7110.65 Flashcards
(215 cards)
1
Q
What is your duty priority?
A
A.Give first priority to separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts.
B. National security and homeland defense activities
C. Pireps
D. Additional services based on workload
2
Q
What is your operational priority?
A
- Aircraft in distress
- Medevac
- Presidential Aircraft
- SAR Aircraft
- Interceptor Aircraft
- Night watch
- FLYNET
- Garden plot
- SAMP
- SCOOT
- TEAL and NOAA mission Aircraft
- Flight check
- IFR over SVFR
3
Q
When an aircraft reports a ground-based NAVAID malfunction, take the following actions:
A
- Request a report from a second aircraft (if a normal report is received, continue use)
- If second aircraft confirms malfunction, activate standby equipment
4
Q
How long are UAS activity advisories given after the last report?
A
15 minutes
5
Q
Bird activity advisories are given for how long after receipt?
A
15 minutes
6
Q
When must you issue wheels down checks?
A
Tower: Appropriate place in the pattern (check wheels down)
Approach: PAR/ASR before descent, instrument approaches before OM/FAF
7
Q
What is the phraseology to notify a pilot of possible pilot deviation?
A
(ID) POSSIBLE PILOT DEVIATION ADVISE YOU CONTACT (FACILITY) AT (TELEPHONE NUMBER)
8
Q
Are you able to issue control instructions that are contrary to the RA procedure?
A
No
9
Q
Possible human trafficking events may be referred to as:
A
Blue lightning events
10
Q
Which letter is used as a suffix to identify aircraft piloted by solo USAF/USN student pilots?
A
Z
11
Q
What words are used for interrupting lower priority messages?
A
Emergency and control
12
Q
How are altitudes or flight levels pronounced?
A
Single digits (1 0 thousand)
13
Q
What is the callsign for the secretary of transportation?
A
Transport-1
14
Q
Solicit pireps when what conditions exist or are forecasted in your area of jurisdiction?
A
- Ceiling at or below 5,000
- Visibility at or less than 5 miles
- Thunderstorms or related phenomena
- Turbulence of a moderate degree or greater
- Icing
- Wind shear
- Breaking action less than good
- Volcanic ash clouds
- Detection of sulfur gasses
15
Q
When must tower personnel take prevailing visibility observations?
A
Visibility less than 4 miles
16
Q
Controllers must advise pilots of hazardous weather that may impact operations within how many miles?
A
150
17
Q
Identify the first resumed broadcast message with alpha for interruptions of more than how many hours
A
12
18
Q
Provide preventative control only to aircraft operating in accordance with what?
A
A letter of agreement
19
Q
Low level wind sheer/microburst reports must be included on the ATIS for how many minutes following last report?
A
20 minutes
20
Q
Local controllers may use certified tower radar displays for the following purposes:
A
- Determine aircraft’s identification or position
- Provide radar traffic calls
- Provide suggested headings to VFR aircraft
- To provide info and instructions to aircraft in tower jurisdiction
21
Q
Do not authorize aircraft to increase speed above how many knots in class C or D airspace?
A
250 knots unless the pilot states higher minimum speed is required
22
Q
What are pilots required to establish before entering class D airspace?
A
Two way comms
23
Q
How can breaking action be described as?
A
Good, good to medium, medium, medium to poor, poor, or nil
24
Q
When are breaking action reports required to be broadcasted on the ATIS?
A
Reports of medium or worse
25
When shall rotating beacons beacons be operated?
1 between sunset and sunrise
2 between sunrise and sunset in IMC conditions
26
When are calm wind runways used
When wind is less than 5 knots
27
When is proceed as requested not authorized?
To cross or operate on a runway
28
Aircraft and vehicle access to ILS critical area must be controlled when weather is less than....
800/2
29
Aircraft and vehicle access to ILS critical area is prohibited if an aircraft is inside what point?
ILS outer marker or fix used in lieu of OM
30
Authorize simultaneous, same direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between runway centerlines is how many feet for CAT I OR II aircraft?
300 ft
31
Authorize simultaneous, same direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between runway centerlines is how many feet for CAT III aircraft?
500 ft
32
Authorize simultaneous, same direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between runway centerlines is how many feet for heavy aircraft?
700 ft
33
Authorize simultaneous, same direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between edges of adjacent strips is how many feet for CAT I OR II aircraft?
200 ft
34
Authorize simultaneous, same direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between edges of adjacent strips is how many feet for CAT III aircraft?
400 ft
35
Authorize simultaneous, same direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between edges of adjacent strips is how many feet for heavy aircraft?
600 ft
36
Authorize simultaneous, opposite direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between edges of adjacent strips is how many feet for between sunrise and sunset?
1,400 ft
37
Authorize simultaneous, opposite direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between edges of adjacent strips is how many feet for between sunset and sunrise?
Not authorized
38
Authorize simultaneous, opposite direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between runway centerlines is how many feet for between sunrise and sunset?
1,400 ft
39
Authorize simultaneous, opposite direction ops on parallel runways when the distance between runway centerlines is how many feet for between sunset and sunrise?
2,800 ft
40
What departure information may be omitted if pilot states "have the numbers"?
1. Runway in use
2. Wind
3. Altimeter setting
41
Are aircraft authorized to line up and wait simultaneously on intersecting runways?
No
42
What is a CAT I aircraft?
Single engine propeller aircraft weighing 12,500 or less and helo's
43
What is a CAT II aircraft?
Dual engine propeller aircraft weighing 12,500 or less
44
What is a CAT III aircraft?
All other aircraft
45
What is the same runway separation when only CAT I aircraft are involved?
3000 ft
46
What is the same runway separation when a CAT I is preceded by a CAT II aircraft?
3000 ft
47
What is the same runway separation when either the succeeding or both are CAT II aircraft?
4500 ft
48
What is the same runway separation when either is a CAT III aircraft?
6,000 ft
49
What is the same runway separation when the succeeding aircraft is a helicopter?
Visual separation
50
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft taking off the same runway or a parallel runway separated by less than 2,500 ft behind a super aircraft by how many minutes?
3 minutes
51
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft taking off the same runway or a parallel runway separated by less than 2,500 ft behind a heavy aircraft by how many minutes?
2 minutes
52
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft taking off the same runway or a parallel runway separated by 2,500 ft or more behind a super aircraft by how many minutes if flight paths will cross?
3 minutes
53
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft taking off the same runway or a parallel runway separated by 2,500 ft or more behind a heavy aircraft by how many minutes if flight paths will cross?
2 minutes
54
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft taking off opposite direction on the same runway or a parallel runway separated by less than 2,500 ft behind a heavy aircraft by how many minutes?
3 minutes
55
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft taking off opposite direction on the same runway or a parallel runway separated by less than 2,500 ft behind a super aircraft by how many minutes?
4 minutes
56
(Wake turbulence) separate a small aircraft behind a large aircraft that has made a low/missed approach opposite direction by how many minutes?
3 minutes
57
Separate a small aircraft departing from an intersection behind a small aircraft weighing more than 12,500 lbs, large aircraft, or B757 by how many minutes?
3 minutes
58
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft departing from an intersection behind a heavy aircraft by how many minutes?
3 minutes
59
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft departing from an intersection behind a super aircraft by how many minutes?
4 minutes
60
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft departing behind a heavy aircraft departing or landing on an intersecting runway if flight paths cross by how many minutes?
2 minutes
61
(Wake turbulence) separate heavy, large, or small aircraft departing behind a super aircraft departing or landing on an intersecting runway if flight paths cross by how many minutes?
3 minutes
62
What is the phraseology to clear an aircraft for takeoff from an intersection?
Runway (number) at (taxiway designator) cleared for takeoff
63
What is the phraseology to clear an aircraft for takeoff when two or more aircraft call the tower ready for departure with one at full length and one or more at the intersection?
Runway(number) full length, cleared for takeoff
64
Whenever a runway length has been temporarily or permanently shortened, state what word immediately after the runway number as part of the takeoff clearance?
Shortened
65
Cancel a previously issued takeoff clearance utilizing what phraseology?
Cancel takeoff clearance (reason)
66
Once an aircraft has started takeoff roll, cancel takeoff clearance only for what purpose?
Safety
67
Inform what aircraft when an aircraft is in lineup and wait?
The closest aircraft to the runway
68
What is anticipated separation?
Landing clearance to succeeding aircraft need not be withheld if you determine the prescribed runway separation will exist when the aircraft crosses landing threshold
69
Is the use of anticipated separation authorized when utilizing LUAW operations?
No
70
What is the phraseology to clear an aircraft to land if the aircraft has not been visually observed after the aircraft reports a position where they should be observed?
Not in sight, runway (number) cleared to land
71
Shall you request a read back of hold short instructions when not received by the pilot?
Yes
72
A restricted low approach may not be conducted below what altitude above an aircraft in takeoff position or a departure aircraft?
500 ft
73
What is the phraseology to clear an aircraft for a restricted low approach?
Cleared low approach at or above (altitude). Traffic (description and location)
74
What is the phraseology to approve closed traffic?
Left/right (if required) closed traffic approved. Report (position if required)
75
What overhead information may be omitted if it is standard or the pilot is familiar with the nonstandard procedure?
Pattern altitude and direction of turns
76
Where is the initial for the overhead procedure?
3-5 miles
77
What is the phraseology for the overhead procedure?
1. Report initial
2. Report break or break at specific point
78
Authorize military aircraft to conduct simulated flameout approaches if what conditions are met?
1. LOA or local operating procedure is in effect between the military flying organization and the atc facility
2. Traffic information is provided to all aircraft
3. High key altitude is obtained prior to approving the approach
79
For a straight in simulated approach, issue low approach clearance or alternate instructions at what point?
An appropriate position on final (normally no closer than 3 miles)
80
What are the positions and altitudes for the emergency landing pattern?
High key- 3,000 ft and 1/3 point on runway
Low key- 1,500 ft and abeam touchdown point
Base key- 600-800 ft
Touchdown at 1/3 point
81
Hover taxi is normally conducted below how many knots and in ground effect?
20 knots
82
Air-taxi is normally conducted at what speed and altitude?
Below 100 ft and above 20 knots
83
What is the phraseology to approve helicopter departures from non-movement areas, an area not authorized for helicopter use when the operation appears to be reasonable?
Departure from (requested area) will be at your own risk (additional instructions as necessary). Use caution (if applicable)
84
Separate a departing helicopter from other helicopters by ensuring that it does not takeoff until one of the following conditions exists:
a. A preceding, departing helicopter has left the takeoff area.
b. A preceding, arriving helicopter has taxied off the landing area.
85
Authorize helicopters to conduct simultaneous landings or takeoffs if the distance between the landing or takeoff points is at least _____ and the courses to be flown do not conflict.
200 ft
86
ILS Usable Height and Distance
Height above transmitter Distance (from transmitter)
4,500 10 (for glideslope)
4,500 18 (for localizer)
*Use the current flight check height/altitude limitations if different from the above minima.
87
CLEARANCE ITEMS
a. Aircraft identification.
b. Clearance limit.
1. When the clearance limit is an airport, the word “airport” must follow the airport name.
2. When the clearance limit is a NAVAID, and the NAVAID type is known, the type of NAVAID must follow the NAVAID name.
c. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) or vectors, where applicable.
d. Route of flight
e. Altitude data in the order flown.
f. Mach number, if applicable.
g. Holding instructions.
h. Any special information.
i. Frequency and beacon code information.
88
Amend route of flight in a previously issued clearance by one of the following:
1. State which portion of the route is being amended and then state the amendment.
2. State the amendment to the route and then state that the rest of the route is unchanged.
3. Issue a clearance “direct” to a point on the previously issued route.
4. Issue the entire route by stating the amendment.
89
What is the phraseology to clear an aircraft through intermediate stops?
CLEARED THROUGH (airport) TO (fix).
90
What is the phraseology if the aircraft will operate in an approved ALTRV?
VIA APPROVED ALTITUDE RESERVATION (mission name) FLIGHT PLAN.
91
Clear an aircraft planning IFR operations for the initial part of flight and VFR for the latter part to what point?
the fix at which the IFR part ends
92
Treat an aircraft planning VFR for the initial part of flight and IFR for the latter part as a _____ departure.
VFR
93
When VFR aircraft operating below the minimum altitude for IFR operations requests an IFR clearance and the pilot informs you, or you are aware, that they are unable to climb in VFR conditions to the minimum IFR altitude:
1. Before issuing a clearance, ask if the pilot is able to maintain terrain and obstruction clearance during a climb to the minimum IFR altitude.
2. If the pilot is able to maintain their own terrain and obstruction clearance, issue the appropriate IFR clearance
3. If the pilot states that they are unable to maintain terrain and obstruction clearance, instruct the pilot to maintain VFR and to state intentions.
94
How do you state the destination for Air Force 1 when reading a clearance?
DESTINATION AS FILED.
95
What instructions must be used to inform a pilot or a controller that a departure clearance is not valid until additional instructions are received.
(aircraft identification) HOLD FOR RELEASE, EXPECT (time in hours and/or minutes) DEPARTURE DELAY.
96
The facility issuing a release time to a pilot must issue a____ .
time check
97
When call for release is in effect, release aircraft so they are airborne within a window that extends from ____ minutes prior and ends ___ minute after the assigned time, unless otherwise coordinated.
2 minutes prior and 1 minute after
98
May you release an aircraft if a ground stop (GS) applicable to that aircraft is in effect, without the approval of the originator of the GS.
no
99
VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMA : Up to and including FL 410
1,000 feet
100
VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMA : at or above FL 290 between non−RVSM aircraft and all other aircraft at or above FL 290
2,000 feet
101
VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMA : Above FL 410
2,000 feet
102
VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMA : In oceanic airspace, above FL 450 between a supersonic and any other aircraft:
4,000 feet
103
VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMA : Above FL 600 between military aircraft
5,000 feet.
104
Lowest Usable FL
Altimeter Setting Lowest Usable FL
29.92” or higher 180
29.91” to 28.92” 190
28.91” to 27.92” 200
105
If no delay is expected, issue a clearance beyond the clearance limit as soon as possible and, whenever possible, at least _____ minutes before the aircraft reaches the fix.
5
106
What approach information must be provided on initial contact or as soon as possible thereafter. Approach information contained in the ATIS broadcast may be omitted if the pilot states the appropriate ATIS code
1.Approach clearance or type approach to be expected if two or more approaches are published and the clearance limit does not indicate which will be used
2. Runway if different from that to which the instrument approach is made.
3. Surface wind.
4. Ceiling and visibility if the reported ceiling at the airport of intended landing is below 1,000 feet or below the highest circling minimum, whichever is greater, or the visibility is less than 3 miles.
5. Altimeter setting for the airport of intended landing.
107
what is the phraseology for a circling approach?
CIRCLE TO RUNWAY (number),
or
CIRCLE (direction using eight cardinal compass points) OF THE AIRPORT/RUNWAY FOR A LEFT/RIGHT BASE/DOWNWIND TO RUNWAY (number).
108
T/F Do not issue clearances, such as “extend downwind leg,” which might cause an aircraft to exceed the circling approach area distance from the runways within which required circling approach obstacle clearance is assured.
True
109
Where separation services are not provided to VFR aircraft practicing instrument approaches, the controller must;
(a) Instruct the pilot to maintain VFR.
(b) Advise the pilot that separation services are not provided.
(c) Provide traffic information or advise the pilot to contact the appropriate facility.
110
What is the phraseology to stop EA activity?
STOP STREAM/BURST IN AREA (area name) (degree and distance from facility),
or
STOP BUZZER ON (frequency band or channel).
111
Except while they are established in a holding pattern, apply merging target procedures to all radar identified:
1. Aircraft at 10,000 feet and above.
2. Turbojet aircraft regardless of altitude.
3. Presidential aircraft regardless of altitude.
112
What are merging target procedures?
traffic information issued to the aircraft whose targets appear likely to merge unless the aircraft are separated by more than the appropriate vertical separation minima.
113
What is the phraseology to inform aircraft when radar service is terminated.
RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED (nonradar routing if required).
114
When is radar service is automatically terminated and the aircraft needs not be advised of termination?
1. An aircraft cancels its IFR flight plan, except within Class B airspace, Class C airspace, TRSA, or where basic radar service is provided.
2. An aircraft conducting an instrument, visual, or contact approach has landed or has been instructed to change to advisory frequency.
3. At tower-controlled airports where radar coverage does not exist to within 1/2 mile of the end of the runway, arriving aircraft must be informed when radar service is terminated.
4. TERMINAL. An arriving VFR aircraft receiving radar service to a tower-controlled airport within Class B airspace, Class C airspace, TRSA, or where basic radar service is provided has landed, or to all other airports, is instructed to change to tower or advisory frequency.
5. TERMINAL. An aircraft completes a radar approach.
115
What code should be assigned when aircraft are operating on a flight plan specifying frequent or rapid changes in assigned altitude in more than one stratum or other category of flight not compatible with a discrete code assignment.
4000
116
Military aircraft operating in restricted/warning areas or on VR routes will squawk _____ unless another code has been assigned or coordinated with ATC.
4000
117
Assign code _____ when the pilot declares an emergency and the aircraft is not radar identified
7700
118
Instead of displaying “7700” in the data block, ERAM will display “_____,” and STARS/MEARTS will display “____.”
EMRG AND EM
119
When may you request other than single−piloted helicopters and single−piloted turbojet aircraft to change from Code 7700 to a computer−assigned discrete code.
After radio and radar contact have been established
120
What code indicates radio failure?
7600
121
What code indicates hijacked aircraft?
7500
122
What code may be transmitted by unmanned aircraft systems (UAS) when the control link between the aircraft and the pilot is lost.
7400
123
Instruct an IFR aircraft that cancels its IFR flight plan and is not requesting radar advisory service, or a VFR aircraft for which radar advisory service is being terminated, to squawk ___ .
SQUAWK VFR or SQUAWK 1200.
124
Aircraft not in contact with ATC may squawk ____ in lieu of 1200 while en route to/from or within designated firefighting areas.
1255
125
VFR aircraft that fly authorized SAR missions for the USAF or USCG may be advised to squawk _____ in lieu of 1200 while en route to/from or within the designated search area.
1277
126
VFR gliders should squawk ____ in lieu of 1200.
1202
127
_____ will ensure exercise FAKER aircraft flight plans are filed containing discrete beacon codes from the Department of Defense code allocation
NORAD
128
When may you instruct an aircraft operating on an assigned code to change the transponder/ADS−B to “standby” position:
a. When approximately 15 miles from its destination and you no longer desire operation of the transponder/ADS−B
b. When necessary to reduce clutter in a multi−target area, provided you instruct the pilot to return the transponder/ADS−B to “normal” position as soon as possible thereafter.
129
What phraseology shall be used to inform an aircraft with an operable transponder that the assigned beacon code is not being displayed.
(Identification) RESET TRANSPONDER, SQUAWK (appropriate code).
130
What phraseology shall be used to inform an aircraft when its transponder appears to be inoperative or malfunctioning.
(Identification) YOUR TRANSPONDER APPEARS INOPERATIVE/MALFUNCTIONING, RESET, SQUAWK (appropriate code).
131
Consider an altitude readout valid when:
1. It varies less than 300 feet from the pilot reported altitude
2. You receive a continuous readout from an aircraft on the airport and the readout varies by less than 300 feet from the field elevation
3. You have correlated the altitude information in your data block with the validated information in a data block generated in another facility (by verbally coordinating with the other controller) and your readout is exactly the same as the readout in the other data block.
132
What shall you do whenever you observe an invalid Mode C readout below FL 180:
1. Issue the correct altimeter setting and confirm the pilot has accurately reported the altitude.
2. If the altitude readout continues to be invalid:
Instruct the pilot to turn off the altitude- reporting part of his/her transponder and include the reason
133
What is the phraseology used for invalid mode C readout?
STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK. ALTITUDE DIFFERS BY (number of feet) FEET.
134
Set altitude filters to display Mode C altitude readouts to encompass all altitudes within the controller’s jurisdiction. Set the upper limits no lower than _____ feet above the highest altitude for which the controller is responsible. In those stratified positions, set the lower limit to _____ feet or more below the lowest altitude for which the controller is responsible.
1,000 and 1,000
135
Identify a primary, radar beacon, or ADS−B target by using one of the following methods:
1. Observing a departing aircraft target within 1 mile of the takeoff runway end at airports with an operating control tower, with a verbal/nonverbal rolling/boundary notification is issued for each departure.
2. Observing a target whose position with respect to a fix (displayed on the video map, scribed on the map overlay, or displayed as a permanent echo) or a visual reporting point (whose range and azimuth from the radar antenna has been accurately determined and made available to the controller) corresponds with a direct position report received from an aircraft, and the observed track is consistent with the reported heading or route of flight. If a TACAN/VORTAC is located within 6,000 feet of the radar antenna, the TACAN/VORTAC may be used as a reference fix for radar identification without being displayed on the video map or map overlay.
3. Observing a target make an identifying turn or turns of 30 degrees or more
136
When using only Mode 3/A radar beacon or ADS−B to identify a target, use one of the following methods:
a. Request the pilot to activate the “IDENT” feature of the transponder/ADS−B and then observe the identification display.
b. Request the pilot to change to a specific discrete or nondiscrete code
c. Squawk standby, then squawk normal.
137
Inform an aircraft of its position whenever radar identification is established by means of:
identifying turns or use of beacon identification
138
An action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another controller if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will be transferred.
handoff
139
The term used to inform the controller initiating a handoff that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller’s airspace.
radar contact
140
An action taken by a controller to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft to another controller and radio communications will not be transferred.
Point out
141
The term used to inform the controller initiating a point out that the aircraft is identified and that approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller’s airspace, as coordinated, without a communications transfer or the appropriate automated system response.
point out approved
142
A term used to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another controller for the purpose of coordinating separation action.
traffic
143
Traffic is normally issued:
1. In response to a handoff or point out;
2. In anticipation of a handoff or point out; or
3. In conjunction with a request for control of an aircraft.
144
The term used to inform the controller issuing the traffic restrictions that the traffic is identified and that the restrictions issued are understood and will be complied with.
traffic observed
145
Transfer the radar identification of an aircraft by at least one of the following methods:
1. Physically point to the target on the receiving controller’s display.
2. Use landline voice communications.
3. Use automation capabilities.
146
When making a handoff, point out, or issuing traffic restrictions, relay information to the receiving controller in the following order:
1. The position of the target relative to a fix, map symbol, or radar target known and displayed by both the receiving and transferring controller
2. The aircraft identification
3. The assigned altitude, appropriate restrictions, and information that the aircraft is climbing or descending, if applicable, except when inter/intrafacility directives ensure that the altitude information will be known by the receiving controller.
4. Advise the receiving controller of pertinent information not contained in the data block or available flight data unless covered in an LOA or facility directive.
147
What is the phraseology for a handoff/point-out/traffic?
HANDOFF/POINT−OUT/TRAFFIC (aircraft position), (aircraft ID or discrete beacon code), (altitude, restrictions, and other pertinent information, if applicable).
148
When receiving a handoff, point out, or traffic restrictions, respond to the transferring controller as follows:
(Aircraft ID) (restrictions, if applicable) RADAR CONTACT,
or
(aircraft ID or discrete beacon code) (restrictions, if applicable) POINT OUT APPROVED,
or
TRAFFIC OBSERVED,
or
UNABLE (appropriate information, as required).
149
Prior to transferring communications when conducting a handoff you shall...
1. Resolve any potential violations of adjacent airspace and potential conflicts with other aircraft in your area of jurisdiction.
2. Coordinate with any controller whose area of jurisdiction the aircraft will transit prior to entering the receiving controller’s area of jurisdiction.
3. Forward to the receiving controller any restrictions issued to ensure separation.
4. Comply with restrictions issued by the receiving controller.
149
What is the minimum radar separation between a radar identified and non radar
150
Separate aircraft by how many miles when using Single Sensor ASR or Digital Terminal Automation System (DTAS):
When 40 miles or more from the antenna
5 miles
150
How is target Separation applied?
a. Between the centers of primary radar targets
b. Between the ends of beacon control slashes.
c. Between the end of a beacon control slash and the center of a primary target.
151
Separate aircraft by how many miles when using Single Sensor ASR or Digital Terminal Automation System (DTAS):
When less than 40 miles from the antenna
3 miles
151
Separate aircraft by how many miles when using FUSION?
3 miles
152
Separate aircraft by how many miles when using FUSION and ISR is displayed in the data block?
5 miles
153
Separate aircraft operating within 2,500 feet of the flight path of the leading aircraft over the surface of the earth and less than 1,000 feet below: TERMINAL: behind super:
(1) Heavy -6 miles.
(2) Large - 7 miles.
(3) Small -8 miles.
154
Separate aircraft operating within 2,500 feet of the flight path of the leading aircraft over the surface of the earth and less than 1,000 feet below: ENROUTE: behind super- 5 miles, unless the super is operating at or below FL240 and below 250 knots, then:
(1) Heavy -6 miles.
(2) Large - 7 miles.
(3) Small -8 miles.
155
Separate aircraft operating within 2,500 feet of the flight path of the leading aircraft over the surface of the earth and less than 1,000 feet below: ENROUTE: behind Heavy:
(1) Heavy -4 miles.
(2) Large or small - 5 miles.
156
Separate small aircraft behind a B757 by _____ when operating within 2,500 feet of the flight path of the leading aircraft over the surface of the earth and/or less than 500 feet below.
4 miles
157
separate an aircraft landing behind another aircraft on the same runway, or one making a touch-and-go, stop-and-go, or low approach by ensuring the following minima will exist at the time the preceding aircraft is over the landing threshold: Small behind large
4 miles
158
separate an aircraft landing behind another aircraft on the same runway, or one making a touch-and-go, stop-and-go, or low approach by ensuring the following minima will exist at the time the preceding aircraft is over the landing threshold: Small behind heavy
6 miles
159
All other approved separation may be discontinued and passing or diverging separation applied for Single Site ASR or FUSION Mode when: Aircraft are on opposite/reciprocal courses and you have observed that they have passed each other; or aircraft are on same or crossing courses/assigned radar vectors and one aircraft has crossed the projected course of the other, and the angular difference between their courses/assigned radar vectors is at least _____.
15 degrees
160
Separate a standard formation flight by adding ____ to the appropriate radar separation minima.
1 mile
161
Separate two standard formation flights from each other by adding _____ to the appropriate separation minima.
2 miles
162
TERMINAL. Separate aircraft from prominent obstructions depicted on the radar display by the following minima: When less than 40 miles from the antenna
3 miles
163
TERMINAL. Separate aircraft from prominent obstructions depicted on the radar display by the following minima: When 40 miles or more from the antenna
5 miles
164
Separate radar-controlled aircraft from the boundary of airspace in which nonradar separation is being used by the following minima: When less than 40 miles from the antenna
3 miles
165
Separate radar-controlled aircraft from the boundary of adjacent airspace in which radar separation is also being used by the following minima: When less than 40 miles from the antenna
1 1/2 miles
166
Separate radar-controlled aircraft from the boundary of adjacent airspace in which radar separation is also being used by the following minima: When 40 miles or more from the antenna
2 1/2 miles
167
Separate radar-controlled aircraft from the boundary of airspace in which nonradar separation is being used by the following minima: When 40 miles or more from the antenna
5 miles
168
Separate a radar-controlled aircraft climbing or descending through the altitude of an aircraft that has been tracked to the edge of the scope/display by the following minima until nonradar separation has been established: When less than 40 miles from the antenna
3 miles from edge of scope
169
Separate a radar-controlled aircraft climbing or descending through the altitude of an aircraft that has been tracked to the edge of the scope/display by the following minima until nonradar separation has been established: When 40 miles or more from the antenna
5 miles from edge of scope
170
When initiating a vector, what must you advise the pilot of?
the purpose of the vector
171
Radar facilities may vector aircraft below the MVA/MIA, provided:
(a) No prominent obstacles are within 10 NM of the departure end of runway (DER).
(b) Aircraft must be allowed an uninterrupted climb to meet the MVA/MIA within 10 NM of the DER.
172
When are speed adjustments not authorized?
1. At or above FL 390 without pilot consent.
2. Executing a published high altitude instrument approach procedure.
3. In a holding pattern.
4. Inside the final approach fix on final or a point 5 miles from the runway, whichever is closer to the runway
173
Assign airspeeds to aircraft operating between FL 280 and 10,000 feet, a speed not less than ____ or the equivalent Mach number.
250 knots
174
Assign airspeeds not less than ____ to arrival turbojet aircraft operating below 10,000 feet:
210 knots
175
Assign airspeeds not less than ____ to arrival turbojet aircraft operating below 10,000 feet when the aircraft is within 20 flying miles of the runway threshold:
170 knots
175
Assign airspeeds not less than ____ to arrival turboprop aircraft operating below 10,000 feet
200 knots
175
Assign airspeeds not less than ____ to arrival turboprop aircraft operating below 10,000 feet when the aircraft is within 20 flying miles of the runway threshold.
150 knots
176
Assign airspeeds not less than ____ to turbojet departures.
230 knots
177
Assign airspeeds not less than ____ to turboprop departures.
150 knots
178
Assign airspeeds not less than ____ to helicopter departures.
60 knots
179
What is the phraseology to advise aircraft when speed adjustments are no longer needed.
RESUME NORMAL SPEED.
180
Separate successive departures from the same runway/helipad or parallel runways/helicopter takeoff courses separated by less than 2,500 feet− ____ if courses diverge by ____ or more immediately after departure. Provided radar identification with the aircraft will be established within 1 mile of the takeoff runway end/helipad
1 mile and 15 degrees
181
Separate simultaneous departures departing in the same direction from parallel runways/helicopter takeoff courses, authorize simultaneous takeoffs if the centerlines/takeoff courses are separated by at least 2,500 feet and courses diverge by _____ or more immediately after departure. Provided radar identification with the aircraft will be established within 1 mile of the takeoff runway end/helipad
15 degrees
182
Authorize simultaneous operations between an aircraft departing on a runway and an aircraft on final approach to another parallel or nonintersecting diverging runway if the departure course diverges immediately by at least _____ from the missed approach course until separation is applied
30 degrees
183
When parallel runway thresholds are staggered and the arriving aircraft is approaching the nearer runway: the centerlines are at least 1,000 feet apart and the landing thresholds are staggered at least _____ for each 100 feet less than 2,500 the centerlines are separated.
500 feet
184
When parallel runway thresholds are staggered and the arriving aircraft is approaching the farther runway: the runway centerlines separation exceeds 2,500 feet by at least _____ for each 500 feet the landing thresholds are staggered.
100 feet
185
Vector arriving aircraft to intercept the final approach course: At least 2 miles outside the approach gate unless one of the following exists:
1. When the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the MVA/MIA and the visibility is at least 3 miles (report may be a PIREP if no weather is reported for the airport), aircraft may be vectored to intercept the final approach course closer than 2 miles outside the approach gate but no closer than the approach gate.
2. If specifically requested by the pilot, aircraft may be vectored to intercept the final approach course inside the approach gate but no closer than the final approach fix.
186
what is the maximum intercept angle when aircraft are less than 2 miles from the approach gate or triple simultaneous approaches are in use?
20 degrees
187
what is the maximum intercept angle when fixed wing aircraft are 2 miles or more from the approach gate?
30 degrees
188
what is the maximum intercept angle when helicopters are 2 miles or more from the approach gate?
45 degrees
189
What is the phraseology to inform the aircraft whenever a vector will take it across the final approach course?
EXPECT VECTORS ACROSS FINAL FOR (purpose).
190
Issue what information to an aircraft before it reaches the approach gate:
a. Position relative to a fix on the final approach course
b. Vector to intercept the final approach course if required.
c. Approach clearance except when conducting a radar approach.
191
When an aircraft will make a no-gyro surveillance or a PAR approach: Before issuing a vector, inform the aircraft _____.
of the type of approach
192
When must you advise the pilot to perform landing check in a complete pattern?
while the aircraft is on downwind leg and in time to complete it before turning base leg
193
When must you advise the pilot to perform landing check in an incomplete pattern?
before handoff to the final controller for a PAR approach, or before starting descent on final approach for surveillance approach.
194
On initial contact with the final controller, ask the aircraft for ____.
a communication check.
(Aircraft call sign), (name of facility) FINAL CONTROLLER. HOW DO YOU HEAR ME?
195
When must you instruct the aircraft not to acknowledge further transmissions.
After contact has been established with the final controller and while the aircraft is on the final approach course
196
Before an aircraft starts final descent for a full stop landing and weather reports indicate that any portion of the final approach will be conducted in IFR conditions, issue _______ approved for the radar approach being conducted
a specific missed approach procedure
197
What phraseology must be used when the landing clearance in not obtained by the final controller?
TOWER CLEARANCE CANCELED/NOT RECEIVED (alternative instructions).
198
Instruct the aircraft if runway environment not in sight, execute a missed approach if previously given; or climb to or maintain a specified altitude and fly a specified course whenever the completion of a safe approach is questionable because one or more of the following conditions exists:
a. Safety limits are exceeded or radical target deviations are observed.
b. Position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt.
c. Radar contact is lost or a malfunctioning radar is suspected.
199
If recommended altitudes are requested, what is the phraseology to inform the pilot that recommended altitudes
RECOMMENDED ALTITUDES WILL BE PROVIDED FOR EACH MILE ON FINAL TO MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE/CIRCLING MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE.
200
Discontinue surveillance approach guidance when:
1. Requested by the pilot.
2. In your opinion, continuation of a safe approach to the MAP is questionable.
3. The aircraft is over the MAP.
4. Pilot reports the runway or approach/runway lights in sight
201
What phraseology is used when approach guidance is discontinued for a surveillance approach?
(Distance) MILE(S) FROM RUNWAY/AIRPORT/HELIPORT,
or
OVER MISSED APPROACH POINT.
and
PROCEED VISUALLY (additional instructions/clearance as required.)
202
Inform the aircraft when it is approaching glidepath (approximately _____ seconds before final descent).
10 to 30
203
Inform the aircraft of its distance from ______ at least once each mile on final approach. (PAR approach)
touchdown
204
Inform the aircraft of its distance from the ____, each mile on final. (surveillance approach)
runway, airport/heliport, or MAP, as appropriate
205
Continue to provide glidepath and course information until the aircraft passes over _____. (PAR approach)
threshold
205
Discontinue precision approach guidance when: (PAR approach)
1. Requested by the pilot.
2. In your opinion, continuation of a safe approach to the landing threshold is questionable.
3. The aircraft passes over landing threshold.
4. The pilot reports the runway/approach lights in sight and requests to or advises that he/she will proceed visually.
206
What do you do if the elevation portion of PAR equipment fails during a precision approach:
1. Discontinue PAR instructions and tell the aircraft to take over visually or if unable, to execute a missed approach.
or
2. If a surveillance approach, ASR or PAR without glide slope, is established for the same runway, inform the aircraft that a surveillance approach can be given.
207
What phraseology is used if the elevation portion of PAR equipment fails during a precision approach:
NO GLIDEPATH INFORMATION AVAILABLE. IF RUNWAY, APPROACH/RUNWAY LIGHTS, NOT IN SIGHT, EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH/(alternative instructions).
or
“This will be a surveillance approach to runway three six. Mileages will be from touchdown.”
or
“This will be a surveillance approach to runway three six using P−A−R azimuth. Mileages will be from touchdown.”
208
T/F Use coast tracks in the application of either radar or nonradar separation criteria.
False
209
