Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPLEX I > Musculo-Skeletal System > Flashcards

Musculo-Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

At what level is the hyoid bone?

A

C2-C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

cricoid cartilage

A

Below the thyroid cartilage

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The root of the spine of the scapula

A

T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The inferior angle of the scapula

A

T7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The posterior superior iliac crest

A

S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The spinal cord extends to

A

L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sternal angle or angle of Louis

A

The angle of Louis is the eponymous name given to the sternal angle which is the palpable anatomical feature formed from the manubriosternal junction.
Body of 2nd rib and T5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Termination of Aorta

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Scapula

A

Infraspinatus fossa, supraspinatus fossa, inferior angle, lateral border, medial border, glenoid fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

On the neck of the humerus

Greater and lesser tubercle

A

Gives us the intertubercular groove where the long head of the biceps ride.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the ulna articulate with?

A

The trochlea, radius, and cartilage (distally)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

carpal bones

A

Some lovers try positions
That they can’t handle

Scaphoid lunate triquetral
Pisiform
Trapezium Trapezoid Capitate Hamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Two holes in the mandible

What passes through it?

A

Mental foramen

Mental nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What makes the hard palate?

A

Palatine processes of the maxillary bones and the palatine bone proper (posterior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the clivus?

A

Part of the occipital bone in front of the magnum foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pteryeon

A

Meeting of the coronal temporoparietal, and sphenoid sutures.
This is the area through which the medial meningeal artery passes by. It is commonly ruptured when a person gets hit on the side of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the hardest cartilage in the body?

A

Fibrocartilage then hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hyaline cartilage

A

Lines the articular surfaces of the synovial joints.

Leftover from the fetal skeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Remember

A

Vertebral foramen is in every vertebrae

Transverse foramen are only in the cervical vertebrae and they are for the vertebral artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Curves of the spine

A

Primary and secondary
Primary is the fetal curve - kyphosis
Secondary are the lordotic curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fibula

A

Serves as an attachment point for muscles rather than weight-bearing bone.
Distally, the tibia forms the lateral malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Eversion ankle sprain

A

The deltoid ligament is affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Inversion ankle sprain

A

The anterior talofibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Remember

A

The glenoid only interact with the long head of the two muscles.
Supraglenoid tubercle - biceps
Infraglenoid - triceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Subacromial bursa

A

Allows for rotation

Under the acromion process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does the ulna articulate with the bones of the wrist?

A

No, it articulates with the radius, humerus, and the articular disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Gastrocnemius

A

Origin: proximal to articular surfaces of lateral condyle of the femur and medial condyle of the femur.
Insertion: Tendo-calcaneus (achilles tendon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Menisci

A

Figure 8
There are wholes in them which the tibia and femur articulate in. There is hyaline cartilage between the bones obviously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

A

They are named on the origin of the tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the muscles that close the jaw?

A

Medial pterygoid muscle, masseter, and temporalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the muscles that open the jaw?

A

Digastric and lateral pterygoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What nerve innervates all of these muscles mentioned previously?

A

CN5 - Facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What vertebra has the dens?

A

C2 - the atlas vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is the first vertebral disk found?

A

Between the C2 and C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Remember

A

ALL is on the front part of the body of the vertebra, the PLL is posterior to the body of the vertebra.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The ligamentum flavum

A

Found posterior to the vertebral foramen.

The PLL in this case would be anterior to the vertebral foramen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Osteo = bone
Myel = bone marrow
-itis + inflammation
Inflammation of the bone or bone marrow results from an infection.
Bacteria that reach the bone by:
trauma, surgery, infection from one area, a combination of these.

Chronic - affected bone becomes necrotic and separates - sequestrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Layers of bone:

A

Periosteum - where muscles, tendons, and ligaments are attached
Cortical bone - composed of multiple osteons which have Haversian canal which has blood supply and innervation.
Spongy bone - have the trabeculae which gives structural support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Osteoblast

A

Synthesises bone matrix

40
Q

Osteoclast

A

Osteoclasts are the cells that degrade bone to initiate normal bone remodeling and mediate bone loss in pathologic conditions by increasing their resorptive activity.

41
Q

Tuberculous osteomyelitis

A

Tuberculous osteomyelitis is an uncommon infection that usually involves the vertebrae

42
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Osteo = bones
porosis = pores
Pores of the bone
Higher breakdown of bone in comparison to the formation of new bones.
Meaning, a decrease in bone density
Primary: menopausal, reduction of bone mass/matrix, and demineralization.
Secondary: due to disease (advanced hyperthyroid, PTH Dz. states…)

43
Q

Bone remodeling

A

Spongy bone is replaced every 3-4 years
Compact bone is replaced every 10 years
Highly dependent on serum calcium levels.

44
Q

Parathyroid hormone

A

Hormones responsible for the balance of bone structure are the parathyroid, calcitonin, and vitamin D.
It stimulates the resorption of calcium and phosphate from the bone to the bloodstream.

45
Q

Calcitonin

A

Calcitonin is a man-made hormone that works by slowing bone loss and maintaining normal calcium levels in the blood. It may also help to reduce bone pain in people who have Paget’s disease.

46
Q

Osteomalacia

A

Inadequate bone mineralization
Bone softening
Due to deficient or impaired metabolism of vitamin D, phosphate, or calcium.

47
Q

Femur

A

made out of two epiphyses and one diaphysis

Between the epiphysis and diaphysis, there is the metaphysis where the epiphyseal plate is.

48
Q

What does calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D, does in the tubules of the kidneys?

A

It increases renal tubular reabsorption.

It increases the intestinal absorption of Calcium and phosphate.

49
Q

Osteochondroma

A

Osteochondroma is an overgrowth of cartilage and bone that happens at the end of the bone near the growth plate. Most often, it affects the long bones in the leg, the pelvis, or the shoulder blade. Osteochondroma is the most common noncancerous (benign) bone growth.
A lump in the bone.

50
Q

Paget’s disease of bone

A

Disorder of lots of bone remodeling.
Excessive bone resorption and growth.
This leads to deformities and potential fractures
The exact cause is unclear
Triggered by infection such as the measles virus.
Involves the skull, lumbar vertebrae, pelvis, and the femur.
Phase 1 - lytic phase - osteoclasts starts to demineralize the bone 20x faster
Phase 2: mixed phase (lytic + blastic phase) - rapid, but disorganized proliferation of new bone tissue.
Phase 3 - the sclerotic phase where new bone formation exceeds resorption
Bones get misshaped.
Paramyxovirus

51
Q

Bone tumors

A

Bone cell divides uncontrollably forming tumors.
Confined and doesn’t spread = benign.
Invades tissues and metastasizes = malignant.
Malignant can be primary or secondary
Primary: arise from bone cells
Secondary: metastasized and spread to the bones.

52
Q

What are the most common places for metastasis?

A

Bone, liver, and brain

Bone is very common.

53
Q

Osteoid osteoma

A

arise from osteoblasts
from a nidus - small < 1.5 cm, surrounded by sclerotic bone which produces prostaglandins (responsible for the sensation of pain)
Does not erode the surrounding bone

54
Q

Osteoblastoma

A

Arise from osteoblasts.
form a nidus which is large > 1.5 cm
Erode the surrounding bone

55
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Primary bone cancer
Secondary to Paget’s in elderly, knee hip, humerus
Arise from osteoblasts of different sizes.
Often forms in the metaphysis
Affects adolescents
Known mutations
pRB seen in familial retinoblastoma
p53
SECOND MOST COMMON PRIMARY MALIGNANT BONE CANCER!

56
Q

Erwin’s sarcoma

A 
Common in adolescents 10-20 years
Arise from NEUROECTODERMAL cells
Associated with chromosomal mutations
22 11
Extremely malignant
Metastatic
Viscous liquid-like pus in the marrow, sheets of
57
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Osteo = bone
Arthr = joint
-itis = inflammation
OA is wear and tear degenerative arthritis with a lot of erosion
Progressive erosion of articular cartilage
Subchondral cysts, osteophytes, hips, knees, lumbar, cervical
Synovial joints
Bouchard’s nodes at PIP
Heberden’s nodes at DIP

Risk:

  • age
  • Weight
  • Inflammaiton: IL-1, IL-6, TNF
58
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A 
Rheumatism = musculoskeletal illness
Arthr = joints
-itis = inflammation
Chronic inflammation disorder mostly affects joints, but lungs and skins can be affected.
Synovial joints
RF positive
Nodules at the PIP joints
Pannus - inflamed synovial tissue
Neutropenia
Baker's cyst
Normally 3 or more symmetrical arthritic joints
59
Q

Synovial fluid

A

remove debris and lubricate joint

60
Q

Chondromalacia

A

Softness of the articular (Hyaline) cartilage, usually involving the patella. Apparently caused by unbalancing elements of the quadriceps with patellar misalignment during movement.

61
Q

Osteochondritis

A

Rib pain
Knee pain, ankle,
Older teenagers, young adults - people who are more active
This is caused due to injury or repetitive movement. Blow to the chest for instance. Auto accident
Osgood-Schlatter’s disease - pain in the knee area, primarily in the tibial tuberosity due to repetitive movement - sports.

62
Q

Ganglion

A

Cystic tumor developing on a tendon or aponeurosis

Arises from cystic or myxoid degeneration of connective tissue

63
Q

Infectious Arthritis

A

GC, staph, strep, TB, Lyme
Acute painful swollen single joint, fever
Common post-trauma

64
Q

Gouty arthritis

A

Hyperuricemia, uric acid in and around joints. 1st MTP tophi in olecranon, prepatellar, calcaneal tendon, pinna

65
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis

A

joining of joint areas

Marie-Stumpell disease, adolescents males

66
Q

Sternocleidomastoid muscle

A

Divides the two triangles of the neck on each side.

Posterior and anterior triangle

67
Q

Suboccipital triangle

A

The vertebral artery passes through it
avoid injection there as it goes straight to the brain.
Rectus capitus posterior major and minor
Oblique capitus superior and inferior

68
Q

Muscle types

A

Fast muscles are for rapid, powerful actions and slow muscles are for prolonged activity (body posture, marathon).

Red skeletal muscle = slow
White skeletal muscle = fast

69
Q 
Muscle spindle
(intrafusal fibers)
A

Measures the muscle length
Activates alpha motoneuron when stretched

y efferent
1A affarent

70
Q

Golgi tendon

A

Measures muscle tension
Inhibits alpha motoneuron

1B afferent

71
Q

PAD DAB

A

Palmar adduction

Dorsal abduction

72
Q

the thumb is innervated by

A

Median nerve - dorsal side all the way to the middle of the ring finger
From the middle of the meddle of the ring finger,

73
Q

Innervation:

Starting from the pinky on the palmar side to the pink on the dorsal side

A

UMRU

Ulnar, median, radial, ulnar

74
Q

Snuffbox

A

Extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, radial artery, scaphoid bone, cephalic vein, abductor pollicis longus

75
Q

What passes through the carpal tunnel?

A

Median nerve
Four flexor digitorum profundus, superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus.
No vasculature

76
Q

What wraps the carpal tunnel?

A

Transverse carpal ligament or flexor retinaculum

77
Q

Tunnel of Guyon

A

The ulnar tunnel is where the ulnar artery and ulnar nerve pass through.

78
Q

Brachial plexus

A

my mother usually always right

79
Q

Hamstrings

A

Composed of two muscles
Biceps femoris - largest and strongest, long head and short head
O: long head from Ischial, short head from line aspera of femur tuberosity
I: head of the fibula
A: lateral rotation an, knee flexion, hip extension

Semitendinosus
O: Ischial tuberosity
Semimembranosus

80
Q

Pes anserine is composed of what muscles?

A

Sartorius, semitendenosus, and gracilis.

81
Q

Femoral triangle

A

3D space, think it as a pyramid
Contents inside of the triangle:
Femoral nerve, artery, vein, and lymph chain

82
Q

What makes up the floor of the femoral triangle

A

Pectineus, psoas, and adductor longus

83
Q

What makes up the roof of the femoral triangle

A

Fascia lata

84
Q

The main artery of the lower limbs

A

Femoral artery

85
Q

What are the contents that are wrapped by the femora sheath?

A

Artery, vein, and femoral canal

86
Q

Nerves of the hip

A

Flexors are all femoral nerve.
Medial compartment all of the adductor are innervated by the obturator nerve.
Lateral abductors are innervated by superior gluteal nerve.

87
Q

Hip flexors muscles

femoral nerve

A 
Iliacus
Psoas
Pectineus
Rectus femoris
Sartorius
88
Q

Hip adductors

obturator nerve

A

Adductor longus, magnum, and brevis
Gracilis
Pectineus
Obturator ext.

89
Q

Hip abductors

A

Gluteus medius, minimus, and TFL

90
Q

Remember

A

Posterior belly of digastric has CN 7innervation and anterior has CN 5

91
Q

Erector Spinae muscle

A

“I Love Spaghetti”

Iliocostalis , Longissimus, Spinalis

92
Q

Diaphragm

A

Innervated by phrenic nerve - “C3, C4, C5 keeps the diaphragm alive)”

93
Q

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

A

The most common muscular dystrophy in children.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder characterized by the progressive loss of muscle. It is a multi-systemic condition, affecting many parts of the body.
Can start at age 3
No known cure
Gower’s sign
X-linked meaning it will be expressed in males
Pseudo-hypertrophy of the calves
Death at the age of 20

94
Q

Myotonic Dystrophy

A 
Myo = muscle
tonic = poorly nourished
dys = bad
trophy = nourish
Poorly nourished and weak muscle contracted, unable to relax
Autosomal dominant genetic mutations
Most common in adults
Starts with facial atrophy
95
Q

Congenital Myopathies

A

“Floppy infant syndrome”
Due to hypotonia
Nonprogressive disease

96
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A

Auto immune receptor attack
They are responsible for opening up sodium channels for muscle contraction. If I have this disease, I will not have a lot of muscle contraction

Females, antibodies to ACH receptors
Fatiguability (worse exertion)
Thymomas, thymic hyperplasia
Tensilon test for dx

NPLEX I (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions