surgery 2020 5 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning preanesthetic assessment
    a. Sedation is always recommended, regardless of the general condition of the
    patient, in order to reduce further anesthetic doses
    b. Following the physical examination of the respiratory, circulatory, renal and
    hepatic function, complementary diagnostic measures are taken
    c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea,
    Urea, ALT and AST
    d. The enhanced preanesthetic blood test protocol includes complete
    hematology panel, coagulation tests, blood gas analysis, electrolyte balance,
    blood glucose and urinalysis
A

c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea,
Urea, ALT and AST

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature
    a. Autoclave (steam)
    b. Gamma-beam radiation
    c. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
    d. Isopropyl-alcoholic sterolisation
A

a. Autoclave (steam)

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following can happen if alpha-2 agonist is injected intraarterially
    a. Collapse
    b. Oxytocin-like effect
    c. Awakening
    d. Ileus
A

a. Collapse

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4
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients
    a. Lung capacity and compliance as well as respiratory rate and volume are
    increased
    b. The reserve capacity of the cardiopulmonary system in unchanged
    c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased
    d. GFR and renal urine concentrating capacity are increased
A

c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

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5
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds
    b. The movement of the edges of the incised wound can help the healing
    c. Both
    d. None
A

a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds (true)

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6
Q
  1. The columnar periosteal reaction is typical of which disorder
    a. Hypertrophic osteopathy
    b. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
    c. Nonunion
    d. Osteochondrosis dissecans
A

a. Hypertrophic osteopathy

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following breeds is mostly predisposed to Wobbler syndrome
    a. Dobermann
    b. German shepherd
    c. Dachshound
    d. Labrador retrieve
A

a. Dobermann

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8
Q
  1. Which one is not a postural reaction
    a. Hopping
    b. Placing
    c. Wheelbarrowing
    d. Panniculus reflex
A

d. Panniculus reflex

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9
Q
  1. Which statement is incorrect concerning perianal adenoma
    a. It is uncommon in females
    b. It mostly occurs in males
    c. It mainly originates from circumanal glands
    d. It originates from the anal sac in females
A

d. It originates from the anal sac in females

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10
Q
  1. What is the major difference between midline and incisional gastropexy
    a. Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst incisional operates with
    penetrating sutures
    b. The technique fix different areas of the stomach
    c. In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa
    is done, unlike midline gastropexy
    d. Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy
A

b. The technique fix different areas of the stomach

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11
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter
    a. It may cause dysuria
    b. In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring
    c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes
    d. The urinary incontinence is always constant
A

c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition
episodes

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12
Q
  1. Which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiation
    a. Adrenal gland
    b. Skin
    c. Brain
    d. Bone marrow
A

c. Brain

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13
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. It is preferable to suture the edges of a bite wound
    b. The bite wounds usually heal by primary intention
    c. Both
    d. None
A

d. None

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14
Q
  1. Which solution of the most alkalizing effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis
    a. NaCl solution
    b. NaHCO3 solution
    c. Lactated Ringer´s
    d. Acetated Ringer´s
A

b. NaHCO3 solution

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15
Q
  1. What is the number of permanent teeth in cats
    a. 30
    b. 32
    c. 40
    d. 42
A

a. 30

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16
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning capnometry
    a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2)
    b. PaCO2 is less than EtCO2
    c. The physical principle of measurement is HPLC (measurement of absorption)
    d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas
    mixture
A

d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas
mixture

17
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. Vulnus ruptum is an incised wound
    b. The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound
    c. Both
    d. None
A

d. None

18
Q
  1. Which one of the followings does not contraindicate the use of NSAIDs
    a. Shock
    b. Prolonged mucous membrane bleeding time
    c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system
    d. Active gastro-intestinal ulceration
A

c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system

19
Q
  1. Which statement is correct in dental nomenclature
    a. Mesial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch
    b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch
    c. Distal surface faces to the apex
    d. Distal surface faces to the crown
A

b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch

20
Q
  1. Which of the following radiographic densities look the same
    a. Bone and metal opacity
    b. Fat and soft tissue opacity
    c. Fluid and soft tissue opacity
    d. Fluid and fat opacity
A

c. Fluid and soft tissue opacity

21
Q
  1. Which of the following suture patterns is tension relieving
A

. Interrupted horizontal mattress

22
Q
  1. Which disorder resembles the malignant bone tumours in a dog
    a. Osteochondrosis dissecans
    b. Osteomyelitis
    c. Osteoporosis
    d. Osteomalacia
A

b. Osteomyelitis

23
Q
  1. Which is NOT correct regarding balance anaesthesia
    a. recovery is better than at the inhalational anesthesia
    b. mortality rate is reduced than at inhalational anesthesia
    c. MAC is lower than at inhalational anesthesia
    d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery
A

d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

24
Q
  1. Which structure can be seen in a radiograph of a healthy dog
    a. joint cartilage
    b. subchondral bone
    c. periosteum
    d. adrenal gland
A

b. subchondral bone

25
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism
    a. the choice of anesthetic is substantially influenced by the underlying
    endocrine changes
    b. the actual risk factors are multiorgan changes that result from the primary
    condition ( ie hyperadrenocorticism )
    c. pathological changes associated with the disease result in safer anaesthesia
    d. limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation
    necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia
A

d. limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation
necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

26
Q
  1. Which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics ?
    a. they are flammable and explosive agents
    b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp
    c. in low doses , they are no threat to the health of the surgical personnel in the
    long run (occupational risk)
    d. as isoflurane is highly irritative as inhalation , halothane is preferred for mask
    induction
A

b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp

27
Q
  1. Where is/are the scrotal incision(s) made for castration ?
    a. along the line of raphe scroti
    b. parallel with raphe scroti -1cm from the midline, 1 incision
    c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions
    d. parallel with raphe scroti- 5cm from the midline ,2 incisions
A

c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions

28
Q
  1. Which fixation method does not have a remodeling phase
    a. plate osteosynthesis
    b. external fixator frame
    c. internal fixator frame
    d. intramedullary pinning
A

b. external fixator frame