11

Question 1

Low-level airways may be classified as Class ____ airspace.

Answer 1

E

AIM, RAC 2.8.5

Question 2

Except for fire fighting, no person shall operate an aircraft in the airspace below ____ft agl within _____nm of the limits of a forest fire area.

Answer 2

3.000; 5.

AIM, RAC 2.9.2

Question 3

When taking off from an aerodrome located in the standard pressure region and climbing to the cruising attitude also in the standard pressure region, the altimeter should be:

Answer 3

Sec to 29.92”Hg immediately prior to reaching(BEFORE) the flight level at which flight is to be conducted.

AIM, RAC 2.11

Question 4

a pilot is planning a flight from an airport in the standard pressure region to another airport also in the standard pressure region, when should he/she set its altimeter to 29.92’Hg if its planned altitude is 10.000 feet asl?

Answer 4

just prior to reaching 10.000 feet

AIM, RAC 2.11

Question 5

A ____is a document attesting to an aircraft’s fitness for flight.

Answer 5

Certificate of airworthiness.

CAR 101.01

Question 6

The standard ATF frequency in use in an uncontrolled airport where there is no MF or ATF is:

Answer 6

123.2 MHZ.

AIM, RAC 4.5.1

Question 7

A pilot intercepted in flight should:

Answer 7

Attempt to establish radio communication on 243.0 mhz.

Attempt to advise the appropriate air traffic services unit of the intercepcion.

Follow the radio instructions given by the intercepting aircraft.

AIM, SAR 4.7

Question 8

To fly at night with passengers on board, a private pilot in possession of a night rating must have performed at least_____ takeoffs and landings in the last ___months.

Answer 8

5 night; 6.

CAR 401.05

Question 9

What is a flight crew member on:

1. call
2. reserve
3. standby

Answer 9

1. A filght crew member on call is a person who has been designated by an air operator to be available to report for flight duty on notice of one hour or less.
2. A filght crew member on reserve is a person who has been designated by an air operator to be available to report for flight duty on notice of more than one hour.
3. A filght crew member on standby is a person who has been designated by an air operacor OR private operator to remain at a specified location in order to be available to report for flight duty on notice of one hour or less.

CAR 101.01

Question 10

A large aircraft” may be defined as an aeroplane having a maximum permissible takeoff weight in excess of 5700 kg.

Answer 10

5700

CAR 601.01

Question 11

A controlled airspace is an airspace:

What are the types of controlled airspace?

What are the classes of controlled airspace?

Answer 11

Within which instruction or clearance can be given by ATC.

car 101.01: Air traffic control clearance: means an authorization issued by an air traffic control unit that authorizes an aircraft to proceed within controlled airspace in accordance with the conditions specified by that unit; (automation du contrOle de la circulation aerienne)

Air traffic control instruction: means a directive issued by an air traffic control unit for a’r traffic control purposes; (Instructions du contrdle de la circulation aerienne)

Types:

car 601.01: Controlled airspace consists of the following types of airspace:

(a) the Arctic Control Area (ACA). Northern Control Area (NCA) and Southern Control Area (SCA);

• high level airspace;
• high level airways;
• low level airspace;
• low level airways:
• fixed RNAV routes;
• terminal control areas;
• military terminal control areas;
• control area extensions;
• transition areas;
• control zones:
• restricted airspace;
• advisory airspace;
• military operations areas: and
• danger areas.

Classes:

car 601.02; The class of any controlled airspace of a type referred to in subsection 601.01(1) is one of the following, as specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook:

• Class A;
• Class B;
• Class C;
• Class D;
• Class E;
• Class F special use Restricted; or
• Class F special use Advisory.

Question 12

Whac restriction applies to an aircraft flying IFR inside Class F airspace?

Answer 12

The aircraft must be operated under atc clearance.

CAR 601.05

Question 13

SOME portable electronic devices, like cellphones:

Answer 13

Shall not be used on board as they may impair the functioning of the aircrafts systems or equipment.

CAR 602.08

Question 14

The aircraft engine(s):

Answer 14

Shall not be started unless the pilot’s seat is occupied by a person who is capable of controlling the aircraft.

Explanation
CAR 602.10: No person shall start an engine of an aircraft unless a pilot’s seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control che aircraft

Question 15

Under IFR. which of the following must be read back to the atc?

