Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Upgrade 2022 > FOM > Flashcards

FOM Flashcards

1
Q

When the FOM conflicts with an FAR, which takes precedence?

A

FAR, op specs, or foreign regulations always take precedence. However, if the SkyWest policy is more restrictive, that takes precedence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who does a pilot in command report to?

A

Chief Pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the SkyWest human factor conditions? Define them

A

Green, yellow, and red.

Green- threats are managed, saturation level managed, situational awareness not impaired. Etc.

Yellow- some threats are ignored, task saturation beginning, situational awareness reduced, etc.

Red- threats are not being detected, task saturation high, situational awareness is totally lost, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does SkyWest want you to handle yellow or red conditions regarding task saturation?

A

For both, they want you to verbalize that you are in the yellow, or in the red. Buy yourself time, say unable, set the parking brake, execute a missed approach, ask for delaying vectors, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TEAM Model for unanticipated threat

A
  1. ) Fly the airplane, stabilize the situation (memory items, QRC)
  2. ) PF vs. PM (Captain delegates duties)
  3. )
    a. ) Time Threat: Create more time, slow down, expand your team, communicate (2 out 2 in)
    b. ) NO TIME Threat (fire, life threatening): Act- use best judgement and try to land as soon as possible
    b1. ) Communicate (2 out 2 in)
  4. ) Debrief
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a window of circadian low and when is it?

A

A period of maximum sleepiness between 0200-0559 during a physiological night. (AKA the only time crew support calls your cell phone.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If the PIC becomes aware that a member of the crew is no longer fit for duty, what must the PIC do?

A

The FOM requires the PIC to notify the MOD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you report fit for duty?

A

Activating the flight on FliteView is considered signing in fit for duty. (If no EFB connectivity, call the dispatcher and PIC and SIC must verbally state fit for duty.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FAR 117 FDP and flight time limit calculations all begin with a “report time” in order to figure out the actual limits. What time zone is this report time based on?

A

The time zone used as the standard for legality will always be your domicile, regardless of where you live or are currently on an overnight. If you are BOI based, everything will be calculated off of Mountain Time (BOI Time.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FAR 117 has flight time limits per day, what are they?

A

Simplification: It is always 8 hours of flight time a day maximum with one exception:

Reporting between 5AM-19:59 (7:59pm) gets you 9 hours of flight time as the limit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FAR 117 has cumulative flight time limitations. What are they?

A
  • In any 672 consecutive hours (known as “28 days” to humans) = can’t fly more than 100 hours.
  • Can’t fly more than 1,000 hours a year (rolling 365 day look back.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is it ok to exceed flight time limits?

A

Only when unforeseen operational circumstances occur. The exception has no limit, just “above to the extent necessary to safely land at destination, alternate, or as appropriate.”

In other words, its ok if holding, delay vectors, diversion, etc. makes you fly beyond the limits. What is not OK is if you dispatch knowing full well you will exceed the flight time limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If you exceed the FAR 117 flight time limits due to unforeseen circumstances (its still legal), do you the PIC have to write any report?

A

No. The company is required to within 10 days, but not the PIC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

It is the final flight of the night, you are supposed to be released at 20:00. You park, and there is a MX issue so MX comes out. They end up taking 30 minutes and you are forced to stay longer past 20:00. What must happen?

A

You must call crew support and get the new release time updated to 20:30.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a flight duty period, (FDP)?

A

Report time to release time is considered the FDP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FAR 117 has cumulative FDP limits. What are they?

A
  • In any 168 consecutive hours (known to humans as “one week”) = can’t have FDP more than 60 hours.
  • In any 672 consecutive hours (28 days) = can’t have FDP more than 190 hours.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FAR 117 has FDP limitations on a daily basis, what are they?

A

Forget memorizing it, the FAA has created a table for it. Carry with you or have quick access to that table.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Do deadheads count as flight segments regarding FDP calculations?

A

Not as “flight segments.” It does count towards your FDP though, just not on a deadhead back to your home base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is an unplanned diversion considered as additional “flight segments” regarding FDP calculations?

A

Surprisingly they don’t count as additional segments. (FAA logic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the legal basis for an FDP extension? How much can they extend you?

A

Unforeseen operational circumstances. You can be extended up to 2 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If you had an FDP extension of more than 30 minutes (legal is up to 2 hours), how often can they do that to you?

