114 Flashcards
(77 cards)
1
Q
FAAO JO 7110.10 contains what information?
A
Flight Services.
2
Q
FAAO JO 7110.65 contains what information?
A
Air Traffic Control.
3
Q
FAAO JO 7110.67 contains what information?
A
Air Traffic Management Security Services for Special Operations
4
Q
FAAO JO 7340.2 contains what information?
A
Contractions
5
Q
FAAO JO 7350.9 contains what information?
A
Location Identifiers.
6
Q
FAAO JO 7400.2 contains what information?
A
Procedures for Handling Airspace Matters
7
Q
FAAO 7220.1 contains what information?
A
Certification and Rating Procedures for Department of Defense (DoD) Personnel
8
Q
FAAO JO 7400.10 contains what information?
A
Special Use Airspace.
9
Q
FAAO JO 7400.11 contains what information?
A
Airspace Designations and Reporting Points.
10
Q
FAAO JO 7610.4 contains what information?
A
Special Operations
11
Q
FAAO 8260.3 contains what information?
A
U.S. Standard TERPS
12
Q
CNAF M-3710.7 contains what information?
A
NATOPS General Flight and Operating Instructions Manual
13
Q
OPNAVINST 3721.20 contains what information?
A
DoD NOTAM System
14
Q
OPNAVINST 3721.20 contains what information?
A
15
Q
OPNAVINST 3770.2 contains what information?
A
Airspace Procedures and Planning Manual
16
Q
NAVAIR 16-1-520 (FAAO 8200.1) contains what information?
A
U.S. Standard Flight Inspection Manual
17
Q
NAVAIR 51-50AAA-2 contains what information?
A
General Requirements for Shore based Airfield Marking and Lighting
18
Q
NAVAIR 00-80T-105 contains what information?
A
CV NATOPS Manual
19
Q
NAVAIR 00-80T-106 contains what information?
A
LHA/LHD NATOPS Manual
20
Q
NAVAIR 00-80T-124 contains what information?
A
NATOPS Airfield Operations Manual
21
Q
NAVAIR 00-80T-125 contains what information?
A
Air Traffic Control Afloat NATOPS Manual
22
Q
If approach control authority is temporarily suspended, the commanding officer shall:
A
- Attempt immediate resolution at the local level.
- Notify by the fastest means available the ISIC/HHQ, cognizant NAVREP, and locally-based aircraft
wing(s)/squadron(s). - Report details by message to the ISIC/HHQ within 2 working days. CNO N980A (NAATSEA), DC/A
(AXE-8), CNAF (N3/5/8), and cognizant NAVREP shall be information addressees. - If unable to effect resolution within 10 days, the commanding officer shall request assistance from the
ISIC/HHQ.
23
Q
Commanding officers shall notify ______ when any change in utilization of military airports and/or landing areas is intended and such change has the potential for affecting the use of airspace.
A
the cognizant NAVREP
24
Q
No NOTAM action is required when scheduled routine preventive maintenance is performed when the time period does not exceed ____ for radar systems (PAR, ASR, etc.) that are a part of the National Airspace System
A
30 minutes
25
No NOTAM action is required when scheduled routine preventive maintenance is performed when the time period does not exceed ____ for NAVAIDs (TACAN, VOR, etc.) that are a part of the National Airspace System
1 hour
26
No NOTAM action is required when scheduled routine preventive maintenance is performed when the time period does not exceed ____ for all radars and NAVAIDs that are not part of the National Airspace System
4 hours
27
What are the weather minimums for published outages when the airfield has two or more approach aids?
ceiling 3,000 feet, visibility 5 SM.
28
What are the weather minimums for published outages when the airfield has one approach aid?
sky condition scattered, visibility 5 SM.
29
Coordinate and submit NOTAM information within _____ of discovery of malfunctions of radar systems, landing systems and NAVAIDs
15 minutes
30
(unscheduled outage) For radar systems, landing systems and NAVAIDs that are not part of the National Airspace System, NOTAMs may be delayed for up to _____ if the following conditions are met:
2 hours
1. Daylight hours.
2. Ceiling at least 3,000 feet.
3. Visibility at least 5 SM.
31
What is a Class I facility?
Flight Planning Facility
32
What is a Class II facility?
Air Traffic Control Tower Facility
33
What is a Class III A/B facility?
Combined ATCT and Radar Air Traffic Control Facility (RATCF). Provides both airport traffic control and low approach and landing services. Class IIIA low approach and landing service is limited to control on the final approach course; Class IIIB includes full pattern control (i.e., arrival control) in addition to control on the final approach course.
34
What is a Class IV facility?
Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) Facility
35
How long shall Facility logs and position logs be retained?
6 months
36
How long shall flight plans be retained?
6 months
37
How long shall flight progress strips be retained?
6 months
38
How long shall final control approach logs be retained?
6 months
39
Records/data relating to mishaps involving Navy ATCFs or DON aircraft shall be retained until:
1. Claim/complaint has been adjudicated.
2. Two-year statute of limitations has expired.
3. Released or directed by higher authority.
40
All air traffic control personnel (USN, USMC , and civilian (DoD)) shall maintain a current annual physical examination in accordance with physical standards specified in ______
the Manual of the Medical Department (MANMED), Chapter 15
41
ATC personnel who have donated blood shall not perform ATC functions or directly supervise personnel performing these functions unless at least _____ have elapsed since the blood was donated.
24 hours
42
ATIS messages shall be made a matter of record on facility recorders. If not possible, a written record of each message shall be established and retained for a period of _____.
15 days
43
What are the five unauthorized transmissions?
1. Obscene, indecent, or profane language.
2. False or deceptive communications.
3. Identification not authorized or assigned.
4. Willful or malicious interference with other communications.
5. Superfluous or unauthorized transmissions of a personal nature.
44
What are the emergency and distress frequencies?
243.0 and 121.5
45
SAR communications are to be conducted on what frequency?
282.8
46
What frequencies shall be recorded independently?
1. UHF emergency.
2. VHF emergency.
3. Primary local control frequency (if more than one local control position, each primary frequency shall be
recorded independently).
4. Primary approach control frequency (if approach control is sectorized, each primary frequency shall be
recorded independently).
5. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS).
47
Original recordings (e.g., AN/FSQ-204 STARS, Digital Audio Data Recorder/Reproducer (DADR), Digital
Audio Legal Recorder (DALR), NextGen Voice Recorder (NVR)) shall be retained for at least _____.
45 days
48
What is F04A?
Advanced Radar Traffic Controller — Awarded upon completion of CIN C-222-2022
49
What is F05A?
Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC) Controller — Awarded upon completion of CIN C-222-2012
50
What is F06A?
Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center (AATCC) Controller — Awarded upon completion of CIN C-222-2019
51
What is F07A?
Air Traffic Control Manager — Awarded upon completion of CIN C-222-2024
52
What is F08A?
Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC) Operator — Awarded upon completion of CIN C-222-2014.
53
What is F09A?
Facility Rated Terminal RADAR Approach (RAPCON) Controller
54
What is F10A?
Rated Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC) Controller
55
What is F11A?
Rated Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center (AATCC) Controller
56
What is F12A?
Rated Tactical Air Control Center (TACC) Controller
57
What is F13A?
Facility Rated Fleet Area Control and Surveillance Facility (FACSFAC) Controller
58
What is F14A?
Facility Rated RADAR Air Traffic Control Facility (RATCF) Controller
59
What is F15A?
Control Tower Operator
60
What is 8MTS?
Master Training Specialist
61
____ and _____ are the final revocation authorities for ATCS credentials
CNO N98, DC/A (AXE-8)
62
Commands in receipt of a COMNAVPERSCOM (PERS-404DF) or CMC (ACP) waiver of standards disapproval for all duty involving flying shall submit a recommendation for ATCS credential revocation within _____ working days.
five
63
When the ATCFO determines that a recommendation for revocation is appropriate, the individual shall be promptly notified in writing. The air traffic controller concerned shall be afforded ____ working days in which to submit a written statement concerning the recommendation for revocation or to decline
the opportunity in writing.
3
64
Upon receipt of CNO revocation approval, Sailors are not eligible for advancement in AC rating. If the individual is a “selectee,” exam invalidation is directed. All Navy E4 and above personnel in a fit for duty status are required to submit a forced conversion package within ____ working days of CNO revocation approval notification.
10
65
PSCs are conducted when a trainee reaches _____ of the TTM/approaches for the ATCF assigned.
50%, 75%, and 100%
66
A tape talk shall be conducted in conjunction with the _____ PSC for initial qualification trainees.
50%
67
T/F In cases where positions are combined, the maximum training time shall not exceed the highest TTM for any one of the combined positions.
True
68
What is currency?
Prescribed minimum time requirement necessary to work an operating position independently
under general supervision.
69
What is proficiency?
Knowing, understanding, and applying air traffic procedures in a safe and efficient manner
70
T/F Time spent performing an ASC shall count toward currency by the Training Chief and Branch Chiefs.
False
71
T/F When operating positions are combined, controllers can only attain currency
on one position.
True
72
T/F When arresting gear is out of battery, landing clearance shall not be issued to aircraft requesting that runway.
True
73
T/F Clearances may be issued that require aircraft to taxi or takeoff over an out of battery arresting cable(s).
False
74
T/F Runway lights shall not be lighted for any runway for which a NOTAM is in effect which closes that runway.
True
75
When radar mapping is not available, limit radar services to:
1. Separating identified aircraft targets.
2. Vectoring aircraft to intercept a PAR final approach course.
3. Providing radar service in areas that ensure no confliction with traffic on airways, other ATC areas of
jurisdiction, restricted or prohibited areas, terrain, etc.
76
Radar contact lost is defined as: “The loss of an AN/FPN-68A azimuth or elevation target for a period of more than ____ seconds.”
four
77
The azimuth safe limit cursor lines, referred to as “the funnel”, are defined as red parallel lines ____feet left and right of centerline starting at landing threshold and extending to one mile from runway point of intercept (RPI), then from ____ feet left and right of centerline at a point one mile from RPI expanding uniformly to a width of _____ feet left and right of centerline at a point three miles from RPI.
100, 100, 350
