Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPLEX I > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Principles of ifectious disease:

Stages of infection

A

Attachment, replication, spread, shedding/elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Attachment

A 
May be extra or intracellular
Nutrition sources (attachment sites)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Replication

A

Host nutrition + pathogenic (bug wants more than his share of the area) organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Spread

A

Local tissues or systemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Shedding/Elimination

A

Post immune function clean up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When you have an acute viral infection

A

Lymphocytes go up and neutrophils go down (PMNDs) in circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the cells responsible for killing virally infected cells?

A

NK cells and cytotoxic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the humoral response due to acute viral infection?

A

Production of IgM/IgG to neutralize viral particles in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can chronic viral infection do to the body?

A

It can result in reduced number of circulating lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the host response due to BACTERIAL infections?

A

Results in an increase of circulating PMNs to directly kill bacteria and lymphocytes decrease
The humoral response produces antibodies to opsonize bacteria for phagocytosis, induce complement binding, and neutralize bacterial toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would be the result of chronic bacterial infections?

A

Neutropenia - lower than normal levels of neutrophils

Increase of monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are antigen-presenting cells

A

phagocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Thermal physiology
Why does my body make my body to a certain amount
Where does my temperature come from?

A

COmes from the sum total of all of my mitochondria activity in my body.
COmes from muscle, heart, liver, brain - largest metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What interleukin is the trigger for fever?

A

Interleukin-1

IL-1 acts on the anterior hypothalamus to increase the production of prostaglandins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are prostaglandins?

A

they increase the set-point temperature, setting in motion the heat-generating mechanisms that increase body temperature and produce fever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do we use to reduce fever?

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does aspirin reduce fever?

A

By inhibiting cyclooxygenase, thereby inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. Therefore, aspirin decreases the setpoint temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What else do we use to reduce a fever?

A

Steroids. They reduce fever by blocking the release of arachnoid acid from the brain phospholipids, thereby preventing the production of prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Are natural killer cells (NK) specific or non-specific community?

A

Non-specific. They do not care who it is.
They are cytotoxic cells that create a hole in antigen cells or create an osmotic cascade to kill them,
From common lymphoid stem cell in marrow like B cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where do t cells originate from?

Where do they mature at?

A

Bone marrow

Thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lymph nodes

A

Place where T-cells and B-cells “hang out”
ECF excess with antigens percolates through LN’s and memory T and B cells can activate against any antigen previously seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bone marrow

A

Where stem cells come from

Where B cells mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does B-cell mean?

A

Bone marrow cell maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does hemocytoblast divide into?

A

Either myeloid stem cells or lymphoid stem cells?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens to lymphoid stem cells?

A

They can either go to the Thymus and mature into T cells or stay in the bone marrow and mature into either B-cells or NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Remember

A

T-cell is CMI, cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Immune response: specific

A

antigen triggers an immune response
Antigen-presenting cells present antigen to T cells.
Activates T cells/CMI
T cells are activated after phagocytes are exposed to antigen
T cells attack the antigen and stimulate B cells
Activated B cells mature and produce antibody
Antibody attacks antigen
Antibody attacks antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the first responders to bacterial infection?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which cells are activated during complement cascade?

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What cells are increased during allergy and activated during parasite infection?

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are interferons?

A

Any group of proteins produced by cells in the body in response to an attack by a virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What cells produce alpha interneurons?

A 
Leukocytes.
Inhibits cell (tumor) proliferation, enhances NK growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What cells produce beta interferons?

A

Fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Gamma

A

Made mainly by T-cells
Activates NK, Killer T cells
Activates macrophages, Gamma is one of the most effective mediators of phagocytic activity in macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How did TNF get its name?

A

Because it was found eating tumor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the role of TNF?

A

It is a cytokine whose role is the regulation of immune cells. TNF, as an endogenous pyrogen, is able to induce fever, apoptotic cell death, cachexia, inflammation and to inhibit tumorigenesis, viral replication, and respond to sepsis via IL-1 and IL-6-producing cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Major histocompatibility complex I

A

Presents viral antigen to CD8 T lymphocytes

Play a major role in killing virally infected cells and cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Major Histocompatibility Complex II

A

Docking protein on macrophage which hooks a CD4 T-helper cell to the Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

IgA

A

Secretory
Primarily the secretory form is the useful kind.
Found in the blood but mainly in:
tears, saliva, mucus.
Prevents bacteria, viruses, and toxin from attaching to mucosal linings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