A

Any FDP extension more than 30 minutes can only happen once within the last 168 hours (week), unless you had a consecutive 30 hours off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is ready reserve considered part of your FAR 117 FDP?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A reserve availability period may not be greater than____

A

14 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do you calculate your FDP limit if you are in a RAP and then get called out on a flight?

A

The lesser of the applicable limits of FDP table B plus 4 hours, OR 16 hours from the beginning of the RAP. (FAA simplicity and logic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Crewmembers are expected to be at the gate no later than ______ prior to departure

A

35 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Can the PIC verify the ID of the crewmembers of their own flight? Who can verify ID?

A

No; the gate agent or another crewmember not assigned to the same flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Required Flight Items:

A
  1. ) ATP Cert.
  2. ) Medical
  3. ) Glasses (with spare for international) if required.
  4. ) Company ID
  5. ) Photo ID (DL or passport)
  6. ) FCC Radiotelephone Permit
  7. ) Passport (international)
  8. ) Flashlight
  9. ) Headset
  10. ) EFB (Including Jepps, FOM, SOPM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens if you lose your medical certificate on a trip?

A

Call CS, they can issue a temporary 72- hour one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Under what conditions must the PIC make all takeoffs and landings while the SIC has less than 100 hours (including their IOE)?

A
  1. ) At all FAA Special PIC/SIC Qualification airports (FOM SkyWest Special PIC Qualification Airports)
  2. ) Visibility is AT OR BELOW 3/4 mile or 4000’ RVR
  3. ) Runway has water, snow, slush, or similar.
  4. ) Runway braking action less than “GOOD” or an RCC of 5 OR LESS.
  5. ) Crosswind component in excess of 15 knots.
  6. ) Windshear reported
  7. ) PIC determination/authority.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

SIC crosswind limitation (SIC has more than 100 hours)

A

20 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Green on Green crew rule

A

A crewmember with less than 75 hours in the airplane may not be paired with another crewmember with less than 75 hours in the airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If the captain has less than 100 hours (not including IOE) they have some special restrictions. What are they?

A
  1. ) Must add 1/2 mile to DEPARTURE approach minimums and if less than this, a takeoff alternate is required.
  2. ) Add 1/2 mile to destination mins for dispatching purposes.
  3. ) Add 100’ and 1/2 to approach mins. (Unless using exemption 17203)
  4. ) Alternate minimums are derived (as usual), charted minimums/visibility are to be used. (AS LONG AS the charted minimums/visibility are not less than 300 ft and 1SM)
  5. ) CAT II not authorized.
  6. ) Exemption 17347 not authorized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If there is no special single engine missed approach procedure available in our EFB, does that mean that it is assumed we can make all single engine climb gradients required for the approaches to a given runway?

A

Yes. Aero Data and the Manager of Aircraft Operations analyze all new airports we may begin service to, and all of the numbers are run for the approaches. If we can’t make any missed approach gradient, there will be a special single engine missed/go around procedure pushed to Jepp for us.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where to obtain information on if an airport is a special crew qualification airport or special PIC qualification airport?

A

Jepp under company charts tab, there will be information about the airport. It will be obvious if it is a CA only (says SAAT 4 CA only). Or if it requires supervised entry it will say that. For crew qualification only, that information would typically be under the reference tab and say “airport qualification.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When you write something up and MX creates an MEL, does MX notify dispatch of the MEL and new restrictions?

A

Yes, they SHOULD do it automatically without any prompting from PIC. However, they may forget so monitor and make sure the amended release has the MEL on it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When your flight is less than 1 hour, which weather source is controlling?

A

You would look at the METAR and the latest TAF. The lowest weather is controlling.

NOTE: A current RVR report always supersedes reported visibility in a METAR or SPECI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Not including any exemptions (i.e. 17347), what is the general weather requirement for the destination in order to legally dispatch?

A

The appropriate weather forecast, or report must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above the authorized minimums at ETA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If WX conditions at destination deteriorate below authorized minimums prior to departure, ________

A

The flight is not authorized to depart. PIC and dispatcher must delay flight until conditions improve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If WX conditions at destination deteriorate below authorized minimums after the point of departure,______

A

The flight may continue if the PIC and dispatcher believe doing so will not affect safety of flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the requirements if dispatched to an airport with no instrument approach?