Answer 15

instructions to hold short of a runway when taxiing.

car 60231: (1) Subject to subseccion (3). che pilot-in command of an aircraft shall

(a) comply with and acknowledge, to the appropriate air traffic control unit, all of the air traffic control instructions directed to and received by the pilot-in-command; and
(b) comply with all of the air traffic control clearances received and accepted by the pilot-m-command and
(1) subject to subsection (2). in the case of an ifr flight, read back to the appropriate air traffic control unit the text of any air traffic control clearance received, and
(li) in the case of a vfr flight, read back to che appropriate air traffic control unit the text of any air traffic control clearance received, when so requested by the air craffic control unit
(2) Except if requested to do so by an air traffic control unit, the piloc-m-command of an ifr aircraft is not required to read back che text of an air craffic control clearance pursuant to paragraph (i)(bxi) where
(a) the air traffic control clearance is received on the ground by the pilown-command before departing from a controlled aerodrome in respect of which a standard instrument departure procedure is specified in the Canada Air Pilot; or

Question 16

When flying from the altimeter setting region to the standard pressure region, when should your altimeter be reset to 29.92”Hg?

Answer 16

just after the aircraft’s entry into the Standard Pressure Region.

Explanation

CAR 60237: Except where otherwise authorized by an air traffic control unit, each flight crew member who occupies a flight crew member position that is equipped with an altimeter shall:

• when flying from the altimeter-setting region into the standard pressure region, set the altimeter to 29.92 inches of mercury or 1.013.2 millibars IMMEDIATELY AFTER the aircraft’s entry into the standard pressure region; and
• when flying from the standard pressure region into the altimeter-setting region, set the altimeter to the altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight or, where the nearest stations along the route of flight are separated by more than 150 nautical miles, the altimeter setting of a station near the route of flight IMMEDIATELY BEFORE the aircrafts entry into the altimeter-setting region.

Question 17

What is required to fly in an air taxi operation for a day VFR flight over water at 220 NM from the coast?

Answer 17

An individual flotation device for each passenger.

Life rafts with a total capacity sufficient for all the people on board.

A life preserver for each person on board.

CAR 602.62
CAR 602.63

Question 18

Which of the following is true about flight itineraries?

Answer 18

A flight itinerary can be filed with a responsible person instead of an air traffic control unit.

Explanation
CAR 602.75: A flight Itinerary shall be filed with a responsible person, an air traffic control unit, a flight service station or a community aerodrome radio station.

Question 19

What is the minimum visibility for flying SVFR in a control zone?

Answer 19

1sm visibility

CAR 602.117

Question 20

You wish to take off from an uncontrolled aerodrome, twinned with an FSS. Before departing, you have to ask for clearance from the FSS:

Answer 20

If the ESCAT plan is in place

Explanation

CAR 602.146:7he pilot-in-command of an aircraft who is notified by an air traffic control unit of the implementation of the ESCAT Plan shall:

• Before take-off. obtain approval for the flight from the appropriate air traffic control unit or flight service station.

Question 21

Refer to images 1 to 3 in the Appendix.

According to the conditions below, determine the total landing distance:

• Runway: Wet (reported braking action: medium to poor)
• Brake use: autobrake 2
• Landing gross weight: 75.000 Kg
• Airport elevation: 4.000 ft
• Head/tail winds: 20 kts headwind
• Runway gradient: Nil ■ OAT: ISA
• Approach speed: vref40
• Reverse thrust: One reverse used
• Flaps: 40
• Speedbrakes: manual

Answer 21

11.060 feet.

Explanation

in order to determine che landing distance using the performance tables provided in the appendices, you must first identify the appropriate line for your situation in order to obtain a reference distance.Once the line has been identified and the reference distance found, the necessary adjustments must be made by following this line from left to right.

in this question, we have a wet runway (with medium to poor reported braking action), with the flaps set to 40 and che use of che “autobrake 2” brakes.

Looking at the cable in image 3. we see that under these conditions the reference distance for a mass of 65.000 kg is 8.990 feet. With this reference distance, we will now make the adjustments corresponding to the conditions outlined in the quescion.

First of all. the weight adjustment, we can see here that for every 5.000 kg above the reference weight. 550 feet must be added. Since we are 10.000 kg above the reference weight, we add 1.100 feet, which gives us 10.090 feet.

we then apply the terrain elevation adjustment, we can see in the footnotes of the table that che standard value should be used between o and 8.000 feet which is 260 feet per 1.000 feet. For an elevation of 4.000 feet we will add 1.040 feet to our distance (260 x 4), which gives us 11.130 feet.

we will now apply the wind adjustment. We can see that we have to subcract 470 feet for every 10 knocs of headwinds, which equals to 940 feet (2 x 470). Our new distance will be 10.190 feet.

Because only one reverse is used, we have to add 700 feet to our distance resulting in 10.890 feet.

Finally, we can see chat the speed brakes are set to “Manual* so as mentioned in the footnotes below the cable we have to add 170 feet to our distance, which gives a distance of 11.060 feet.

Since che ocher conditions in the quescion are standard, the total landing distance will be 11.060 feet.

Question 22

When an unpressurized aircraft is flying between 10.000 and 13.000 feet asl with 20 passengers on board. ____ oxygen mask(s) shall be available for those passengers.

Answer 22

2

Explanation

CAR 60531: Oxygen equipment and supply is only required for flight at more than 10.000 feet ASL for a period greacer than 30 minutes.

Refer to the table.

Question 23

The flight data recorder required in some aircraft must operate:

Answer 23

From the start of the takeoff until the completion of the landing.

Explanation

CAR 605.34: (1) Except where otherwise permitted in this section, no person shall operate an aircraft for which a flight data recorder or cockpit voice recorder is required by these Regulations unless

(a) in the case where a flight data recorder is required, the flight data recorder is operated continuously from the start of the take-off until the completion of che landing; and
(b) in the case where a cockpit voice recorder is required, che cockpit voice recorder is operated continuously from the time at which eleccrical power is first provided to the recorder before the flight to the time at which electrical power is removed from the recorder after the flight.

Question 24

Could you fly a turbojet-powered aeroplane in a commuter operation with a MCTOW greater than 5.700 kg if this aeroplane were operated in the USA on October 10.1995. in a commercial air service?

Answer 24

Yes. if this aeroplane is equipped with a third attitude indicator.

Explanation

CAR 605.41: (1) No person shall conduct a take-off in a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane that is operated under Part VII without a third attitude indicator that meets the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards unless the aeroplane

(a) has a MCTOW of less than 5 700 kg (1Z566 pounds): and
(b) was operated in Canada in a commercial air service on October 10.1996.

Question 25

Every owner of an aircraft shall preserve the Aircraft journey Log for:

Answer 25

One year after the date of the last entry in the log. Explanation CAR 605.94: (3) The owner of an aircraft shall retain every entry in a journey log for a period of not less than one year.

Question 26

Which of the following will help to prevent CFIT?

Answer 26

using the stabilized final approach technique. Explanation aim. air 2.16.1: Controlled Flights into Terrain (CRT) continue to be a major threat to cMl aviation safety in Canada. A stabilized final approach during an npa has been recognized by the icao CFIT Task Force as an aid to present CFiT. The step-down technique presumed by npa procedure design may have been appropriate for early piston transport aircraft, but it is less suited to larger jet transport aircraft. when using che step-down technique, the aircraft files a senes of vertical descents dunng the final approach segment as it descends and levels off at the minimum ifr altitudes published for each segment of the approach. The successive descents and level-offs result in significant changes in power settings and pitch attitudes and for some aircraft, may present che landing configuration from being established until landing is assured, using che step-down technique, the aircraft may have to be flown at minimum ifr altitudes for each segment of the approach and consequently be exposed to reduced obstacle separation for excended periods of time, a premature descent or a missed level-off could render che aircraft vulnerable to a CFIT accident. Many air operators require their flight crews to use a stabilized approach technique which is entirely different from that envisaged in the onginal npa procedure design. The stabilized approach is calculated to achieve a constant race of descent at an approximate 3° flight path angle with stable airspeed, power setting, and attitude, and also with the aircraft configured for landing. The safety benefits derived from the stabilized final approach have been recognized by many organizations including icao. the faa and TCCA. Those air operators not already doing so are encouraged to incorporate stabilized approach procedures into their sops and training syllabi. CAUTION: Caution should be exercised when descending below the mda while following an FMS-generated vertical path, unlike vertically guided approaches, which have their ocss verified below che da. ocss on lnav procedures below the MDA have NOT been assessed, as a result, obstacles may penetrate the computer-generated flight path. Pilots are reminded to visually scan for obstacles before descending below the MDA. vasi and papi are calibrated for a defined geometric vercical path angle, in cold temperatures, a non-temperature compensated barometric FMS-generaced vertical path may be lower than that of a calibrated vasi or papi. in high temperatures, a barometric FMS-generated vertical path will be higher chan chat of a calibrated vasi or papi. Pilots should be aware of this limitation and operate accordingly