IgE

A

Allergy
Type-1 immediate hypersensitivity (allergy) reactions
Triggers the response to an allergen
Parasite infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

IgM

A

First responder
Elevated in acute infection
Basis for ABO-blood type antigen/transfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

IgG

A

Long term
Most common type
Focuses NK cells to their targets
USed in passive immunization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the first B-cell product?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reaction

A

IgE mediated
Immediate (reaction within minutes)
Epinephrine is given to do vasoconstriction
Asthma, Anaphylaxis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hypersensitivity mnemonic

A 
ACID
A - Type I
C - Type II
I - Type III
D - Type IV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Type II

A

IgG or IgM bind to an antigen
Complement activation +/- NK cell activation
Death of self cells

Cytotoxic - involving IgG and IgM
Cmooth (smooth) linear deposition

Good pasture syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Type III

A

Immune complex
IgG or IgM bind to antigen
Complexes deposit in various tissues
Compliment is activated in target tissues

Immune complex, lump-I bump-I
thick deposition
Poststreptoccocal Glomerulonephritis
SLE

48
Q

Type IV

A

Delayed - doesn’t happen fast
Cell-mediated
CD8+ TH1 directly kill cells

Delayed, Diabetes, Dermatitis, Diagnose TB

49
Q

DiGeorge’s syndrome

A

Thymic hypoplasia
Selective T cell deficiency from secondary to agenesis of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches
Total absence of cell-mediated immunity
Short nose, small eye openings, low nasal bridge
Deletion chromosome 22 and cleft lip

50
Q

Scleroderma/Systemic Sclerosis

A

Sclero = Hard
Derma = skin
Rare autoimmune disorder
Normal tissue is replaced by thick connective tissue
Excessive collagen/fibrosis in the microvasculature throughout the body
Skin, Gi, Kidneys, heart, lungs
Unknown cause; autoimmune response to unknown antigens
Women > men

51
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome

A

An autoimmune disorder characterized by inflammation of exocrine glands of Lacrimal and Salivary glands
Dry eyes, dry mouth

52
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

Systemic = multiple organs affected
Erythematosus = reddening of the skin
Any tissue can be targeted
Injury to skin, joints, kidney, serosal membranes.
Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Radiation, viruses, bacteria, medications, sex hormones (more common in women_

53
Q

HIV infection/ AIDS

A

HIV = retro-virus
Sexual contact, parental inoculation, mother to newborn during delivery, breast milk.
Loss of CD4 T cells and impairment of the function of surviving ones
Infection of monocytes and macrophages

54
Q

Gram-positive cocci

A

Tend to have no flagella, are non-motile, and non-spore-forming

55
Q

S. Aureus

A

Beta-hemolytic pattern on blood agar
Coagulase Positive = which are more pathogenic to humans
Causes impetigo, toxic shock syndrome
These are usually in clusters, forms bubbles

56
Q

What is impetigo?

A

Impetigo is a common and highly contagious skin infection that mainly affects infants and young children
vomiting, diarrhea, fever.

57
Q

Streptococci

A

Catalase negative
Chains / Strep looks like strips; Arranged in chains
Group A and B both Beta Hemolytic
Group A we find in the throat usually

58
Q 
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
gram +
A

Pyogenic = pus producing
Pharyngitis, impetigo, Scarlet fever, necrotizing fasciitis
Rheumatoid fever

59
Q 
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
gram +
A

Forms chains
Previously known to infect cattle -> decrease milk production
Post-partum infection in the infant
Neonatal sepsis and meningitis

60
Q

Enterococcus

gram +

A

Entero = intestines
Coccus = round shape
Usually colonizes GUT of humans
URI Neddle stick

61
Q

Streptococcus pneumonia

gram +

A

Most commonly acquired pneumonia
Pneumonia, sinusitis, meningitis, Otitis media
Bloody sputum

62
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs. The air sacs may fill with fluid or pus (purulent material), causing cough with phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing.

63
Q 
Streptococcus mutans (viridans)
gram +
A

commonly found in dental caries (pt gets antibiotics prior to dental work so don’t infect heart valves)
Bacteremia and heart disease

64
Q

What are the gram + bacterias?

A

Streptococci, staphylococci, clostridium, Bacillus, enterococcus, M lepra, and listeria

65
Q

Clostridium botulinum

gram +

A

Anaerobic
Flaccid muscle paralysis (block ACh blocking cholinergic nerves)
infant raw honey
The toxin causes the disease by blocking the release of acetylcholine from motor nerve endings.

Foodborne botulism can happen by eating foods that have been contaminated with botulinum toxin. Common sources of foodborne botulism are homemade foods that have been improperly canned, preserved, or fermented

66
Q

Clostridium tetani

gram +

A

Contractile paralysis, muscle spasm/cramp
Neurotoxin blocks cholinergic nerves blocks the release of ACh.
Anti glycine and GABA

67
Q

Clostridium difficile

gram +

A

severe infection of the colon after use of antibiotics

Foul stool odor

68
Q

Clostridium perfringes

gram +

A

per = through
fringens = disruption of tissue
Food poisoning
Gas gangrene

69
Q

Are all clostridium anaerobic?

A

YES

70
Q

Bacillus spp.

gram +

A

aerobic / facultatively anaerobic

if oxygen is deprived, they become anaerobes

71
Q

Bacillus Anthracis

A

Spores in soil areas with animals
Anthrax
Cutaneous: painless papule, to black eschar formation
Inhalation: spores from soil / terrorists

72
Q

Bacillus cereus

A

Spores everywhere, less deadly than anthrax
Toxins in foods
Eye infection - very destructive, most common cause of traumatic eye infection

73
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

Club shaped rod / chinese letter shaped
Common on skin and in respiratory secretions
Viral URI develops and a pharyngeal pseudomembrane, gray coating which can cause severe hemorrhage

74
Q

Listeria

A

tiny rod, demonstrate a tumbling motility on wet mount
FOund everywhere. Animals are primary reservoir
Neonatal disease highly fatal
Granulomotosis infatiseptica
Replicates in macrophages, with the help of listeriolysin O and thus avoids antibodies and other bactericidal agents

75
Q

Neisseria Gonorrhea

gram -

A 
ferment only glucose
catalase and oxidase positive
2nd most common STD in the US
Urethritis - male - green discharge
Cervicitis - female
76
Q

Neisseria Meningitis

gram -

A 
Can ferment both maltose and glucose
catalase and oxidase positive
purpura/petechiae rash
Highest infection rate < 1 yr old children
Adult meningitis: nuchal rigidity, lethargy,
Children: fever, N/V only
100% fatal if untreated
15% fatal if treated
77
Q

Gram-negative rods

A

All members are facultative anaerobes, ferment glucose, oxidase negative, and reduce nitrates to generate energy

78
Q

E. Coli (escherichia coli)

gram -

A 
Most common Escherichia
Ferments lactose
Septicemia
UTIA (most common cause of UTI)
Gastroenteritis
Neonatal meningitis
79
Q

Remember

A

group B strep is number 1 cause of neonatal meningitis.

E.coli is number 2 because there is LOTS of E. coli in the birth canal

80
Q

E. Coli - Enterotoxigenic

A

Small intestine disease
Toxin mediated N/V/D.
Travelers Diarrhea
Lactose fermentation +

81
Q

E. coli Enteropathogenic

A

Small intestine
Infantile non-bloody diarrhea
Traveler’s diarrhea for a baby
Lactose fermentation +

82
Q

E. coli - Enteroinvasive

A 
Large intestine epithelial invasion
Watery diarrhea followed by dysentery with scant bloody spots - little blood
Fever
Diarrhea with blood and mucus
Fecal WBC present
Lactose fermentation +
83
Q

E. coli - Enterohemorrhagic

A 
Verotoxin mediated (Shigella like toxin)
Little or no fever
Severe N/D
Diarrhea is copious and watery, followed by the BLOODY phase
0157:H7
Lactose fermentation +
84
Q

Salmonella typhi

gram - rods

A 
fecal-to-oral 
contaminated food and water
typhoid fever
abdominal pain
diarrhea, vomititing, 
10-14 days incubation
rigid belly and rose spots on the abdomen 
lactose ferm -
85
Q

Salmonella enteriditis

gram - rods

A

common food poisoning, onset 6-48hrs
Fever, N/V/D
resolves in 2-7 days

86
Q

Shigella dysenterie

gram - rods

A

Very similar to E.coli
Lower abdominal cramps + pus/blood in stool
Lactose fermentation -

