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Upgrade 2022 > SOPM Chapters 3-5 > Flashcards

SOPM Chapters 3-5 Flashcards

1
Q

Normal operating position of any push in/out buttons is considered ____ regardless of switch position.

A

No light illuminated

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2
Q

When a checklist is interrupted, it must be started again from___

A

The beginning

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3
Q

How does the SOPM say that the FA’s would notify the flight deck that an evacuation is underway during an emergency?

A

They would turn on the emergency lights

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4
Q

What is an ICE briefing? When should it be conducted?

A

Introduction, Communication, Entry protocol ; conducted on the first flight of a trip, or whenever a new crewmember joins the trip.

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5
Q

What items are included in an ICE briefing?

A

Introduction - Crewmember verification (everyone has required documents and is fit for duty)

Communication - Emergency notification communication (distress signal, evacuation signal, breach of security, sterile procedures, etc.)

Entry Protocol - Establish cockpit entry protocol

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6
Q

What items are on an all flights briefing? When do we do them?

A

Main focus of an all flights briefing is anticipated threats and flight specific considerations. MEL’s, NEF’s, taxi time, delays, deice, weather, flight time/cruise altitude, possible diversion, FAMs, customer service items, jumpseaters, unfamiliar airports, etc.

Completed before every leg

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7
Q

Any time there is a need to exchange flight controls, it should be initiated by___

A

the captain

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8
Q

When exchanging flight controls, what 3 things must be included with the exchange?

A
  • heading (or LNAV)
  • Altitude
  • Speed
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9
Q

When must a safety and power up checklist be performed?

A

On the first flight of the day on a particular airplane, or whenever the aircraft was powered down.

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10
Q

When receiving an airplane that was already powered up, what do you do in regard to the safety and power up checklist?

A

Verify compliance with all items on the checklist, and then perform a fire extinguisher panel test.

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11
Q

What are the flight deck emergency equipment items?

A 
PBE (1)
Halon fire extinguisher (1)
Crash Axe (1)
Flashlight (2)
Life Vests (3) 
Escape ropes (2)
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12
Q

Required Flight Deck Equipment (Not to be confused with emergency equipment items)

A 
Jumpseat headset
Spare bulb kit
Survival ELT (2 types. either PLB, or SLB. Alaska operations requires the SLB and a flare gun)
Gear pins
MX Can
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13
Q

How to check “Maintenace status” while performing the safety and power up checklist?

A

Make sure there is no “DO NOT OPERATE” tag on the throttles, and that the aircraft is safe to apply power.

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14
Q

Under the “documents/equipment check” section of the safety and power up checklist, what are you checking for? If Unsure, where can you find a quick list?

A

Documents:

  • QRC
  • QRH
  • Airworthieness Cert
  • Registration
  • MX Can

Equipment:

  • Jumpseater Headset
  • Spare bulb kit
  • Gear pins
  • Survival PLB/SLB

If unsure: The items are listed in “required flight deck documents/equipment list” in the EFB>ERJ>required flight deck documents/equipment

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15
Q

Required flight deck documents

A 
QRH 
QRC
Airworthiness certificate
Aircraft registration
Aircraft radio license
MX can
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16
Q

Battery recharging procedure should be accomplished when voltage is ____

A

Between 21.0-22.5 volts (procedure in SOPM)

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17
Q

What are you looking for during the fire extinguisher panel test?

A 
Aural warning
Fire handles illuminated
Cargo smoke forward and aft buttons illuminated
Apu button illuminated 
APU emergency stop illuminated
Warning lights both sides flashing
Cargo forward (and aft) smoke EICAS
APU fire EICAS 
ENGINE 1 (2) fire EICAS
FIRE displayed on both ITTs
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18
Q

Packs should be _____ whenever a ground air source is being used.

A

off

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19
Q

When is the E-PBIT started? What interrupts it?

A

When any AC electrical source is established

Interrupted by:

  • Any hydraulic pump running
  • Flight control mode switches cycled
  • AC power is interrupted
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20
Q

What if a Hydraulic PBIT or an electrical PBIT test is interrupted, or expired? What do you do?

A

There are checklists to follow for interrupted/expired PBIT in the SOPM

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21
Q

When do you need to perform a hydraulic systems warm up procedure? Where can you find this procedure?

A

Whenever the hydraulic reservoir temperature is below -18C. The procedure is in the SOPM.

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22
Q

You power up the plane and see the RAM AIR FAULT message, you just cycle the pack buttons and it clears. Is this considered an acceptable action?

A

Yes, there actually is a provision for this in the SOPM. It is considered a nuisance message and it is OK to just cycle the packs in this case.