Question 27

When a portion of compressor air is used to drive the cabin air conditioning system, thrust of the gas turbine engine ____ and temperature in the turbine ____.

Answer 27

Decreases; increases.

Question 28

When do we have to check the RAIM on a LNAV approach?

Answer 28

When intending to perform a lnav approach, the RAIM prediction feature should be verified prior to takeoff and prior to start the descent. Explanation aim, COM 5.4.2.1: Pilots using TSO C129/C129a avionics should use the RAIM prediction feature to ensure that approach-level RAIM will be supported at the destination or alternate airport for the ETA (=15 min). This should be done before takeoff, and again prior to commencing a GNSS-based approach, if approach-level RAIM is not expected to be available, pilots should advise ATS as soon as practicable and state their intentions (e.g. delay the approach, fly another type of approach, proceed to alternate).

Question 29

A bleed-air leak warning light on the annunciator panel indicates:

Answer 29

A bleed-air leak that could lead to a fire on the aircraft. Explanation in a gas turbine engine, bleed-air is compressed air that is taken from che engine compressor stage (upscream of che combustion chamber), it can be taken from the high stage (in descent and ocher low-power setting operations) or low stage (during high-power setting operations) from the engine compressor section. Bleed-air has a high temperature (between 200 and 250°C and a high pressure (275 kPa). Bleed-air can be used for the internal cooling of the engine, to cross-start another engine, for engine and airframe anti-icing cabin pressurization (after it has been cooled), pneumatic actuators, air-powered motors, for pressurizing the hydraulic reservoir, waste and water storage tanks, etc. Because of the high temperature of this air. a leak in the system could cause structural damages on the aircraft. To avoid damage (like fire if left unattended), a bleed-air leak detector control is installed. This device is a fire-decection system that responds to heat. High temperature causes a chemical reaccion in the sensing element, which provides a ground for the warning circuit and turns on an indicator light on the annunciator panel.

Question 30

Weather radar systems are based on the principle of _____and transmit in the frequency band.

Answer 30

Primary Radar; SHF. Explanation Weather radar uses the same principle as primary radar (PSR) and transmits on the SHF frequency range, its antenna radiates a very narrow and highly directional beam ahead of the aircraft in the x-band of the radio spectrum.

Question 31

What effect will flaps extension have on stalling speed?

Answer 31

Decrease of the stalling speed. Explanation One advantage of flaps use is the stall speed decreasing, when they are extended, flaps change the wing profile by increasingthe wing upper surface camber, it allows the aircraft to have a lower landing speed.

Question 32

The wing tip stall can be controlled by:

Answer 32

Washout, Krueger flap, leading edge flap. Explanation When an aeroplane is made, the wings are twisted so that the angle of incidence at the wing tip is lower than the angle at the wing root. This is called wash-out (or wash-in) and enables wings to stall more abruptly because the wing near the root stalls before the wing top. Ailerons, being wing tip, stay efficient while a part of the wing is already stalled. When leading edge flaps are dropped, the wing camber increases. The wing then has a higher lift coefficient at big angles of attack and weaker airspeed. Krueger flaps do essentially the same job.

Question 33

The advantage(s) of the canard is/are:

Answer 33

Better stall characteristics. Reduced stall speed. Better handling. a canard is an aeroplane that has a lifting surface (smaller than main wings) at the front of the fuselage. unlike a classical stabilizer, the surface of the canard usually produces a positive lift chat is added to the lift produced by the main wings, causing a decrease in drag. The advantages of a canard are: • better protection of the aeroplane against stalls: this surface stalls first, forcing the aeroplane to adopt a nose-down attitude, and thus avoiding the main wing stall - reduced stall speed - better handling

Question 34

To get a nose up" attitude on an aircraft, the elevator trim tab must be:

Answer 34

Deflected downward. Explanation The elevator trim tab is a trim system hinged to the elevator. When moving the trim control, the trim tab moves above or below the elevator chord, it creates an aerodynamic force that helps the pilot maintain the control system in the desired position. To obtain a nose-up attitude, the trim tab is positioned downward. The force created lifts the elevator and the aircraft adopcs this attitude. The opposite occurs wich a nose-down attitude.

Question 35

While taxiing a turboprop engine, when the power lever is between the Beta mode and the reverse mode:

Answer 35

The propeller pitch is under direct control of the power lever. The different controls of a turboprop engine are the Power Lever, the Condition Lever and the Prop Lever. The Power Lever has 3 positions: the AJpha mode, che Beta mode, and the Reverse Thrust. On the ground, the propeller pitch changes depending on the position of this control. The Condition Lever is used to set the fuel flow. While taxiing, the Power Lever is in Beta mode, in this mode (before the reverse), the propeller pitch is under direct control of the Power Lever. The engine remains idled and the fuel flow varies only slightly (via the FCU) in order to maintain the pressure needed for the propeller pitch to change and a constant RPM. in the reverse mode, the Power Lever has an important control on fuel flow, and so on the engine power.

Question 36

On a turboprop engine aeroplane, when you move the power lever to reverse the propeller thrust, the Beta valve ____ to allow oil to the propeller ___

Answer 36

Opens: hub. Explanation On a turboprop engine equipped with a reversing propeller, the reversal of the propeller blade is controlled by the Beta valve, which opens and closes in accordance with the low pitch stop system position on the power lever. When landing, while the prop lever is on the full fine pitch position, and while the power lever is set on minimum power, the low pitch stop system closes the Beta valve when the fine pitch propeller has reached its limit. When the power lever passes through the low pitch stop system to go to the reverse position, the Beta valve opens again; the propeller pitch decreases more until the blades are reversed.

Question 37

At the turbofan output, the relationship between a cold air mass and a hot air mass is the:

Answer 37

Bypass ratio. Explanation The turbofan engine bypass ratio (BPR) is the ratio between the air mass flow rate drawn through the fan disk that bypasses the engine core (un-combusted air) and the air mass passing through the engine core that is involved in combustion to produce mechanical energy.

Question 38

During a climb at an indicaced airspeed of 95 knots, the input of the pitot tube for the pitot static pressure system completely blocks, if the drain port does not block, the airspeed indicator will:

Answer 38

Show 0 knot Explanation if the pitot pressure source of the pitot static pressure system is totally blocked, the airspeed indicator will indicate like an altimeter, if the pressure source is partially blocked or if there is an air leak in the system, the airspeed indicator needle will indicate 0.

Question 39

On a mode C transponder, the system that enables ATC to display, on their radar, the altitude of the aircraft using the transponder is:

Answer 39

The encoding altimeter of the aircraft. Explanation An altimeter with a mode C can provide pressure altitude information automatically to che atc. The aircraft should then be equipped with an encoding altimeter linked with che transponder.

Question 40

When working in very cold temperatures, the barometric altimeter:

Answer 40

Overestimates. Explanation Wtien an aircraft is in an air column where temperature is colder than standard atmosphere temperature, the true altitude above mean sea level is lower than the altitude indicated by the altimeter (the altimeter overestimates the altitude). The opposite occurs if the air column temperature is higher (the altimeter underestimates the altitude).

Question 41

Your altimeter indicates an altitude of 9.000 feet with the altimeter setting of a station at sea level, of 29.56"Hg. You are flying over a mountain ridge that is at 6.500 feet AMSL. The outside air temperature is -30°C and pressure altitude is 9.400 feet. What is your clearance above this ridge?

Answer 41

1.600 feet.

Question 42

To work, the air data computer of an aircraft uses:

Answer 42

The aircraft pitot-static system and a temperature sensor. Explanation An air data computer (ADC) is an electronic device that determines the altitude, vertical speed, calibrated airspeed (or equivalent airspeed in some very high-speed aircraft) and Mach number from the aircraft pitot-static system. Air data computers usually also have an air temperature sensor that allows one to calculate the static air temperature and the true airspeed.

Question 43

In a gas turbine engine. N1 stands for ____ and N2 stands for ____

Answer 43

The low-pressure compressor and turbine; the speed of the high pressure compressor and turbine. Explanation in a gas turbine engine. N1 represents the low-pressure compressor and turbine while N2 represents the speed of the high-pressure compressor and turbine, in a free turbine engine. Nf and Ng or Nl and Nh are used instead of N1 and N2. Np will be used for the propeller speed.

Question 44

which of the following is needed to deeermine wind speed and direction with a flight computer?

Answer 44

Groundspeed. True heading. True airspeed. True track.

Question 45

If you are flying at 125 ktas along a track 343º with a heading of 350s and you want to increase your speed by 10 knots, you should:

Answer 45

turn to the left to compensate.

Question 46

What is an isogonic line?

Answer 46

Aline of equal variation. Explanation On a map. the lines joining the points of the same variation are called "isogonic lines.' Those lines are curved because of the magnetic field created by the magnetism under the surface.

Question 47

Which of the following equipment is required to make use of VDF?

Answer 47

VHF communications radio. Explanation AIM. COM 4.10: VHF direction finders (VDF) are installed at a number of flight service stations (FSSs) and airport control towers. VDFs operate on pre-selecced very high frequency (VHF) communication frequencies, which are listed in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) entry for the aerodrome where the equipment is installed. An airport controller or flight service specialist responsible for VDF operation has access to numerical readouts that provide a visual indication of an aircrafts bearing from a VDF site. This information is based on the radio transmission received from the aircraft, thus giving the vdf operator a means of providing bearing or heading information to pilocs requesting the service.

Question 48

On a turbojec aircraft, vr varies with:

Answer 48

Takeoff weight Air-density Flap setting

Question 49

Which of the following is true regarding the use of a balanced runway?

Answer 49

Accelerate-stop distance equals accelerate-go distance. Explanation The accelerace-stop discance is the distance required to accelerate che aeroplane up to its VI. then completely stop it (for example in case of engine failure at Vi or before). The accelerace-go distance is che discance required to accelerate the aeroplane up to its V1. reach its vr after an engine failure ac its V1. then reach its V2 at 10.7 mecres (35 feet) above the runway. The decision speed (or engine failure recognition speed) (Vi) is an indicated airspeed. The pilot decides to continue or stop the takeoff after the failure of one engine based on this speed and the remaining runway length. V1 may vary according to the aeroplane weight. The pilot may therefore make arrangements to have the accelerace-stop distance equalling the accelerace-go distance: what is called balanced field length, it allows a takeoff with the highest weight possible regarding runway length and conditions.

Question 50

Which of the following is most likely to lead to the phenomenon of hydroplaning?

Answer 50

Landing on a wet asphalt runway. Explanation AIM. AIR 1.6.6: Runway friction values are currently not provided during the summer and when it is raining. When hydroplaning occurs, the aircrafts tires are completely separated from the actual runway surface by a thin water film and they will continue to hydroplane until a reduction in speed permits the ares to regain contact with the runway. Notwithstanding the fact that friction values cannot be gfven for a wet runway and that hydroplaning can cause pilocs serious difficulaes. it has been found that, under light or moderate rain conditions, well-drained runways seldom accumulate sufficient standing water for hydroplaning to occur.

Question 51

Hydroplaning will occur ac a minimum speed of ______ if the wheels lock-up and at a minimum speed of _____Assume chac tire pressure is 39 psi if the wheels don't slip.

Answer 51

4S kts; 56 kts. AIM, AIR 1.6.6

Question 52

During a final approach, the headwind suddenly increases and remains high. To maintain the same angle of descent and the same airspeed, the pilot should first _____ the power, then ______

Answer 52

Reduce; increase it above che power setting that was used before the wind increased. Explanation a positive wind shear is a headwind speed increasing or a tailwind speed decreasing, in such a case, the aircraft inertia leads to a delay of seconds before the aircraft reacts to if wind persists, you have to increase power over the original setting in order to decrease the rate of descent because the aircraft will take more time to arrive over the runway.

Question 53

In the cap. it is indicated that the _____ includes the length of the clearway.

Answer 53

TODA Explanation aim. aga 3.10: The Canada Air Pilot (CAP) provides information on declared distances, which are defined in the fifth edition of the Aerodrome Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312) as follows: “The distances chat the aerodrome operator declares available for aircraft take-off run. take-off distance, accelerate stop discance. and landing distance requirements. These distances are categorized as follows: (a) Takeoff Run Available (TORA): The length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off. (b) Takeoff Discance Available (TODA): The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided. (0 Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA): The lengch of the takeoff run available plus the length of che scopway. if provided. (d) Landing Discance Available (LDA): The length of the runway available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft landing."

Question 54

what will the papi indication be if your approach is slightly high?

Answer 54

Three white lights and one red light. Explanation aim. aga 7.6.3: papi consists of four light units typically situated on the left side of the runway in the form of a wing bar. when the pilot is: (a) well above the approach slope, all four units show white. (b) slightly above the approach slope, the one unit nearest the runway edge shows red and the other three show white. (C) on or close to the approach slope, che two units nearest the runway edge show red and the two units farthest from the runway edge show white. (d) slightly below the approach slope, che three units nearest the runway edge show red and che other shows white. (e) well below the approach slope, all four units show red.

Question 55

You are going to fly an aircraft with a total weight, when loaded, of 8.500 pounds, if you move 350 pounds of baggage 20 inches forward, your centre of gravity will also move forward by:

Answer 55

0.82 inches. Explanation Wtien exceeding che aircraft balance limits, use the following formula to come back within the limits: Weight to Wove / Aircraft Weight = Discance C.G. has to Move / Distance Between Arms in this case, che unknown is the discance C.G. has to move. So: Distance C.G. has to Move = (Distance Between Arms x weight to Move) / Aircraft weight Distance C.G. has to Move = (20 x 350) / 8.500 = 0.82 inch

Question 56

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix. Before starting the engines, what is the total weight of the loaded aircraft and is it within its limits?

Answer 56

20.255 lbs; within limits.

Question 57

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix. Before starting the engines, what is the centre of gravity of the loaded aeroplane and to what % MAC does it correspond?

Answer 57

279.240 inches; 28.244% MAC.

Question 58

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix. Before starting the engines, is the maximum zero fuel weight within limits?

Answer 58

Yes.

Question 59

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix. At destination, the aircraft centre of gravity. % MAC. will within the limits.

Answer 59

26.756; be.

Question 60

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix. Before starting the engines. pounds of payload can be added without exceeding limits.

Answer 60

100

Question 61

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix. Disregarding the previous question, before starting the engines, the passenger of seat 8 changes for seat 3. What is the new centre of gravity?

Answer 61

280114 inches.

Question 62

Question 62 For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix. Finally, the passenger of the previous question decides not to take the flight. At takeoff, the new weight of the aircraft will be pounds and its centre of gravity will be at % MAC.

Answer 62

19.735; 29.113.

Question 63

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix. Regarding the initial aircraft loading, what is the maximum amount of fuel that can be carried for the flight (considering chat the fuel will be added in the fuselage and wing tanks only)?

Answer 63

6.600 pounds

Question 64

_____ stability is the aircraft's overall trend to return itself to its original position after a series of decreasing oscillations.

Answer 64

Positive dynamic Explanation An aircraft with dynamic positive stability will create forces or movements, when disturbed from its initial position, that will help it go back to this position, it will return to this position by following a series of oscillations that will gradually smooth out.

Question 65

The maximum range of an aircraft is obtained:

Answer 65

At the higher altitudes to obtain the best ratio lift/drag. At the speed that achieves the minimum drag. At the speed that offers the best ratio lift/drag.

Question 66

The _____ is defined as the turning moment of two forces around a common axis.

Answer 66

Couple. Explanation The word "couple" is used to describe two parallel forces equal and opposite that do not pass through the same point. For example, the thrust and the drag are a couple. A couple causes a turning moment around a given axis.

Question 67

What is the cause of ground effect?

Answer 67

The decrease of induced drag during flights near the ground. Explanation Ground effect occurs near the ground, whereas induced drag, resulting from wing lift, is limited, usually, the light aircraft wing span is approximately 35 feet. From takeoff to approximately 4 feet, the induced drag is approximately 48% lower than the induced drag at a cruising altitude. At 18 feet the drag is only reduced by 8%. The ground effect totally disappears and the induced drag is total when the aircraft reaches an altitude equal to the wing span. tow-wing aircraft, whose wings are closer to the ground than high-wing aircraft will be more affected by ground effect.

Question 68

Whac creates wake turbulence behind aircraft?

Answer 68

Air rising to the upper surface of the wing by the wing tips. Explanation The wake turbulence is an aerodynamic turbulence created behind che aircraft, it consists of two phenomena: the jet blast and the wing tip vortices, jet blast is caused by gases expelled by the jet engine, it is very violent, but does not last. Conversely, the wing tip vortex, which corresponds to turbulence on the wing tip and on their upper surface, is less violent but could last up to 3 minutes after the aeroplane passage. This is therefore a bigger danger in aviation. Wing tip vortices are the vortices created at the edge of a wing or a blade creating lift, it is explained by the difference of pressure between the wings lower and upper surf Viewed from the rear, the left wing of the aircraft produces a wing tip vortex that moves clockwise, and the right wing produces a wing tip vortex that moves counterclockwise.

Question 69

Whac is the function of a pitch trim compensator installed on some aircraft?

Answer 69

Reduce the aircraft speed to avoid Mach tuck. Explanation On some aircraft, a pitch trim compensator is installed to compensate Mach tuck by applying nose up pitch as the speed increases.

Question 70

According to the information below, determine the Mach number: - TAS: 500 knots - Local speed of sound: 575

Answer 70

0.87 Explanation To determine the Mach number, use the following formula: M = TAS / LSS Here: M = 500 / 575 = 0.87

Question 71

The high-speed Mach buffet of a turbojet aeroplane depends on:

Answer 71

The aeroplane weight The angle of bank The altitude of the flight The gust load

Question 72

which of the following is associated with a swept wing?

Answer 72

Directional stability improved Better characteristics at high speeds offers a greater Mcrit Creates more drag Explanation The advantages of sweepback wings are not only lateral and directional stability: they also delay the formation of shock wave at high speed by presenting a longer chord to the airflow than a conventional wing. The critical Mach number will be higher. The disadvantages of a sweepback wing are: - Less lift than a straight wing, causing an increase of takeoff and landing speeds. This disadvantage may be reduced with leading and trailing edge flaps. - Greater likelihood of Dutch roll (combined movement of roll and yaw) when the air density is lew (as at higher altitude). This phenomenon is controlled by a yaw damper system. On a sweepback wing, the first part on which the shock wave associated with high-speed flights will appear is the part near the wing root. The centre of pressure will then move rearward, causing the aeroplane nose to pitch down.

Question 73

Histotoxic hypoxia occurs when:

Answer 73

The cells in the organs are unable to absorb oxygen properly. Explanation aim. air 3.2.1: Histotoxic hypoxia refers to an inability of the cells of the body to use the oxygen available.

Question 74

What is the phenomenon a pilot may experience if he/she flies an aircraft after a scuba dive?

Answer 74

The bends.

Question 75

Inside the ear. what changes the vibrations of the original sound waves into motion before being transformed to electrical impulses by the nerves?

Answer 75

The ossicles.

Question 76

a pilot is used to landing on a runway with a 50-foot width, if this same pilot is preparing to land on a runway with a width of 150 feet, he/she will feel ____ causing him/her to make a _____ landing.

Answer 76

Too low; too long. Explanation When making an approach on a runway wider than usual, you will feel the effect of a visual illusion: as if you were making too low of an approach, you will likely decrease your rate of descent, and make too long a landing. The opposite occurs if the runway is narrower chan usual. Therefore, refer co your altimeter when making an approach on a runway narrower or wider than usual.

Question 77

When important decisions must be made, the pilot may use the 'DECIDE acronym. He/she must:

Answer 77

``` D - Detect changes E - Estimate the significance of the changes C - Choose che outcome objective I - identify che accion options D - Do the better action E - Evaluate the progress. ``` Using this process forces you to consider the outcome of che accions taken.

Question 78

The aviation performances of a pilot will be best if his/her stress level is:

Answer 78

Neither too high nor too low.

Question 79

A person who arrives late at work and blames bad luck is a:

Answer 79

Resigned person.

Question 80

Regarding TEM (Threat and Error Management), what is an undesired aircraft state?

Answer 80

An aircraft that is in a situation of unnecessary risk because of the flight crew.