3

Question 1

According co cars, a movement area is:

Answer 1

a part of an aerodrome that is intended to be used for the surface movement of aircraft and includes che manoeuvring area and aprons.

Question 2

To apply for an airline transport pilot license, you shall have a minimum of_____ hours instrument flight time of which a maximum of _____ hours may have been acquired in approved instrument ground trainers.

Answer 2

75; 25.

Question 3

No person shall operate a land aeroplane at more than nm from shore unless a life preserver is carried for each person on board.

Answer 3

50

Question 4

A piloc-in-command may conduce a takeoff in a twin-engine aircraft operated by a private operator when the reported RVR is at least 1,200 feet or the reported ground visibility is at least one quarter of a statute mile if:

1 - The aircraft is operated by at least three flight crew members

2 - The runway is equipped with high-intensity runway lights, or runway centreline lights, which are serviceable and functioning and which are visible to the pilot throughout the takeoff run. or with runway centreline markings that are visible to the pilot throughout the takeoff run

3 - a flight plan filed for the flight specifies a takeoff alternate aerodrome that is within the distance thac can be flown in 120 minutes at normal cruising speed

4 - a flight plan filed for the flight specifies a takeoff alternate aerodrome that is within the distance thac can be flown in 60 minutes at normal cruising speed

5 - Failure warning syscems to immediately detect failures and malfunctions in attitude indicators, directional gyros and horizontal situation indicators are operative

6 - The pilot-m-command and second-in-command attitude indicators provide a clear depiction of total aircraft attitude chat includes the incorporation of pitch attitude index lines in appropriate increments up to 30 degrees above and 30 degrees below the reference line

7 - The pilot-m-command and the second-in-command have received the required training for which the validity period has not expired

Answer 4

2; 4; 5; 7.

Question 5

All the persons on board an aircraft shall have an oxygen supply during the entire period of flight at cabin pressure altitudes above _____ feet asl.

Answer 5

13.000

Question 6

in order to be used for ifr flights, your altimeter must be calibrated every months.

Answer 6

24

Question 7

What are the number of hours of work restrictions for pilots under parts 704 and 705 of the CAR?

Answer 7

A

2200 hours in 365 consecutive days. 192 hours in 28 consecutive days.

Question 8

No person shall operate an aircraft on a single-pilot operation in IMC unless the aircraft is equipped with:

A chart holder that is equipped with a light and that is placed in an easily readable position.

A headset with a boom microphone or equivalent and a transmit button on the concrol column.

An autopilot that is capable of operating che aircraft controls to maintain flight and manoeuvre the aircraft about the lateral and longitudinal axes.

All of the above.

Answer 8

All of the above.

Question 9

How should an aircraft be equipped, if there is only one pilot, to be used in ifr in a commuter operation with fewer than 10 passengers on board?

Answer 9

No commuter operator shall operate an aircraft with fewer than two pilots if the aircraft is carrying passengers and is being operaced in IFR flight.

Question 10

No person shall conduct a takeoff in an aeroplane if the weight of the aeroplane is greater than the weight specified in the aircraft flight manual as allowing a net takeoff flight path that clears all obstacles by at least feet vertically or at least _____ feet horizontally within the aerodrome boundaries, and by at least ____ feet horizontally outside those boundaries.

Answer 10

35; 200: 300.

Car 705.57

Question 11

According co part 705 of the car. one attendant is required on each deck for each unit of passengers on board.

Answer 11

40

Cars 705.201

Question 12

Where the ppc of a commuter operation has expired from between 6 and 24 months, the pilot must complete _____ in order to regain it.

Three takeoffs and landings.

A technical ground training course consisting of an aeroplane system review.

Any recurrent training. Including a PPC.

All of the above.

Answer 12

All of the above.

Question 13

What should be the transponder code of a VFR flight at 12.500 feet?

Answer 13

1200.

AIM COM 8.4

Question 14

IFR flights in the Northern control Area are permitted from to.

Answer 14

FL230: FL600.

AIM, RAC 2.6
AIM, RAC 2.8.1

Question 15

you are pilot-m-command of a vfr aircraft that has received a SVFR authorization from the control tower to enter the control zone and land at the airport. The tower cleared you for a straight-in approach. Because of poor weather, you are unable to see the obstacles near the runway. Who is responsible for avoiding the obstacles?