A
  • Must have an alternate filed
  • WX forecasted to have ceilings higher than minimum vectoring altitude or 1,000’ AGL, whichever is higher
  • WX forecasted to have visibility greater than 3 SM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When do you need a takeoff alternate? What does it require?

A
  • When the weather at the departure airport is below the landing minimums for that airport. (only visibility counts) (Can use CAT II minimums)
  • Must be within 1 hour of the departure airport, normal cruise, still air, one engine inoperative.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

For the purposes of alternate airports, what does the term “marginal weather” exactly mean?

A

-Any time the weather conditions at the destination AND first alternate are at or forecasted to be, at the ETA, equal to lowest authorized minima for destination and alternate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When is a second alternate required?

A
  • If “marginal” weather exists

- If using exemption 17347

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When would it be allowed to list no alternate on the release?

A

If at the destination the weather between 1 hour prior to one hour after the ETA is forecasted to be at least 2,000’ ceilings and at least 3SM visibility.

And no other conditions that would require an alternate:

  • no instrument approach at destination
  • Alaska with only 1 runway
  • RCC3 or less
  • Thunderstorm activity
  • Freezing precipitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Other than the regular requirements for listing an alternate like the 123 rule, what are some of the other reasons why an alternate would be required?

A
  1. ) Destination is in Alaska with only one suitable runway.
  2. ) Destination has no instrument approach.
  3. ) Freezing precipitation of ANY kind. (FZDZ, FZRA, +SN, GR, FZFG, or UP) (think any visible moisture that isn’t water)
  4. ) Thunderstorm (TS) or thunderstorm with rain shower (TSRA), regardless of intensity.
  5. ) RCC values of less than 3.
  6. ) Crosswind component exceeded for runway conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How are alternate minimums figured out?

A

In 121 they are “derived” rather than a simple 600 and 2 or 800 and 2 like with part 91. Ops Spec C055 Alternate Airport IFR Weather Minimums has a table. Summary of that table is:

  • For airport with at least one navigation facility providing at least one approach: ADD 400’ to MDA or DA. ADD 1 SM to LANDING MINIMUMS.
  • For airport with at least TWO navigation facilities providing a straight-in approach to DIFFERENT runways: ADD 200’ to MDA or DA of the HIGHER OF THE 2 APPROACHES BEING USED. ADD 1/2 SM to THE HIGHER OF THE 2 APPROACHES BEING USED.

——-Now choose which of these 2 methods gets you lower. These are now your alternate minimums.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

You have a flight from BOI-SEA, and an alternate of PSC today. Your derived alternate minimums are 400’ and 1 SM for PSC. You decide you need to divert to PSC on the way to SEA. Can you shoot a normal ILS there down to 200 and 1/2? Or are you restricted to 400-1 because of the derived alternate minimums?

A

You are good to use the normal minimums of 200 and 1/2. This is because when you divert to an alternate, it no longer is your alternate, it becomes your destination. And destination WX rules now apply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is exemption 17347?

A
  • The release must include an additional alternate, when the destination or first alternate WX forecast includes conditional language indicating below authorized minimums at ETA. Conditional language is (TEMPO or PROB).
    1. ) Main body must be at or above mins.
    2. ) DESTINATION: Conditional language must be no less than 1/2 lowest WX minimums for VISIBILITY.
    3. ) FIRST ALTERNATE: Conditional language must be no less than 1/2 lowest WX minimums for VISIBILITY AND CEILING.
    4. ) SECOND ALTERNATE: WX forecast in main body and conditional language that or above normal derived alternate minimums. (Must have fuel for furthesr alternate, not necessiry the second alternate).
    5. ) PIC must make sure to keep up to date with current METARs and TAFs for all airports on the flight release throughout the flight.

17347 does not apply to:

a. Outside lower 48
b. High mins captains
c. The ceiling requirements of circle to land.
d. 121 supplemental operations.

49
Q

Basic reserve fuel requirement

A

Fly to destination, then to most distant alternate, then have 45 minutes of fuel remaining.

50
Q

Any fuel increase must be coordinated with the dispatcher. True or False

A

True

51
Q

Any fuel decrease must be coordinated with the dispatcher if its more than 200 lb or 50% of contingency fuel, whichever more restrictive. True or false

A

True

52
Q

No less than MINTO fuel must be onboard by___

A

Beginning of the takeoff roll.