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23
Q

How much hoarfrost is permitted to be on the fuselage without requiring deicing?

A

Layer is thin enough to distinguish surface features underneath, such as paint and markings.

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24
Q

How much frost is permitted to exist on underwing surfaces without requiring deice?

A

1/8th inch (3mm)

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25
Q

What is the biggest threat from cold soaked fuel tanks?

A

Landing somewhere humid, warmer than freezing, and not expecting or looking for ice. Then clear ice forms on the upper and lower surfaces of the wing.

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26
Q

When are you required to have a potable water draining verification form?

A

FFOD when the aircraft was a RON and the temperature was below freezing.

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27
Q

What can you do if there is no potable water drainage form in the cockpit?

A
  • Verify with dispatch that the temperature was below freezing during the night, it might not have been cold enough to require the form.
  • Contact operations, they can check their logs and see if it was done.
  • When form cannot be verified and is missing (when it is required), aircraft not airworthy.
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28
Q

It is the FFOD, the temperature was below freezing overnight, and the potable drainage form is missing and cannot be verified. What do you do?

A

This is considered a mechanical irregularity. Write it up, call mx.

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29
Q

The aft flight attendant panel indicates a FAULT condition. What do you do?

A

write it up, call mx. It is considered a mechanical irregularity.

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30
Q

Station personnel report a problem servicing the potable water system, what do you do?

A

write it up, call mx. It is considered a mechanical irregularity.

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31
Q

SOPM Flows will be in their own flashcard deck

A

-

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32
Q

When does a cockpit door test need to be performed?

A

FFOD for the airplane

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33
Q

How do you perform a cockpit door test?

A
  • Close the flight deck door
  • Press and hold the test button, check all lights illuminated
  • Lock the door
  • Have FA or FO press the emergency entry button. Let it chime at you for 30 seconds until the door unlocks
  • Press the unlock button in the cockpit to match switch position
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34
Q

When is it appropriate to call for the before start checklist to the line?

A
  • Fueling complete
  • Clearance received (unless it won’t be available until taxi out).
  • “to the line” tasks complete
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35
Q

When is the time to start the APU under normal operations?

A

10 minutes prior to push, but start it any time you need cooling, heating, or otherwise.

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36
Q

When do you call for the “below the line” portion of the before start checklist?

A
  • Takeoff data entered
  • “Below the line” tasks complete
  • FA says “ready to taxi”
  • ALL doors are closed (check status page)
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37
Q

After second engine start the takeoff target N1 must be within________ of planned

A

+0.5% to-0.1%

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38
Q

After second engine start, the N1 is way off from what was planned. What do you do?

A
  1. ) Adjust the flex temperature
  2. ) Update the OAT if needed
  3. ) Confirm proper setup (TO-1/2, ECS on/off)
  4. ) Do not depart if still unresolved, may be mechanical problem
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39
Q

What are all the engine abnormal start abort items?

A
  1. ) No positive oil pressure within 10 seconds of N2 rotation
  2. ) Positive N1 is not indicated before 50% N2
  3. ) No ITT rise within 30 seconds after fuel flow (NO LIGHT OFF)
  4. ) ITT exceeds 815 (HOT)
  5. ) Oil pressure stabilizes below 25 PSI
  6. ) N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (HUNG)
  7. ) Intermittent electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction
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40
Q

Thrust while taxiing should be kept below ____%N1, as much as possible, to avoid rapid accelerations.

A

40

41
Q

Do not single engine taxi when the following conditions exist:

A
  • Contamination
  • Tight ramp space
  • Short taxi
  • Airport specific regulations prohibit it
  • CA’s discretion
42
Q

Single engine taxi on engine 2 requires____

A

HYDRAULIC SYS 1 AC PUMP ON

43
Q

Is STEER FAIL considered a nuisance message?

A

Yes, if it happens on the ground. SOPM says you can press and hold the nosewheel steering disconnect switch, press and release the tiller, release the disconnect switch. You can try this method only once per flight, and the parking brake must be on.

44
Q

What is the “cutoff” point for if you need to run the runway / performance change checklist if runway, routing, or performance is changed?

A

The completion of the before start checklist. Any changes after require the runway / performance change checklist to be ran.

45
Q

You shut down the engines for a flow delay. Do you need to perform the before takeoff checklist if its already been completed once before?

A

Yes

46
Q

When is flex takeoff prohibited?

A
  • Contaminated runway
  • Windshear (reported or forecast)
  • Special procedure specifies full thrust
47
Q

When the FO is running the before takeoff checklist and says “EICAS,” what are you looking for?

A
  • Only applicable EICAS messages
  • ATTCS armed
  • MINTO
  • Fuel balanced within limits
48
Q

When about to cross the hold short line of the runway for takeoff, the CA must say____

A

“Runway ____ confirmed”

49
Q

When lining up with the runway, the CA says ____, arms the auto throttles and verifies_____ is displayed on the FMA.

A

“Heading checked” ; verifies ROLL and TO is on the FMA

50
Q

If ATC issues a heading departure, the CA will _____

A

Deselect LNAV from the FMA

51
Q

If you have a tailwind of more than 10 knots (not greater than 15 knots), what is the takeoff method?

A
  1. ) Apply brakes
  2. ) Don’t arm AT, advance thrust to 60%
  3. ) Once stable at 60%, release brakes and arm the AT
  4. ) Let AT take them to TOGA, or put them in TOGA if it doesn’t.
52
Q

Can you use the tiller on the takeoff roll?

A

No

53
Q

Maneuvers will be covered in another flashcard deck

A

-

54
Q

After a rejected takeoff, when is it acceptable to vacate the runway?

A

ONLY after it is absolutely clear an emergency evacuation will not be required. External information may be required.

55
Q

When a decision is made to re-attempt a takeoff after a rejection, what actions must be taken?

A

Verify all of the takeoff data and FMS data and run another runway / performance change checklist and before takeoff checklist.

56
Q

With close in tight turns right after departure, wait until_____ before calling for the climb sequence.

A

the turn is completed

57
Q

What does “optimized V2” mean?

A

Simply, that V1 and V2 will be automatically increased when runway length, weight, weather, and terrain permit, in order to pick up a slightly higher lift off speed off the runway.

58
Q

Best angle of climb is___

A

Green dot

59
Q

Best rate of climb is____

A

Green dot plus 50 (approximation)

60
Q

What is the difference between Maximum Range Cruise (MRC) and Long Range Cruise (LRC)?

A
  • MRC= Furthest possible range

- LRC= Somewhat faster cruise speed compared to MRC, with only 1% more fuel burned.

61
Q

How does the FMS calculate ceiling altitude in perf data?

A

It calculates the highest altitude where you could still maintain 300 FPM at your current airspeed. (Slow down, and the FPM potential goes up. So will your service ceiling)

62
Q

Skywest minimum holding speeds

A

6,000’ and below: 200 knots

Above 6,000’: 210 knots

63
Q

FAA Maximum holding speeds

A

Sea Level - 6,000’: 200

6,001’ - 14,000’: 230

14,001’+: 265

64
Q

How do you shed ice in moderate to severe icing if the engine vibrations are high?

A

Pull the power to idle on one engine, then rev it to 70% for 10-30 seconds. Then do the same on the other engine.

65
Q

What is drift down speed? (engine failure at altitude)

A

Green dot

66
Q

What is the engine failure in flight procedure?

A

The drift down is essentially all automatic. It will bug green dot, hold altitude until speed decays to green dot, set CON, and DD autothrottle mode. It frees you up to do things like declare an emergency, run the QRH, and prepare for diverting.

67
Q

What weather is required to accept a LAHSO?

A 
-1,000 ft and 3 SM 
(If PAPI or VASI inop, it becomes 1,500' and 5 SM)
-Tail wind less than 3 knots
-No windshear reported
-Dry runway

(or just say unable to any of that BS)

68
Q

1000’ HAT is when you need to be stable by for a straight in approach, what about a circle to land?

A

500’ HAT or MDA whichever is lower

69
Q

If the approach minimums are a DA (baro), round up to the nearest _____

A

10 ft increment

70
Q

If the approach minimums are RA (CAT II), round up to the nearest ______

A

5 ft increment

71
Q

If the approach minimums are an MDA, (no ballnote and not a LOC), set the MDA plus ______.

A

50 ft.

72
Q

If the approach minimums is a LOC approach, set published MDA rounded up_____

A

100 ft increment

73
Q

What approach category must be used when selecting circle to land minimums?

A

Cat D

74
Q

For a circle to land set the published MDA for Cat D, but never less than _______

A

1,000 ft HAA rounded up to the nearest 100’ increment

75
Q

Visibility for a circle to land approach must never be less than ______

A

3SM

76
Q

Can we use the an MDA as if it were a DA?

A

Yes, only if there is a ballnote “Only Authorized operators may use VNAV DA (H) in lieu of MDA (H).

(May not be used on a LOC approach).

77
Q

Regarding setting Vap, is there any difference between HOW we calculate the additive if it is a normal landing or ice speeds/CAT II?

A

No difference, it is still just Vap=Vref + 1/2 steady state+gust factor.

(The only difference is that normal speeds the minimum is +5, ice speeds/CATII is +0)

(Both have a maximum of Vref+20)

78
Q

What is the minimum and maximum additive for calculating Vap when you have a Vref NEW?

A

+0 to +20

Most instructors seem to want you to just duplicate Vref for Vap when dealing with a Vref NEW

79
Q

What are the stabilized approach “gates”?

A
  1. ) By 1500’ or FAF whichever occurs first: Gear down, Flap 3, Speed 180 or less
  2. ) At 1,000’ HAT: Speed +15 to -5 of Vap, no greater than 1,000 FPM, on lateral/vertical profile, fully configured, before landing checklist complete
  3. ) By 500’ HAT: Speed within the bug, thrust not at idle
80
Q

When its extremely cold and you are on a BARO/VNAV path (not LPV and not an ILS), will you be closer to terrain or further?

A

Colder means shallower glidepath, closer to terrain. High to low, look out below.

81
Q

You must apply TEMP COMP when:

A
  1. ) The airport info (10-7) page has “Cold Temperature airport” in a blue bar and the OAT is listed. If the temp is below that, you must temp comp all approaches on all segments for that airport.
  2. ) The airport temp is outside the limits in the remarks section ON THE APPROACH PLATE
  3. ) ALL foreign approaches when its colder than -30C
82
Q

Before applying temp comp, you must advise ATC and tell them______

A

That you require temperature compensation for cold weather operations. Tell them what altitudes you will require for the initial intercept altitude or fix, intermediate fix, and missed approach holding point.

(if being vectored to final tell them altitude you need for the first fix you will cross, to avoid having to climb back up)

83
Q

Don’t rely on a visual glide slope indicator (VASI or PAPI) past _____ miles

A

4 (VASI)

3 (PAPI)

84
Q

Do you press APP mode for an RNAV visual?

A

Yes

85
Q

What is the maximum speed in a procedure turn?

A

200 kn

86
Q

Is it required to verify the WAAS ID channel before conducting an LPV approach?

A

Yes

87
Q

LPV approaches are prohibited when the flight director is off. True or false?

A

True

88
Q

An RNP with an RF leg in the FAS requires:

A
  • speed 165 or less to DA
  • Flap 5
  • Cat D minima
  • Discontinue procedure
89
Q

Are there provisions written in the SOPM that allow the PIC to make the decision to simply land if a mechanical failure occurs in flight and on final approach? Or is it always a required go around to then run a QRC/QRH?

A
  • There is language stating that the PIC can just simply continue to land (generally if within 1,000’ HAT but not specific) for mechanical irregularities.
  • There is language discussing an engine failure on final (simply add 15-20 knots and land)
  • Ultimately, do what is most safe
90
Q

How do you fly an LDA approach with no glideslope?

A

Same exact procedures as a LOC approach

91
Q

Can an FO fly a circle to land approach?

A

No-CA only

92
Q

What airspeed is bugged when you press the TOGA button on a go around?

A

Vref + 20

93
Q

How do you conduct a discontinued approach? (not the full RNP discontinue. But if for example tower says go around, and you are still on a 3 mile final)

A
  • Deselect APP
  • Manual speed (200 is a good start)
  • Set appropriate altitude and FLCH
  • HDG or sequence missed approach if no other instructions given
  • Set go around flaps
  • Gear up
  • Climb sequence after takeoff checklist
94
Q

What if you get an EGPWS warning, but it is verified to be erroneous and the runway is in sight?

A

You can continue, no MX write up required

95
Q

During the shutdown checklist, the normal flow is to set the parking brake and leave it set. If the brakes are very hot, you are allowed to release the parking brake to help with cooldown. Before releasing the parking brake, you must see_____

A

The chocks in signal

96
Q

If the other crew is in the jetbridge, can you skip powering down the aircraft?

A

Yes, only if all known discrepancies are resolved prior to leaving the aircraft.

(IE don’t leave something that needs to be written up to the next crew)

97
Q

In an emergency/abnormal situation, it is recommended to delay QRC or memory item procedures until_______

A

the aircraft has reached acceleration altitude, flaps retracted, and established in a stable climb at VFS.

98
Q

What is SOPM minimum fuel?

A

Cannot accept any undue delay, (approaching landing with less than reserve fuel).

SKW says: 2,250lb… I’ll stick with 2500. (Landing with NO LESS than 45 minutes of fuel. Anything under 45 minutes of fuel upon landing should be reported as min fuel. It is not how much fuel you currently have, but how much fuel you will land with.)

99
Q

What is emergency fuel?

A

Less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining UPON TOUCHDOWN. Not currently onboard.

That number is 1,500 lb.

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