Answer 15

YOU.

AIM RAC 2.7.3

Question 16

A pilot has just taken off under ifr flight plan and he/she is climbing to FL270 in the Standard Pressure Region, when should he/she set its altimeter to the standard pressure?

Answer 16

At 18.000 feet.

AIM RAC 2.11

Question 17

According co the wake turbulence category, the letter _____ is used to indicate a light aircraft, i.e.. an aircraft type with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of _____ lbs.

Answer 17

L; 15.500.

AIM RAC 3.15.3.3

Question 18

Which of the following is true regarding an ATC clearance?

a clearance is the same as an authorization, but the clearance is given in the controlled airspace whereas che authorization is given in the uncontrolled airspace.

Only IFR flights shall obcain an ATC clearance before takeoff from any point within controlled airspace or before encering controlled airspace.

A pilot who reads back an ATC clearance shall comply with it.

a clearance must always be read back to the ATC.

Answer 18

A pilot who reads back an ATC clearance shall comply with it.

Question 19

A pilot who reads back an ATC clearance shall comply with it.

Answer 19

310KIAS.

AIM RAC 10.9

Question 20

in the North Atlantic. Reduced vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace is that airspace within the geographic extent of the NAT Region from _____ to ____

Answer 20

FL290: FL410 inclusive.

Question 21

CMNPS airspace is _____ airspace within CDA. between ____ and _____inclusive.

Answer 21

Controlled; FL 330; FL 410.

AIP, ENR 2.2.2

Question 22

Within the nca. flights operating on predominately north or south tracks shall report over reporting line points formed by the intersection of parallels of latitude spaced at intervals expressed in latitude.

Answer 22

5°.

AIM, RAC 11.4.5

Question 23

Within non-radar airspace, when atc temporarily suspends RVSM within selected areas and/or altitudes due to adverse weather conditions, the minimum vertical separation between two aircraft facing in opposite directions will be ____ feet, and the minimum vertical separation between two aircraft facing the same direction will be ____ feet.

Answer 23

2.000; 4.000.

AIM, RAC 11.7.2&3

Question 24

You are in a day vfr cruise flight while a CF-18 cakes a position in front and to the left of you. and rocks its wings. This means:

Answer 24

You have been intercepted.

AIM, SAR 4.7

Question 25

(F0072/19 NOTAMN A) CZVR CZEG CZWG CZYZ CZUL CZQM CZQX B) 1910100901 Q PERM E) PURSUANT TO SECTION 5.1 OF THE AERONAUTICS ACT. THE MINISTER OF TRANSPORT IS OF THE OPINION IT IS NECESSARY FOR THE PROTECTION OF AVIATION SAFETY AND THE PUBLIC TO PROHIBIT THE OPS OF BOEING 737-8 MAX AND 737-9 MAX ACFT IN CANADIAN AIRSPACE. B737-8 MAX OR B737-9 MAX ACFT ARE PROHIBITED FM OPR IN CANADIAN AIRSPACE EXC FOR FERRY FLIGHTS OR ACFT IN FLIGHT FOR THE DURATION OF THAT FLIGHT ENROUTE TO OR FM OR WITHIN CANADA AT THE TIME THIS NOTICE TAKES EFFECT. F) SFC G) UNL)

Answer 25

This notam is the seventy-second issued in 2019 in series F. it starts the October 10.2019. at 0901Z and will end when a NOTAMR or a NOTAMC is issued, it’s a navigation warning beginning on the ground. ``` AIM, MAP 3.2.3.1 AIM, MAP 3.2.3.3 AIM, MAP 3.2.3.4 AIM, MAP 3.2.3.6 AIM, MAP 3.2.3.7 ```

Question 26

Which of the following is true? The category IIIC precision approach is a precision instrument approach with no decision height and no runway visual range limitation. The category IIIa precision approach is a precision instrument approach with no decision height and no runway visual range limitation. The category IIIB precision approach is a precision instrument approach with no decision height and no runway visual range limitation. The category I precision approach is a precision instrument approach with no decision height and no runway visual range limitation.