53
Q

What should be reported to the dispatcher regarding deviations from the flight release?

A
  1. ) When ETA exceeds 15 minutes beyond the release.
  2. ) When cruise altitude varies by 4,000’
  3. ) The airplane exceeds 100 miles from the flight planned route.
  4. ) Deviates more than 1 hour from flight plan (DELAY)
54
Q

Can you refuel/defuel with PAX onboard?

A

Yes. You need to ensure that the main cabin door is open and air stairs or the jetbridge is attached and the emergency exits are unobstructed to allow for fast egress in an emergency.

55
Q

Can you refuel/defuel with PAX onboard even if you are not connected to a jetbridge or airstairs? (Maybe you’re in IAH during a long lineup and get below MINTO, head back to the gate to discover there are no gates available.)

A

Yes, there is a special procedure for this type of situation.

  1. ) Communication established between PIC and fueler
  2. ) PIC notifies FA’s prior to beginning and when finished fueling
  3. ) Areas outside emergency exits unobstructed
  4. ) All emergency exits are ARMED
  5. ) Firefighting services must be notified and remain within the vicinity on standby
56
Q

What are all the required items on a flight release?

A
  1. ) Aircraft N number
  2. ) Flight number
  3. ) Departure, intermediate stops, destination, alternates
  4. ) Type of operation IFR or VFR
  5. ) Minimum fuel supply
  6. ) WX reports
  7. ) MEL or CDL items on the DMI log
57
Q

No flight may block out without completing a load manifest. True of false

A

True

58
Q

When do you need an ammended flight release?

A

There are many reasons to need an amended release. (FOM and Performance Handbook both have long lists). These are the highlights:

  • If you are going to be delayed greater than 2 hours
  • New aircraft
  • New deferral (NEF does not require new release)
  • Increase in fuel
  • Major change in route (might change MINTO)
  • WX at any listed alternate is below authorized minimums
  • Change in any crew member (heads up for this when on reserve)
59
Q

What if ACARS is down and you can’t connect the ipads to LTE, and you need an amended release?

A

You can call dispatch and they will have you write the amended release information on a paper. It must contain:

  • Amendment number
  • Time
  • Dispatchers initials
  • Supporting documentation of the changes
60
Q

In the event of a diversion, unforeseen holding, or other irregular operation, the PIC must_____

A

Notify the dispatcher.

61
Q

Do you have authority to suspend or delay as the PIC?

A

Yes. You can suspend or delay and wait for conditions/situation to improve. Cancellation is technically a dispatch and company function, but it is a technicality. In summary, you always have final authority on the go no go decision.

62
Q

You have a question about who can have admission to the flight deck. Where would you find a table listing the priority of jumpseaters?

A

FOM “admission to the flight deck”

List is far too long to memorize

63
Q

What type of credentials must an FAA inspector present to ride in the jumpseat?

A

Form 110A (vertical card with blue background)

64
Q

Who is allowed to carry weapons onboard the aircraft?

A
  1. ) Law Enforcement Officer (LEO)
  2. ) Federal Air Marshal (FAM)
  3. ) Federal Flight Deck Officer (FFDO)
  4. ) Other Federal Agencies (secret service, U.S. Marshal, ICE, etc.)
65
Q

What are the requirements of taking on a high-risk prisoner?

A
  • Must be escorted by a minimum of 2 LEO’s.
  • Must be the only high risk prisoner. (TSA exemption does exist)
  • Must be handcuffed.
  • Must not be Nicholas Cage.
66
Q

Where can you find a flow chart regarding questions about certain types of prisoners and what exactly they require?

A

FOM “escorted prisoners/escorted persons”

67
Q

Where would you look to find information to help answer questions you have about some dangerous goods being carried?

A

Dangerous Goods and Hazardous Materials Manual SP 5205 (EFB-GENERAL-DGHM SP 5205)

68
Q

You have the parking brake set, and need to call dispatch or MX on your cell phone. Is this permitted?

A

Yes, cell phone usage is OK in this situation because it is directly related to the flight.

69
Q

Are flight deck crewmembers required to be onboard during boarding/deplaning?

A

No. The minimum legal requirement is just the required FA component.

70
Q

What is the point of the predetermined knock system that is briefed at the beginning of a trip? “Ok we will do 4 knocks”

A

This is a backup if the interphone becomes INOP during a restroom break. So usually you’d just call or have the FA call back to the cockpit to get access. But if you are in the bathroom and the interphone broke, you’d be expected to use the pre-determined knock system to gain access again.

71
Q

What if one of the crewmember’s headset breaks?

A

Both pilots remove headsets and crank the volume on the speaker for the duration of the trip or until a replacement is obtained.

72
Q

You need to brush up on your hand signals for ramp communication. Where can you find hand signals?

A

Station Operations Manual SP 5500 Chapter 04 Hand Signals

NOTE: I am unable to access this. Looks like we don’t have access to airport operations documents, so YouTube it

73
Q

Minimum required crew for arriving at a gate and parking

A

One marshaller. Not required if automated. (wing walkers PIC discretion).

74
Q

Minimum required crew for gate pushback

A

One pushback operator and one wing walker. (ideally 2 wing walkers).

75
Q

Pilot oxygen requirements

A
  • If cabin altitudes are above 10,000’, all flight deck crewmembers must wear O2 masks. O2 must be available to all crewmembers if flight is over 30 minutes at those altitudes.
  • O2 must be in the green for all flights conducted above 10,000’. (Cyan OK if no jumpseater).
  • If one member leaving to use bathroom, mask for other pilot must be worn only above FL410. (Would never apply to the E175).
76
Q

Is medical oxygen or canisters allowed onboard?

A

No. However a portable oxygen concentrator is allowed if it is approved.

77
Q

Upon your originating flow, you notice the FMS NAV database is expired. Can you depart?

A

Yes. You just need to confirm each and every fix and route in the FMS against your current Jepp charts. If they match, you can fly. If not, that particular fix or route cannot be used.

78
Q

On the ground, altimeters must be within _____ feet of each other when cross checked

A

75

79
Q

What do you need to see on an instrument approach in order to land?

A
  1. ) Approach light system
    a. Takes you down to 100’ HAT, from there need to see RED TERMINATING BARS or RED SIDE ROW BARS. (Does not apply to CAT II)
  2. ) Threshold
  3. ) Threshold markings
  4. ) Threshold Lights
  5. ) Runway end identifier lights
  6. ) VASI/PAPI
  7. ) Touchdown zone or its markings
  8. ) Touchdown zone lights
  9. ) Runway or its markings
  10. ) Runway lights

ALSO: -Aircraft must be in a position to land under normal maneuvers, normal descent rate, and flight visibility is at least at or above minimums.

80
Q

Where can you find an RVR conversion chart?

A

FOM

81
Q

Can you takeoff or land on a runway that has no operational runway lights at night?

A

no, it is not allowed.

82
Q

What is the difference between declaring “minimum fuel” and “emergency fuel” ?

A

Minimum fuel: Cannot accept any undue delay. It does not initiate priority handling. Advises ATC that the aircraft will reach emergency fuel if any additional delays are encountered.

Emergency fuel: Less than 30 minutes of fuel onboard. Priority handling given.

83
Q

Are you ever required to call MX after a write up?

A

Yes. If you write something up, and its the last flight of the day for that aircraft. Otherwise a call is not required, but recommended to check in with MX and discuss the issue.

84
Q

How to report a mechanical irregularity PRIOR to blockout?

A

PRIOR to blockout:

  1. ) Write it up in the eAML
  2. ) Call station MX (if available, if not MX control).
  3. ) MX determines action required (correct, defer, plane swap, etc.)
85
Q

How to report a mechanical irregularity AFTER blockout, PRIOR to takeoff?

A

AFTER blockout, PRIOR to takeoff:

  1. ) MEAN acronym followed- Memory, QRC, QRH, Normal checklist.
  2. ) If QRH resolves procedure, flight can continue.
  3. ) Write up issue in eAML upon arrival.
  4. ) MX determines corrective action.

NOTE: If QRH procedure does not resolve issue:

  1. ) Write it up in eAML
  2. ) Call MX control (line or station MX is not called because flight has already blocked out, so call MX control).
  3. ) Follow MX direction. (Might be an over-the-phone deferral, might be a gate return, etc.)
86
Q

What types of turbulence are there? What requires a MX write up?

A

Light, moderate, severe, and extreme.

Severe and extreme require MX write up.

87
Q

How to report a mechanical irregularity AFTER takeoff, PRIOR to block in?

A

AFTER takeoff, PRIOR to block in:

  1. ) MEAN acronym- Memory items, QRC, QRH, normal.
  2. ) Continue flight if safe to do so. If not safe, PIC determines appropriate course of action. (if operational performance is a factor, PIC notifies dispatcher to apply limitation).
  3. ) Write up after block in in eAML
88
Q

How to report a mechanical irregularity AFTER block in?

A

AFTER block in:

  1. ) Reactive flight on FliteView
  2. ) Report in eAML
  3. ) Call station MX (MX control if unavailable), follow MX direction.
  4. ) Close out flight.
89
Q

What is exemption 17203?

A

If you are a PIC with less than 100 hours, this exemption allows you to fly normal CAT 1 approach minimums if these 4 conditions are met:

  1. ) Autopilot used all the way to decision height
  2. ) Visibility not less than 3/4 mile or 4,000 RVR
  3. ) Crosswind does not exceed 15 knots
  4. ) RCC not less than 5
90
Q

How to handle a tripped CB on the ground?

A
  1. ) Stop the aircraft and write it up in the eAML.

2. ) Contact MX for action required.

91
Q

How to handle a tripped CB in flight?

A
  1. ) QRH procedure.
  2. ) A CB should not be reset unless directed by a procedure, however PIC has discretion if it is in their opinion, necessary for the safety of flight.
  3. ) NEVER reset a CB more than one time.
92
Q

For the purposes of aircraft, pilot, or company limitations regarding wind, only steady state winds apply. True or false?

A

True

93
Q

Where can you find all the required documents and information for flying internationally?

A

EFB- International tile

94
Q

If a Canada turn is _____ minutes or less, the crew does not need to clear customs. Confirm this with_____.

A

90; station operations (in range call).

95
Q

What is SkyWest’s definition of “nearest suitable airport?”

A

The PIC must determine what constitutes the nearest suitable airport based on all available information, thus ensuring the safest possible outcome of the flight.

I.E. Land as soon as you safely can, using your best judgement.

96
Q

Who must be notified of a diversion? Do you need to write an IOR?

A

Dispatcher.

If its a planned alternate and you diverted due to WX, no IOR.

If its an unplanned airport, and/or the diversion is because of any other reason other than WX, an IOR must be submitted.

97
Q

You determine you need to return to the airport you departed from. You let ATC know, and they begin vectoring you to return. Who else should be notified of the return to field?

A

Dispatch; they will be able to coordinate logistics such as ground crews, gate, etc.

(If you have time, let ops know as well.)

98
Q

You just diverted. A passenger wants to get off and take their bags. How should you handle this?

A

You must allow the passenger to deplane. They may take their carry on baggage. However, their checked luggage must continue on to original destination. PIC must coordinate with CSA to account for the names of each passenger who deplaned, update load manifest data.

99
Q

You have been delayed for a while with PAX onboard, on the ground. You are getting worried about policies and procedures regarding a lengthy ground delay. Where can you find guidance?

A

EFB- Extended Ground Delay Program SP 400

100
Q

What types of fires are there? How do you fight them?

A

Class A: Combustible materials (paper, wood, fabric) = WATER

Class B: Flammable liquids (Gas, oils, solvents) = HALON, CO2, DRY CHEMICAL

Class C: Electrical (Short circuits, wiring, motors) = HALON, CO2, DRY CHEMICAL

101
Q

Can you allow a person who appears to be intoxicated onboard? Who has final authority over denying boarding?

A

NO; PIC

102
Q

Disruptive, suspicious, irrational, threatening behavior, verbal or written threats, harassment, is threat level_____. Crewmember action is_____

A

Threat level 1; Defuse and contain situation. Get help if needed.

103
Q

Physically abusive behavior such as pushing, kicking, hitting, grabbing, inappropriate touching is threat level ______. Crewmember action is_______.

A

Threat level 2; remove offender with law enforcement. If flying, divert to suitable airport when necessary.

104
Q

Imminent threat of death or serious injury such as weapon, credible terrorist threat, or bomb threat, deadly hand to hand techniques such as choking, etc. is a ______ threat level. Crewmember action is_____.

A

Level 3; prepare to defend flight deck, utilize all resources, land at nearest suitable airport as deemed necessary by PIC, facilitate escape from aircraft as necessary, coordinate with law enforcement, disable aircraft before leaving.

105
Q

Attempted or actual breach of flight deck is threat level ______. Appropriate action is_____.

A

Level 4; fight attackers, use all resources, maintain control of aircraft, land ASAP, disable aircraft and facilitate escape.

106
Q

What do you do in the event of a medical emergency?

A
  1. ) FA’s provide basic medical assistance and notifies flight deck
  2. ) Seek out medical professionals onboard
  3. ) Contact dispatcher via ACARS or Atlanta Radio. Get a patch through to on call physician.
  4. ) If it is determined that a diversion to the nearest suitable airport is needed, advise ATC and dispatch.
  5. ) Declare emergency
  6. ) After landing, start APU, once parked shut down engines promptly.
  7. ) Advise all PAX to remain seated while EMS boards and takes away individual.
107
Q

What is a precautionary landing?

A

It is a classification of landing to describe to the FA’s that:

  1. ) The landing is non-routine but will be successful and WILL NOT cause injury or damage to aircraft.
  2. ) Emergency evacuation IS NOT anticipated, or that decision will be made after landing.
  3. ) Airport rescue and fire equipment may be required.
  4. ) No NTSBO briefing required.
108
Q

What is an emergency landing?

A

It is a classification of landing to describe to the FA’s that:

  1. ) The landing may cause injury and/or aircraft damage.
  2. ) Aircraft rescue and firefighting equipment is required.
  3. ) Requires NTSBO briefing.
109
Q

What is an NTSBO briefing?

A
  1. ) Nature of emergency
  2. ) Time - How much time before landing
  3. ) Signal - Signal used for evacuation or non-evacuation after landing
  4. ) Brace - Determine when the brace position will be necessary
  5. ) Other - Any additional info (passenger briefing strategy)
110
Q

To signal a brace for the PAX, the CA says over the PA____

A

“BRACE BRACE BRACE”

111
Q

After an emergency landing and the aircraft comes to a complete stop, the CA makes the following PA:

A

“This is the captain. Remain seated.”

-clearly communicate with FA’s if evacuation is necessary.

112
Q

After an emergency landing, the PIC will receive an assessment from FA’s to either evacuate or not evacuate. If evacuation is NOT required, the PIC must clearly state to the FA’s _____

A

NO EVACUATION REQUIRED

113
Q

After an emergency landing, the PIC will receive an assessment from FA’s to either evacuate or not evacuate. If evacuation IS required, the PIC makes the following PA (or call to FA) before running emergency evacuation QRC _________. Followed by what actions?

A

“ASSESS AND WAIT FOR MY COMMAND”

-Runs evacuation QRC
(QRC has a step where it instructs you to say “EVACUATE EVACUATE EVACUATE”)
-CA last one to leave, verify all PAX and crew off of the aircraft.
-Remove applicable emergency equipment
-Ensure PAX stay in one area until transportation arranged.
-Do not allow PAX to return to airplane.

114
Q

Do FA’s have authority to begin evacuating without PIC’s approval?

A

Yes. If they feel it is necessary, they must notify PIC who immediately stops aircraft and runs QRC.

115
Q

If PAX begin initiating an evacuation, make following PA____

A

“This is the captain. Remain seated and follow the direction of your flight attendants.”

116
Q

There are so many different nonstandard, irregular, emergency, etc. things that can happen to you. And subsequently a seemingly endless number of reports from IOR’s, chief pilot notification, OCC notification, FAA, NTSB, etc. If something happens and you are unsure what reports you need to make, or who you need to notify, where can you find guidance?

A

FOM- Pilot Required Reporting Table

117
Q

When are pilots required to perform a COCKPIT security search? What does that search entail?

A

Before every flight (Activating on FliteView affirms this action has been done).

The search:

Air vents, bins, compartments, access panels, etc. No tools required and O2 Mask compartment is not required to search.

118
Q

When must an AIRCRAFT security search be performed?

A
  1. ) FFOD
  2. ) Seal broken
  3. ) Returning aircraft to service coming in from MX remote location
  4. ) Aircraft has been left unattended or unsecured
  5. ) Any prohibited item discovered
119
Q

Who is responsible for the CABIN security search?

A

Customer service (station)

Upgrade 2022 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions