmotic diuretic
C. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent
D. Prodrug
E. Prostaglandin agonist

Answer 18

Prostaglandin agonist

Question 19

As an antiarrythmic drug, Tonocard® is most similar in mechanism of action to which one of the following agents?
A. Amiodarone
B. Propranolol
C. Flecainide
D. Verapamil
E. Mexiletine

Answer 19

Mexiletine

Question 20

Which of the following antiarrythmic drugs is (are) associated with an adverse effect of cinchonism?
A. Acebutolol
B. Moricizine
C. Quinidine
D. Lidocaine
E. Disopyramide

Answer 20

Quinidine

Question 21

Colestipol can be classified as a(n)
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
B. Vasopressor
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic
D. ACE inhibitor
E. Bile acid sequestrant

Answer 21

Potassium-sparing diuretic

Question 22

Valium® appear to act as anxiolytic by
A. Altering the Na ion influx into the CNS
B. Potentiating the effects of GABA
C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS
D. Interfering with amine pump
E. Inhibiting the action of MAO

Answer 22

Potentiating the effects of GABA

Question 23

Clavunalic acid in Timentin®
A. Inhibits beta-lactamases
B. Prevents the urinary excretion of ticarcillin
C. Prevents first pass metabolism of ticarcillin
D. Is a buffer
E. Is an antiprotozoal agent

Answer 23

Inhibits beta-lactamases

Question 24

Propylthiouracil is used for the same indication as
A. Fluororacil
B. Danazol
C. Omeprazole
D. Pramipexole
E. Methimazole

Answer 24

Methimazole

Question 25

Which of the following is an indication of Ergotamine? A. Partial seizures B. Arthritic pain C. Tachycardia D. Psoriasis E. Migraine headaches

Answer 25

Migraine headaches

Question 26

At clinical doses, anti-Parkinson’s Disease Eldepryl® is a (n): A. MAO-A inhibitor B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT D. Anticholinergic E. All of the above

Answer 26

MAO-B inhibitor

Question 27

Which hypoglycemic agent is most similar in pharmacological action in miglitol? A. Glipizide B. Lispro insulin C. Proglitazone D. Replaganide E. Acarbose

Answer 27

Acarbose

Question 28

Statement 1: Simeco® contains 25mg of simethicone. Statement 2: It is used for the symptomatic relief of hyperacidity and flatulence. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. All of the above

Answer 28

If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect

Question 29

Statement 1: Ceporex®is a trade name for cefalexin. Statement 2: cefaclor belong to the same generation of cephalosporins as cephalexin. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 29

If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect

Question 30

Statement 1: Somatotropin is secreted by the posterior pituitary. Statement 2: Alphahypophamine is secreted by the posterior pituitary. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 30

If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect

Question 31

Statement 1: Inhalation of cannabis may cause the decreased pulse rate, perceptual changes and vascular congestion of the eye. Statement 2: The active component in cannabis is 9 -tetrahydocannabinol. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 31

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Question 32

Statement 1: Warfarin therapy is monitored by INR. Statement 2: It is important to maintain the INR between 2 to 3. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 32

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Question 33

Statement 1: Ridaura® is a goldcointaining DMARD. Statement 2: It is indicated in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and multiple sclerosis. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 33

If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect

Question 34

Statement 1: Lescol® and Lipitor® inhibit the formation of mevalonate by the HMG-CoA reductase. Statement 2: Lescol® is contraindicated for use in patients who are pregnant A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 34

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Question 35

Statement 1: Scopolamine is available in a transdermal form for the prevention of motion sickness. Statement 2: It acts by blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 35

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Question 36

Statement 1: Haloperidol is not an antipsychotic while chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic used clinically. Statement 2: Haloperidol does not produced extrapyramidal effects in contrast to chlorpromazine. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 36

If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Question 37

Statement 1: The “first-dose” effect is characterized by marked hypotension on taking the first few doses of medication. Statement 2: This effect is seen with the use of doxazosin. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 37

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Question 38

Statement 1: Dilantin® blocks voltagegated Ca ion channel in the neuron. Statement 2: Its use is associated with adverse effects such as gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism and ataxia A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 38

If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Question 39

Statement 1: Accutane® is a vitamin A derivative that is under pregnancy category X. Statement 2: It is used for the treatment of patients Psoriasis and alopecia. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E. None of the above

Answer 39

If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect

Question 40

Which of the following is(are) dopaminergic anti-parkinson’s agents I. Ropinerole II. Pergolide III. Procyclidine

Answer 40

Ropinerole and Pergolide

Question 41

Which of the following is protease inhibitors I. Cidofovir II. Acyclovir III. Nelfinavir

Answer 41

Nelfinavir

Question 42

Which of the following are aminopenicillins I. Bacampicillin II. Amoxicillin III. Ampicillin

Answer 42

Bacampicillin, Amoxicillin, and Ampicillin

Question 43

Which of the following is (are) used as an anti-fungal agent? I. Cycloserine II. Mafenide III. Terbinafine

Answer 43

Terbinafine

Question 44

Which of the following is (are) blockers of H1 receptors? I. Diphenhydramine II. Hydroxyzine III. Ranitidine

Answer 44

Diphenhydramine and Hydroxyzine

Question 45

Which of the following is (are) false about milrinone lactate? A. It may be administered Orally or parenterally B. It produces positive inotropic action C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS D. It inhibits phosphodiesterase 3, thereby increasing cAMP levels E. Both A and D

Answer 45

It may be administered Orally or parenterally

Question 46

The following statements about alteplase are true except: A. It is produce by recombinant DNA technology B. It is a tissue plasminogen activator C. It is administered parenterally D. It stimulate RBC production E. NOTA

Answer 46

It stimulate RBC production

Question 47

The following statements about Zocor® are true except: A. Inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase. B. It is an antiviral drug C. It is contraindicated to pregnant patient D. It requires to be taken at right E. NOTA

Answer 47

It is an antiviral drug

Question 48

Which of the following is (are) true about dobutamine? A. It is clinically use as an antidepressant and antihypertensive agent. B. It is only given parentally C. It is stumulate beta-1 receptor D. A and B E. B and C

Answer 48

(Both B and C) B. It is only given parentally C. It is stimulate beta-1 receptor

Question 49

Which of the following is true about fentanyl? A. It is available as a transdermal system B. It may be use as a cough suppressant C. It is use as local anesthetic D. Both A and C E. Both A and B

Answer 49

It is available as a transdermal system

Question 50

Reserpine, an alkaloid from rauwolfia can lower blood pressure and depress the CNS. What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic pathway is inhibited by reserpine to bring about these effect? A. DOPA decarboxylase B. Storage of catecholamines in the presynaptic vesicle C. Release of norepinephrine from presynaptic terminals D. MAO enzyme E. Uptake- 1 mechanism

Answer 50

Storage of catecholamines in the presynaptic vesicle