105 Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
CATCC shall be manned and the checkoff list will be completed how long before flight operations?
A
One and one‐half hours (90 minutes)
2
Q
Air ops shall provide the following prelaunch briefing information _____ prior to each event
A
2‐1/2 hours
3
Q
Flight plans will be required for which
flights?
A
- Terminate ashore.
- Proceed across ADIZ boundaries and are not covered by a flight advisory.
- Proceed over land.
4
Q
For close proximity operations prelaunch procedures shall include exchange of air plans and prelaunch notification by aviation‐capable ships and acknowledgment by the CV/LHA/LHD prior to any flight operations within _____ of the CV/LHA/LHD.
A
10 nm
5
Q
The _____ shall be responsible for the control of airborne aircraft except
when control is assigned to other authority.
A
operations officer
6
Q
The _____ is responsible to the operations officer for coordination of all matters pertaining to flight
operations, the proper functioning of the CATCC and shall determine the type of approach and required degree of
control.
A
air operations officer
7
Q
The _____ determines the case launch and/or recovery.
A
air officer
8
Q
What are the four degrees of control?
A
positive, advisory, monitor, and nonradar control.
9
Q
This control shall be utilized when the traffic density in an operating area requires a higher degree of control for safety of flight than required under visual flight rules.
A
Advisory Control
10
Q
This control shall be utilized only when aircraft are operating VMC outside controlled airspace and the responsibility for separation from other traffic can be safely assumed by the pilot.
A
Monitor Control
11
Q
This control shall be used when shipboard radar is inoperative or so degraded as to be inadequate to provide radar separation of air traffic under conditions normally requiring positive control.
A
Nonradar Control
12
Q
The _____ shall be responsible for EMCON.
A
operations officer
13
Q
COD aircraft will attempt to establish communications en route prior to arriving on station. If no radio contact is made the COD will _____.
A
return to base
14
Q
Aircraft operating at 50 miles or more from the monitoring antenna shall be separated by a minimum of _____.
A
5 miles
15
Q
Aircraft operating less than 50 miles from the monitoring antenna shall be separated by a minimum of _____.
A
3 miles
16
Q
Aircraft on a designated approach or established downwind and inside of 12 miles shall be separated
by a minimum of _____.
A
2 miles
17
Q
Aircraft established on final within 5 miles shall be separated a minimum of _____.
A
1‐1/2 miles
18
Q
Aircraft provided nonradar control, utilizing a published approach, should be separated by _____.
A
2 minutes
19
Q
Air search radars that rotate in excess of _____ are the only radars acceptable for an ASR approach.
A
7 rpm
20
Q
Aircraft provided nonradar control, utilizing a published approach, should be separated by _____ separation when using DME.
A
5 miles
21
Q
Jet and turboprop aircraft operating at altitudes up to and including FL 290 shall be separated by _____.
A
1,000 feet
22
Q
Vertical separation may be reduced to _____ when inside of ____.
A
800 feet and 12 nm
23
Q
Receiver aircraft being provided positive control shall be separated by a minimum of ____ vertically
from tanker aircraft until visual separation between the two aircraft can be maintained.
A
500 feet
24
Q
Helicopters shall be separated by _____.
A
500 feet
24
Aircraft operating above FL 290 shall be separated by _____.
2,000 feet
25
Who has primary control of ship‐shore air traffic control administrative frequencies?
CATCC
26
Who has secondary control of aircraft guard frequencies?
CATCC
27
Who has primary control of assigned CATCC frequencies?
CATCC
28
Who has secondary control of land/launch frequencies?
CATCC
29
Who has secondary control of air tactical frequencies?
CATCC
30
Who has primary control of all air tactical frequencies?
CDC
31
Who has primary control of aircraft guard frequencies?
CDC
32
Who has secondary control of ship‐shore air traffic control administrative frequencies?
CDC
33
Who has primary control of land/launch frequencies?
PriFly
34
Who has secondary control of aircraft guard frequencies?
PriFly
35
Who has secondary control of departure control and final approach frequencies?
PriFly
36
From a control standpoint, aircraft emergencies fall in the following three broad categories:
1. Communication failures.
2. NAVAID failures.
3. Other aircraft system failures.
37
38
HEFOE Squawk first digit 0 indicates what?
OK
39
HEFOE Squawk first digit 1 indicates what?
Hydraulic
40
HEFOE Squawk first digit 2 indicates what?
Electrical
41
HEFOE Squawk first digit 3 indicates what?
Fuel
42
HEFOE Squawk first digit 4 indicates what?
Oxygen
43
HEFOE Squawk first digit 5 indicates what?
Engine
44
HEFOE Squawk second digit 0 indicates what?
No radio reception ACLS/ICLS OK
45
HEFOE Squawk second digit 1 indicates what?
No radio reception, TACAN OK
46
HEFOE Squawk second digit 2 indicates what?
No radio reception, ADF OK
47
HEFOE Squawk second digit 3 indicates what?
Radio reception, OK, no NAVAIDs
48
HEFOE Squawk second digit 4 indicates what?
No radio reception, JPALS OK
49
What does mode I squawk 70 indicate?
Desire tanker to join
50
What does mode I squawk 71 indicate?
Intend bingo
51
What does mode I squawk 72 indicate?
Desire aircraft to assist
52
The aircraft shall be spotted on the catapult or in a position affording a clear route to the catapult. No maintenance action allowed indicates which condition?
Condition I
53
All provisions for Condition I apply, except that aircrew shall be in flight gear, briefed, and standing by in the ready room. No maintenance action allowed indicates which condition?
Condition II
54
Aircrew shall be briefed and in the flight suits maintaining contact with their ready room. No maintenance action allowed indicates which condition?
Condition III
55
Aircrew shall be briefed and in contact with their ready rooms. Maintenance may be performed on the
aircraft if no delay in launch is involved indicates which condition?
Condition IV
56
Departure radials are based on the use of _____ for providing lateral separation.
TACAN/JPALS
57
The minimum standard separation of departure radials under instrument conditions is _____.
20 degrees
58
Assignment of departure radials is normally dependent on the following:
1. Mission of the aircraft.
2. Number of carriers in the formation.
3. Topographical features in the area.
4. Those radials reserved for emergencies, letdowns, or helicopter holding.
58
In the event of lost communications and a loss of range information, the following departure procedure shall be followed utilizing TACAN bearing information.
Continue with the prebriefed departure; utilize DR procedures to maintain the appropriate arc until reaching assigned departure radial. Proceed to approximately 50 miles, reverse course, proceed inbound on the assigned departure radial at the emergency marshal assigned altitude, and enter
overhead holding using the prebriefed expected final bearing for proper holding orientation. Conserve fuel and be alert for join-up. If not joined by an escort aircraft, commence approach at EEAT.
59
What are the case III departure voice reports?
1. Airborne.
2. Passing 2,500 feet.
3. Arcing.
4. Established outbound (on assigned radial).
5. Popeye, with altitude (see Note).
6. On top, with altitude.
7. Kilo.
59
When in IMC, ____ will be a mandatory report for departing aircraft passing FL 180 (or assigned departure altitude if lower) if not on top.
Popeye
60
What are case I weather minimums?
no lower than 3,000 feet and 5 nm visibility
60
In the event of lost communications and TACAN/JPALS Good Range and Bearing:
All aircraft will continue with prebriefed departure, climbing outbound on departure radial unless modified by CATCC or until reaching 50 nm and commence left‐hand holding between 40 and 50 nm. After holding for 30 minutes, proceed inbound on the departure radial, climbing or descending to the emergency marshal assigned altitude. When reaching the distance prescribed for emergency marshal, arc in the shortest direction until reaching the assigned emergency marshal fix, enter holding, and commence approach at assigned EEAT.
61
What are case II weather minimums?
no lower than 1,000 feet and 5 nm visibility
62
What are case III weather minimums?
less than1,000 feet and 5 nm visibility, between 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes before sunrise
63
What is the case I departure procedure for jet and turboprop aircraft?
After a clearing turn, proceed straight ahead paralleling the BRC at 500 feet until 7 nm. Aircraft are then cleared to climb unrestricted in visual conditions.
64
What is the case II departure procedure for jets?
After a clearing turn, proceed straight ahead at 500 feet paralleling the BRC. At 7 nm, turn to intercept the 10 nm
arc, maintaining visual conditions until established on the departure radial. The 500‐foot restriction is lifted after 7 nm if the climb can be continued in visual conditions. Jets shall maintain 300 knots until VMC on top.
65
What is the case II departure procedure for turboprops?
After a clearing turn, parallel the BRC at 500 feet. At 6 nm, turn to intercept the 7 nm arc, maintaining visual
conditions until established outbound on the departure radial. Maintain 500 feet until 12 nm on the departure radial.
66
What is the case II departure procedure for COD's
COD aircraft will depart straight ahead unless otherwise directed and
maintain 500 feet until 12 nm.
67
What is the case III departure procedure for jets?
Climb straight ahead accelerating at 300 knots crossing 5 nm at 1,500 feet or above. At 7 nm, execute turn to fly the 10 nm arc until intercepting the departure radial.
68
What is the case III departure procedure for turboprops?
Climb straight ahead to 1,000 feet, accelerating to 250 knots after level‐off. At 5 nm, turn to intercept the 7 nm arc and arc to the departure radial. Maintain 1,000 feet until 12 nm on the departure radial.
69
What is the case III departure procedure for COD's
COD aircraft shall depart straight ahead unless otherwise directed and maintain 1,000 feet until 12 nm.
70
Case II/III aircraft shall rendezvous between ____ from the carrier on the left side of the departure radial at a prebriefed altitude.
20 and 50 miles
71
The jet and turboprop port holding pattern is a _____ pattern tangent to the BRC or expected BRC with the ship in the _____ position and a maximum diameter of ____.
left‐hand, 3‐o'clock, 5 nm
72
Flights shall be established at their assigned port holding pattern altitude _____ prior to entering the pattern.
10 nm
73
Minimum altitude assignment shall be ____ in port holding.
2,000 feet MSL
74
A low overhead port holding pattern at _____ may be used at the discretion of the ____ .
1,200 feet, Air Officer
75
Aircraft holding at ____ shall descend outside of _____ to enter port holding.
7,000 feet MSL and above, 10 nm
76
A maximum of ____ aircraft shall be in the landing pattern at one time.
6
76
The spin pattern shall be flown at _____ within ____ of the ship.
1,200 feet, 3 nm
77
No aircraft shall break more than ____ miles ahead of the ship.
4
78
No more than ____ sections are authorized in the spin pattern at one time.
2
79
The starboard holding pattern shall be a _____racetrack pattern between ____ degrees relative to the BRC at _____ feet or altitude as assigned by the Air Officer (no lower than _____ feet),
right‐hand, 45 and 135, 1,000, 500
80
T/F ZIP LIP shall be broken anytime an apparent safety of flight situation develops.
True
81
COD aircraft conducting straight‐in (drag) approach from port holding or starboard delta should be established at ____ within ____ nm AFT of the
ship to de‐conflict with aircraft descending to the initial.
600 feet, 3
82
The primary marshal fix is the ____ radial relative to the expected final bearing at a distance of 1 mile for every _____ feet of altitude plus 15 nm
180-degree, 1,000
83
All aircraft shall be established at their assigned marshal altitude by no closer than _____ from the assigned marshal fix.
10 nm
84
Aircraft shall avoid climbs or descents when inside ____ radials from the marshal radial on the holding side and ____ radials on the non‐holding side, unless under _____ control.
30, 10, positive
85
All fixed‐wing aircraft are issued an emergency marshal radial _____ relative to the expected final bearing at a distance of 1 mile for every 1,000 feet of altitude plus 15 miles
150 degrees
86
If overhead marshal is used as the emergency marshal fix, EEATs should be ____.
every other minute
87
Unless weather or operating circumstances dictate otherwise, aircraft departing marshal will normally be separated by ____.
1 minute
88
Jet/turboprop aircraft executing an instrument approach (CV-1/CV-2) shall descend at 250 KIAS and ____ feet per minute until platform is reached, at which point the descent shall be shallowed to ____ feet per
minute.
4,000 2,000
89
Jet/turboprop aircraft executing an instrument approach (CV-1/CV-2) shall pass through the ____ fix at ____, at final approach speed.
6 nm, 1,200 feet
90
Unless otherwise directed, aircraft shall commence transition to a landing configuration at ____.
8 nm
91
Jet/turboprop aircraft executing a radar approach (radar vectors) shall be vectored to intercept final bearing no closer than ____ at _____.
4 nm, 1,200 feet
92
When the final bearing is within ___ of the reciprocal of the marshal radial: Jet or turboprop aircraft on the CV‐1 approach will make a gradual correction at
____.
10 degrees, 20 miles
93
When the final bearing is greater than ___ of the reciprocal of the marshal radial: Jet or turboprop aircraft on the CV‐1 approach will ____ at 20 NM and____.
10 degrees, turn 30 degrees, If not established on the final bearing at 12 miles, the pilot shall fly the 12‐mile arc until intercepting final bearing
94
Aircraft on the CV‐2 approach shall correct to the final bearing in the following manner:
a. If final bearing decreases, fly 90 degrees of penetration turn and arc to the new final bearing.
b. If final bearing increases, fly the standard penetration turn continuing to intercept the new final bearing
prior to the 10 nm fix.
95
What is the minimum tanking angels during case I/II?
1.5
96
What is the minimum tanking angels during case III?
At least 1,000 feet above the overcast
or VMC between layers, but not less than 2,500 feet MSL.
97
What is the minimum vertical separation
between receiver and tanker aircraft until visual separation can be maintained?
500 feet
98
What are CVN launch weather minimums for Helos?
200ft-1/2nm
99
Why should launching of helicopters from Spots 4, 5, and 6 with aircraft turning in the “six-pack” be avoided?
To prevent hot gas ingestion of a departing helicopter (potential for compressor stalls) and to decrease heat stress on LSE/PC, FDC, and helicopter troubleshooters.
100
In what format will SAR capable Helos report "red light"?
HHMM Local Time
101
Helicopters experiencing lost communications should remain what altitude before arcing to enter starboard delta, and execute lost communications procedures?
At or below 300 feet
102
True or False: FCF flights can be conducted concurrently with fixed wing operations?
True
103
During recovery of aircraft with forward firing ordnance, the plane guard helicopter shall not be positioned where?
On the starboard side from the 360 to the
090 degree relative bearing within 5 nm from the carrier.
104
The designated plane guard helicopter is “on station” when operating within ___ nm (day) or ___ nm (night) of the carrier.
20 and 10
105
Transient helicopters approaching the carrier for landing shall contact marshal control at least ___ nm out.
25
106
When more than one helicopter is operating in the holding pattern, all helicopters shall fly a _____-hand pattern at ____ feet while maintaining ___ knots.
Right, 300, 80
107
During Case III recoveries, in the event of a waveoff, the pilot shall parallel the ______ ______ course and report to CATCC for control.
Final bearing
108
Helicopters directed to “snuggle up” should operate within __ nm of the ship and expect to land within the next __ minutes.
1, 5
109
Helicopters directed to “________” are cleared to cross the stern (if required) and to commence an approach
to the designated landing spot.
Charlie
110
What is encouraged on the last recovery at night for both pilot and Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC) controller proficiency?
Carrier Control Approaches (CCAs)
111
The primary TACAN marshal fix is at _____ feet and __ nm on the degree radial relative to the expected final bearing.
1,000, 5, 110
112
For multiple helicopters, each successive marshal holding fix adds __ nm of distance and ____ feet of altitude
1, 500
113
Helicopter emergency marshal holding normally commences at __ nm.
7
114
Helicopters shall descend at ___ knots and ____ feet per minute from marshal, crossing ____ degrees relative to the final bearing at or above ____ feet.
90, 500, 145, 900
115
During Case III recoveries, CATCC should vector helicopters to intercept final bearing at __ nm and ____ feet MSL to expedite recovery.
3, 500
116
When precision approach radar or suitable visual landing aids are not available, helicopters on final approach should continue descent to ____ feet after passing the __ nm fix.
300, 3
117
True or False: Tiltrotor Functional Check Flights can't be conducted concurrently with fixed-wing operations.
False
118
Tiltrotor Case I Departure Procedure?
Pass 200 feet, turn to parallel the BRC at 500 feet until 7 nm. Aircraft are then cleared to climb unrestricted in
visual conditions.
119
Tiltrotor Case II Departure Procedure?
Depart straight ahead and parallel BRC unless otherwise directed and maintain 500 feet and
240 knots until 12 nm.
120
Tiltrotor Case III Departure Procedure?
Climb straight ahead to 1,000 feet, accelerating to 240 knots after level-off.
121