87
Q

Klebsiella pneumonia

A

common in alcoholics, immune-compromised patients, diabetics

currant jelly sputum

88
Q

Yersinia

A

Bubonic plaque
Safety-pin stain pattern, a little center not stained
Flea bite, more deadly through inhalation
Bubonic plague 75% fatal untreated
Pneumonic plague 90% fatal

89
Q

Proteus mirabilis

A

UTI. pH increase and increased stone formation bad UTI and a lot more pain than normal UTI
produces urease

90
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A 
burn infections
UTI, respiratory systemic infection, dermatitis, etc
Hard to kill/resistant to abx
blue-pus infection
pyoverdine (yellow/green under UV
91
Q

Legionella pneumophilia

A

Flu-like symptoms
Legionares disease -
A/C, standing water

92
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

cause of gastric ulcer
risk factor for stomach cancer (adenocarcinoma)
Produces urease

93
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

A 
Most common cause of bacterial enteritis in the US
NVD bloody
Gillian 
RLQ pain
Fecal oral transmission
Shellfish vector
94
Q

Vibrio cholerae

A

mild to severe diarrhea
rice-water stools, 20L
watery diarrhea, vomiting
60% fatal if fluid loss not compensated

95
Q

Vibrio parahemolyticus

A

Shellfish enteritis
looks like campylobacter but quicker
Explosive diarrhea

96
Q

h. influenzae

A

acute bacteria meningitis/otitis media
causes epiglottitis in young child
usee chocolate agar

97
Q

H. ducrey

A

chancroid
painful genital ulcer
painful sores

98
Q

H. vaginalis

A

fishy odor discharge
live in normal flora - opportunistic
strawberry cervix

99
Q

Bordatella pertussis

A

whooping cough 3-8 weeks
block cilia > INCREASES MUCOUS SECRETION
can lead to death

100
Q

mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

airborne droplet inhalation
causes more death than any other bacteria
engulfed by alveolar macrophages
Gohn lesion
cases meningitis
can go to any organ but starts in the lungs

101
Q

M. leprae

gram +

A

permanent damage to skin, nerves,

102
Q

Treponema pallisum - Syphilis

gram -

A

1st skin lesion genitalia no pain
2nd general rash, fever, flue like symptoms
3rd maybe years later, gumma. Tabias dorsalis where it affects the spinal cord.

103
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi (lyme’s disease)

A

lyme’s disease - named for deer mouse
joint pain, rash, weakness
fever, headache, fatigue

104
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia

A

gram-negative
causes walking pneumonia
1/3 patients develop a rash on the trunk and limbs
sneezing, sore throat, watery eyes, wheezing, vomiting, diarrhea

105
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Rocky mountain fever
tick-borne, rodent bite
most common rickettsial disease in the US.
7-day incubation

106
Q

Rickettsia typhi

A 
flea-borne
murine typhus
wild rodent reservoir 
chest rash to extremities
mild flu
107
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

number 1 cause of preventable blindness
1st STD USA
Silent epidemic
Types A to C - chlamydia conjunctivitis (adults)
Types D-k - chlamydia - genital infection
Painful urination
genital discharge

108
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum

A

Histoplasmosis
Dimorphic lives as a spore in soil then yeast in humans
Cave/bird borne
Flue like respiratory (inhalation) illness
Endemic in Ohio and Mississippi
Pneumonia similar to TB

109
Q

Coccidioides immitis

A 
Valley fever
desert!
Dimorphic lives as a mold in the soil and then revert to a spherule when in tissues
North, central and south America only
Cough, fever, and chest pain
110
Q

Blastomyces dermatiditis

A

(Chicago or Gilchrest’s disease
Pulmonary disease after inhalation - ulcerative granulomata of the skin or bone
Found in decomposing materials

111
Q

Candida albicans

A

we all have a little of it
candidiasis, oral thrush, vaginal infection, cottage cheese
mother to baby
mouth to mouth - kissing

112
Q

ASpergillus

A

aspergillosis = lung infection
May occur everywhere
fungus ball visualized on x-rays

113
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Primary cause of fungal meningitis in AIDS
yeast form only
pigeon carriers (droppings)

114
Q

HHV 1

alpha

A

Oral latent in the sensory ganglion of the trigeminal nerve

115
Q

HHV 2

alpha

A

Genitalia
sore lesions on genitals
latent in lumbar/sacral ganglia and aseptic meningitis

116
Q

HHV 3 - varicella

alpha

A

Chicken pox/shingles
adult unilateral
very painful

NPLEX I (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions