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surgery 2020 MT Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following features defines the suture materials drainage ability
    a. Monofilament vs multifilament
    b. Tensile strength
    c. Knot security
    d. Absorption
A

a. Monofilament vs multifilament

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2
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding intra-and postoperative hypothermia
    a. Decreased anesthetic demand
    b. Doxopram is the drug of choice in case of hypothermia
    c. Is mostly due to the use of opioids
    d. Increases the oxygen demand of the central nervous system
A

d. Increases the oxygen demand of the central nervous system

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3
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning the maintenance phase of anesthesia
    a. General anesthesia may be maintained by either inhalant or injectable agents;
    combinations for maintenance are contraindicated
    b. In the maintenance phase of anesthesia, application of 100 ml/bwkg/h
    crystalloid infusion is recommended to maintain normovolemia and
    normotension
    c. The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anesthesia using
    the lowest sufficient dose of anesthetics
    d. The main duties of the anesthetist are monitoring of the patient,
    maintenance of homeostasis, fine adjustment of the depth of anesthesia and
    preservation of vagotonia
A

c. The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anesthesia using
the lowest sufficient dose of anesthetics

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4
Q
  1. What is the normal value of the Norberg angle in healthy dogs
A

a. Higher than 105 degrees

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5
Q

Which of the following items is member of the mixing part of the anesthesia machine

a. Y-piece
b. Soda lime canister
c. Flowmeter
d. Breathing tubes

A

c. Flowmeter

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6
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. Acids can cause coagulation necrosis
    b. Alkalines can cause colliquation necrosis
    c. Both
    d. None
A

c. Both

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7
Q
  1. What is the number of permanent teeth in dogs
A

42

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thinnest suture material
A

a. 4-0

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9
Q
  1. What statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC)
    a. Disc calcification indicated SCC
    b. A survey radiograph is generally enough to diagnose SCC
    c. SCC can be caused exclusively by the intervertebral disc
    d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC
A

d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable
    a. Polypropylene
    b. Polydioxanone
    c. Both
    d. None
A

a. Polypropylene

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11
Q
  1. The proper name of the “oxspring” view for the examination of the navicular bone is
A

a. Dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique view

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following parameters decreases in DIC
A

a. Fibrinogen

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable
    a. Polypropylene
    b. Polyamide
    c. Both
    d. None
A

c. Both

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14
Q 
14. Which of the following features makes polypropylene the most popular
cardiovascular suture material
a. Monofilament features
b. Good tensile strength
c. Good knot security
d. Unique thrombophob feature
A

b. Good tensile strength

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15
Q
  1. What does “2-Metric” mean on a suture material pack
A

a. The suture material is 0.2 mm of diameter

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16
Q
  1. Current concepts of pain management/analgesia is
    a. Presumptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of
    action)
    b. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites
    of action)
    c. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multilocal (acting at several different sites of
    action)
    d. Of higher importance in adults than in pediatric patients
A

b. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites
of action

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17
Q
  1. What is Spongostan
A

a. Gelatin sponge

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18
Q

.

A

.

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19
Q
  1. Which statement is not correct regarding the tracheal collapse
    a. The entire trachea is affected
    b. The radiographic appearance is influenced by the respiratory phase
    c. Its cause is the weakening of the cartilage
    d. Mostly small breed dogs are affected
A

a. The entire trachea is affected

20
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the pediatric patient
A

The vegetative innervation of the heart and the vasomotor function is immature

21
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. Clean soft tissue procedures require broad spectrum antibiotic treatment
    preoperatively
    b. Clean soft tissue procedures require first generation cephalosporins
    preoperatively
    c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis
    d. In clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures, amoxicillin treatment is the
    therapy of choice
A

c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis

22
Q
  1. Which drug is not recommended to use at colic patient´s examination
A

a. Acepromazine

23
Q
  1. Phases of wound healing are
A

a. Acute inflammation, resorption, proliferation, remodeling

24
Q

Which of the followings is the main “shock organ” of the horse and the cat

A

a. Lung

25
Q
  1. The proper name of the “skyline” or the examination of the navicular bone is
A

a. Palmaroprox-palmarodistal oblique view

26
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding dentine in dog
    a. It is capable of repair in living tooth
    b. Dentine layer is thickening towards enamel during production
    c. It comprises more than 98% inorganic elements (false)
    d. It is continuously narrowing during aging
A

a. It is capable of repair in living tooth

27
Q
  1. Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to
    acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia
    a. Urinary bladder
    b. Small intestines
    c. Large intestines
    d. Uterus
A

a. Urinary bladder

28
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect? An active drain
    a. Is not recommended as flushing drain (it is used as flushing drain)
    b. Can be open suction-drain
    c. Can be closed suction-drain
    d. Is used as flushing drain
A

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain (it is used as flushing drain)

29
Q
  1. What does “epulis” mean
A

a. Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

30
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding salivary mucocele

A

a. It´s one of the effective treatments is puncture and content removal from
the cyst

31
Q
  1. According to Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006), which of the following liver biopsy
    techniques caused remarkable colleteral tissue damage
A

a. Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy

32
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct? The injuries of the tongue
    a. Are not be operated on
    b. Mostly heal with complications
    c. Mostly approximated with metal clips or sutures
    d. Always be regarded as contaminated?
A

d. Always be regarded as contaminated?

33
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions does not cause hydronephrosis
    a. Ureteral torsion
    b. Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery
    c. Ureteral tumor
    d. Ureterolithiasis
A

a. Ureteral torsion

34
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body
    a. The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as
    95%
    b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure
    c. Gastric foreign body may cause perforation
    d. Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after gastrotomy
A

b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure

35
Q 
39. Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic
hernia repair
a. Laparotomy
b. Lateral thoracotomy
c. Laparotomy + lateral thoracotomy
d. Sternotomy
A

a. Laparotomy

36
Q
  1. Which of the following suture materials is absorbable
    a. None
    b. Both
    c. Polypropylene
    d. Polyamide
A

a. None

37
Q
  1. Which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal
    intussusception
    a. Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section
    b. Positive contrast abdominal GI radiography
    c. Lack of feces
    d. Vomiting
A

a. Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

38
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. Glucocorticoids specifically inhibit the cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzyme
    b. Non-steroids (NSAID´s) inhibit the production of leukotrienes
    c. NSAID´s inhibit phospholipase A2 (false)
    d. Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins
A

d. Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

39
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning endotracheal tube
A

a. Not only aspiration may be prevented by using endotracheal tubes, but it
also allows for connection to the anesthesia machine by the Y-piece and
mechanical ventilation

40
Q
  1. Which of the followings is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis
    a. Partial nephrectomy
    b. Unilateral nephroureterectomy
    c. Kidney-drainage
    d. Euthanasia
A

a. Partial nephrectomy

41
Q
  1. Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic dogs
A

a. Ventral rhinotomy (due to lack of space dorsally)

42
Q
  1. Which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply
    a. Left gastric
    b. Left gasteoepiploic
    c. Short gastric
    d. Splenic
A

a. Left gastric

43
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally immature dogs
    a. Panosteitis
    b. Perthes disease
    c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy
    d. Achilles tendineopathy
A

c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy

44
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis
    a. It can occur bilaterally
    b. It can lead to ureterolithiasis
    c. It can be caused by congenital disorder
    d. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths
A

d. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

45
Q 
57. Which sign of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 is
less than 60mmHg)
a. Dyspnoe
b. Cyanosis
c. Hyperventilation
d. Labial breathing
A

b. Cyanosis

Small animal (37 decks)

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