Answer 26

The category IIIC precision approach is a precision instrument approach with no decision height and no runway visual range limitation. TP 1490E

Question 27

According to cars, a life-limited part is:

Answer 27

A part that may not exceed a specified time, or number of operating cycles, in service. CAR 101.01

Question 28

What is the purpose of vortex generators located on the leading edges of some wings?

Answer 28

Regenerate the boundary layer of the wing when approaching the stall. Explanation vortex generators are small plates of about 2.5 cm standing in a line, with a certain angle of attack, on the wings leading edge. They generate vortices that delay or prevent the breakaway of the boundary layer by re-creating it.

Question 29

Dynamic balance of the controls is achieved by placing a portion of the control surface in front of the hinge axis, and serves to:

Answer 29

Assist the pilot in handling controls. Explanation When an aircraft is designed, controls can be dynamically balanced by placing some of them in front of the hinge. The control movement is helped by the air striking che forward portion of the hinge, which assists the pilot in handling the controls.

Question 30

in a fixed shaft turboprop engine, the compressor is driven by:

Answer 30

The turbine. Explanation in a free turbine turboprop engine, the air coming in through the air intake is compressed by an axial compressor before entering the combustion chamber. The hoc gases coming out drive the compressor turbine. They drive the separate power turbine which drives the propeller shaft. The propeller speed is reduced at a fraction of the speed ac which the turbine drives the shaft by means of che gearbox. in the fixed shaft turboprop, the compressor and che shaft are both driven by the turbine. The propeller then rotates at the same speed as the main engine shaft. This engine makes more noise on the ground and is more demanding on the starter rotor than free turbine turboprop engines.

Question 31

While caxiing a turboprop engine, when the power lever is between the Beta mode and the reverse mode:

Answer 31

The propeller pitch is under direct control of the power lever.

Question 32

Generally, on a gas turbine engine, the starter starts to:

Answer 32

Turn the high-pressure spool. Explanation A gas turbine engine can be started with compressed air (provided by an apu or a ground pneumatic unit) or with electricity (provided by an electrical starter). Here is how this kind of turbine starts: 1 - The starter system starts turning the high-pressure spool (high-pressure turbine and compressor), which sucks and compresses the ambient air to send it to one or more combustion chambers. Simultaneously, ignition is armed and che fuel boost pump is activated. 2- When the engine rotates at about 8% to 10% of its maximum RPM. the pump driven by the accessory gearbox injects fuel (kerosene) and the ignition comes on. 3 - Between about 15% and 20% N2 the mixture ingites in che combustion chambers), allowing che turbine to accelerace under the effect of the gases expended by combustion in addition to the effect of che scarcer. 4 - Gases go through one or more of the turbines, driving che compressor and the necessary accessories used for the engine operation thanks to a rotating shaft (fuel pump, alternator, etc.), ensuring the continuity of movement. The gases chen escape through a convergent section nozzle to accelerate them at the exit. 5 - At about 38% n2 thejec engine is able to sustain its rotations by itself. However, the starter continues helping gases to accelerate the turbine. 6 - At about 40% nz the scarcer is disengaged and the ignition is turned off. The engine can now work by itself and keep accelerating to idle at about 58% N2

Question 33

in a turbine engine, the surge bleed valve is located at the:

Answer 33

Compressor. Explanation a surge bleed valve is a device used in compressors to prevent them from stalling. They are located at critical points of the compressor and open under the control of the Fuel Control unit (FCU).

Question 34

On a propeller, factor P is greatest when the aeroplane angle of attack is _____ and the engine power is ____

Answer 34

High; high. Explanation Asymmetric thrust (or P-factor) is one cause of yaw to the left in an aeroplane whose propeller rotates clockwise when seen from the cockpit (i.e.. most light aeroplanes). The reason for this is that when the aeroplane angle of attack is large and the engine power is high, the propellers descending blade meets the air with a larger angle of attack than the ascending blade. The propeller creates more lift on the right side than on the left side and pushes away more air. causing the left yaw.

Question 35

On most modern transport aircraft, a total hydraulic system loss will affect the: 1 - Flight instruments. 2- Landing gear. 3 - Flaps. 2- Engines. 5- Communication systems. 6- Flight controls.

Answer 35

2, 3 and 6. Explanation Hydraulic energy assists che pilot when he/she uses the ancillary controls like flaps, brakes or landing gear, in heavy aircraft, hydraulic energy is also used when the pilot acts on the primary concrols. The main components of the hydraulic system are. among others, the reservoir, the accumulator, the hydraulic lines, the hydraulic pump (driven by the engine [EDP]. by air pressure or electrically), the one-way valves and che actuators. Generally, in heavy aircraft, hydraulic energy is obtained with two main hydraulic circuits (each linked to a jet engine) and one alternate circuit that contains fluid, all connected to each other.

Question 36

Which of the following is true regarding the cabin air pressure safety valve of a pressurized aeroplane?

Answer 36

it allows the crew to dump cabin air manually into the atmosphere.

Question 37

A single-axis autopilot controls:

Answer 37

Roll. On light aircraft, autopilots have three levels of control: - roll only: single-axis autopilot - roll and pitch: two-axis autopilot: they can receive radionavigation information to provide automatic flight guidance once the aircraft has taken off until the moment just before landing - roll, pitch and yaw: three-axis autopilot An autopilot controlling landing and rollout is known as a CAT IIIb landing or Autoland, it is often available at major airports. An autopilot that also controls taxi to parking position is known as CAT IIIc in modern transport aircraft, the autopilot is a three-axis system, it is often divided into taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing phases. Autopilots allow time and fuel to be saved, decrease pilot workload and increase passenger comfort. However, they are often unable to correctly react to dangerous situations and to turbulent flight conditions.

Question 38

what is TAWs?

Answer 38

A system that combines the GPWS and the EGPWS. A device chat combines all the systems that aim to prevent CFIT. An onboard syscem that combines the position and speed of the aeroplane with a digital terrain model to predict its potential trajectories with the ground. All of the above.

Question 39

During a descent, your airspeed indicator shows a speed decrease even though you keep a constant pitch attitude. Lowering the nose further causes the speed to decrease even more. This most likely indicates that:

Answer 39

The pitot tube is blocked. Explanation if the pitot pressure source of the pitot static pressure system is totally blocked, the airspeed indicator will indicate like an altimeter, if the pressure source is partially blocked or if there is an air leak in the system, the airspeed indicator needle will indicate 0.

Question 40

According to the altimeter error caused by non-standard temperatures, the highest indicated altitude will be in very ____ and _____ air.

Answer 40

Cold; dry. Explanation When an aircraft is in an air column where temperature is colder than standard atmosphere temperature, the true altitude above mean sea level is lower than the altitude indicated by the altimeter (the altimeter overestimates the altitude). The effect will be greater in dry air. The opposite occurs if the air column temperature is higher (the altimeter underestimates the altitude).

Question 41

Before taxiing for an IFR flight at St-Hubert Airport (elevation of 90 feet), you set your altimeter to the altimeter setting given by the atis. which is 29.99 "Hg. you notice that your altimeter is indicating 170 feet. What should you do?

Answer 41

You should not proceed with the ifr flight because of the error of the altimeter that is more than 50 feet. AIM, AIR 1.5.1

Question 42

The flight director on some aircraft:

Answer 42

is used to follow a vor radial or an ils flight slope. Can be interconnected with the aircraft autopilot system. Shows the pilot the best way to keep a given trajectory.

Question 43

The FMS allows pilots to:

Answer 43

1 - Consult all the information necessary to plan a flight 2- File a flight plan 3 - Consult filghc information as trajectory or fuel and time estimations 4 - Follow a given guidance 5 - Know its positions via VOR or GPS

Question 44

On a magnetic compass, an acceleration error happens on ______ headings and a turning error happens on _______ headings.

Answer 44

East-west; north-south. Explanation The magnecic compass is subject to acceleration and deceleration error when it follows an east or west heading. Mnemonic: ANDS: Acceleration North; Deceleration south. The magnecic compass is subject to a northerly turning error when it follows a north or south heading. During a turn originating from the north, the compass will lag. Dunng a turn originating from the south, the compass will lead.

Question 45

his charts (enroute high altitude charts) are based on:

Answer 45

Lambert conformal conic projections. Explanation VNCs (VFR aeronautical navigation charts), his (enroute high altitude charts) and LOs (enroute low altitude charts) are Lambert conformal conic projections. On this type of chart if you want to precisely follow a track or a straight line, you must correct your heading by 2° (add two for an eastbound flight, and subtract two for a westbound flight) for each 3° of longitude, if your flight is less than 200 miles, you can determine the average of the heading changes by measuring your track in relation to the meridian that is the nearest of the middle of the track.

Question 46

What will the local time be at 14002 ac 60°W longitude?

Answer 46

1000 local. Explanation The earch is divided into 24 time zones of 15º longitude. These zones are numbered from 1 to 12 around the prime meridian. The change of day occurs on the 180th meridian. An hour is therefore equal to 15º of longitude.

Question 47

with the following information, determine the EAS and the TAS: Pressure altitude: FL350 indicated airspeed: 315 kts Position and instrument error correction: -5 kts Compressibility error: -6 kts indicated oat (TAT): -5eC Ram air rise error: 43=C

Answer 47

EAS = 314 kts. TAS = 575 kts.

Question 48

Refer to image 1 in the Appendix. using this image, in which position would the aircraft be located?

Answer 48

5 or 7.

Question 49

Refer to image 2 in the Appendix. Given the following information, the correct indicated altitude for the initial approach fix is feet. feet for the final approach fix and feet for the mda. - Airport elevation: 2.280 feet • Airport temperature: -30°C - iaf altitude: 4.400 feet - faf altitude: 3.800 feet ■ MDA: 2.700 feet

Answer 49

4.900:4.100; 2.800.

Question 50

What is the vb?

Answer 50

The speed for maximum gust intensity. | AIM, GEN: 1.7

Question 51

Consider a turbojet aeroplane used by an air operator which takes off from a runway having a TORA of 8.000 feet, a stopway of 1,000 feet, and a clearway of 2.000 feet (including the stopway distance of 1.000 feet). This aeroplane should be able to accelerate to its V1 then, after critical engine failure, continue to a height of 35 feet in a total distance of:

Answer 51

10.000 feet.

Question 52

Consider an aircraft with tire pressures of 130 psi in the main gear and 35 psi in the nose wheel, which of the following is true? The tires will begin to hydroplane only if there is snow on the runway. The nose wheel will hydroplane at a lower speed than the main wheel. The main wheel will hydroplane at a lower speed than the nose wheel. Both main and nose wheel will begin to hydroplane at the same speed.

Answer 52

The nose wheel will hydroplane at a lower speed than the main wheel. AIM, AIR 1.6.6

Question 53

The centre of gravity of an aircraft of 15.000 pounds is located 1.8 inches aft of the aft limit. You decide to move some baggage by 130 inches forward, what is the weight that you should move in order to take off safely?

Answer 53

20S pounds. Wtien exceeding che aircraft balance limits, use the following formula to come back within the limits: Weight to Move / Aircraft Weight = Distance C.G. has to Move / Distance Between Arms in this case, the unknown is the weight to move. So: Weighc to Move = (Aircraft Weight x Distance C.G. has to Move) / Distance Between Arms weighc to Move = (15.000 x 1.8) /130 = 207.69 pounds

Question 54

Refer to images 3 and 4 in the Appendix. According to the conditions below, determine the maximum takeoff weight: - Temperature at the airport: 505F - Elevation of the airport: 2.290 feet - Altimeter setting: 28.12 inches of mercury - Available runway length: 6.200 feet - wind from the control tower: 150/15 knots - Runway in use: 15 - Runway gradient: 0% downhill - Anti-skid system: OFF

Answer 54

16.300 pounds.

Question 55

Regarding a two-engine aeroplane used in an airline transport service, during the takeoff segment with the landing gear fully retracted, the steady gradient of climb shall not be less than:

Answer 55

2.4%. CAR 525.121

Question 56

Regarding the information below, determine the flight level at which the aircraft will have most fuel efficiency in cruise. AtFL310: - TAS = 400 ktS - Fuel Flow = 530 lbs/h - Headwind = 30 kts At FL330: - TAS = 450 kts - Fuel Flow = 500 lbs/h - Tailwind = 75 kts TO climb to FL310: - Fuel burned: 240 lbs - Distance flown: 33 NM To descend from FL310 to the ground: - Fuel burned: 120 lbs - Distance flown: 30 NM TO climb to FL330: - Fuel burned: 360 lbs - Distance flown: 76 NM To descend from FL330 to the ground: - Fuel burned: 150 lbs - Distance flown: 60 NM

Answer 56

FL330

Question 57

Refer to image 5 in the Appendix. According to the following information, determine the required fuel and the trip time: - Trip distance: 3.000 NM - Flight altitude: 27.000 feet asl - Tailwind: 50 kts - Temperature: 10=C below standard - Landing weight: 500.000 lbs - indicated Mach: .82

Answer 57

124.000 pounds; 6 hours 18 minutes.

Question 58

Refer to the image 6 in the Appendix. Regarding the information below, determine the low and high speed buffeting of the aircraft: - Gross weight: 90.000 pounds - Buffet onset: 20° angle of bank - Pressure altitude: 30,000 feet

Answer 58

0.48; 0.84.

Question 59

Question 59 Refer to image 3 in the Appendix. According to the following CRFI. determine the maximum crosswind component for a safe landing on runway 07: CYOWCRFl RWY 07/25 - 2C .35 1201191200

Answer 59

13 kts. AIM, AIR 1.6.7

Question 60

The critical surfaces that must absolutely be clean of any trace of frost or ice before takeoff are: ``` 1- Rotors. 2- Airframe. 3- Controls. 4- Wings. 5- Antennas. 6- Propellers. 7- Landing gears. 8- Stabilizing surfaces. 9- Windshield. 10- upper surface of the fuselage in the case of an aircraft with rear-mounted engines. ```

Answer 60

1,3,4,6,10

Question 61

whatis/are the risks of a cold-soaked aeroplane? Engine damages during rotation or in flight. ice on wings even if che ambient temperature is above 0ºC. After a flight of 2 hours, a temperature drop of 18'C can occur on the surface wings because of the fuel. All of the above.

Answer 61

All of the above AIM, AIR 2.12.2

Question 62

Refer to images 7 to 9 in the Appendix. According to the conditions below, determine the total landing distance: ``` - Runway: wet (reported braking action: good to medium) • Brake use: autobrake max - Landing gross weight: 65.000 Kg - Airport elevation: 3.500 ft - Head/tail winds: 10 knots headwind - Runway gradient: -1% - OAT: ISA - 10CC - Approach speed: Vref30 - Reverse thrust: use of both - Flaps: 30 - Speedbrakes: auto ```

Answer 62

7060 feet

Question 63

Which response is most correct with respect to wake turbulence? Wake turbulence exists behind all aeroplanes and helicopters in flight. Wing tip vortices are carried by the ambient wind. Wing tip vortices have a circular and downward motion. All of the above.

Answer 63

All of the above.

Question 64

Whac is the recommended spacing for a light aircraft behind a medium aircraft at takeoff to avoid the risks associated with wake turbulence?

Answer 64

Four miles. AIM, RAC 4.1.1

Question 65

An aircraft’s nose that tends to go back to its original position after having pressed the elevator control forward and released it is demonstrating:

Answer 65

Posicrve static stability. Explanation An aeroplane having a static stability is an aeroplane that after being disturbed, has an initial tendency to return to its original position. An aeroplane having a positive stability is an aeroplane that after being disturbed, will create forces or moments enabling it to return to its original position.

Question 66

What will be the effect of a forward CG locacion on an aircraft? The aircraft will require a longer takeoff run. The aircraft will have a better stability in pitch. The aircraft will consume more fuel. All of the above.

Answer 66

All of the above.

Question 67

The most severe trailing vortices created by an aeroplane will be:

Answer 67

in that airspace immediately following the point of rotation. AIM, AIR 2.9 AIM, AIR 2.9.1

Question 68

At sea-level pressure in standard atmosphere, the speed of sound is:

Answer 68

662 kts. Explanation The speed of sound in the air depends mainly on the ambient temperature. You can calculate it using the following simplified formula, in which you can see chat only the temperature is considered: LSS = 39 x % T (in kelvins) For the conversion between kelvin and Celsius temperatures, you can use the following formula: Tk = Tc-273.15

Question 69

when a shock wave forms on a wing, the ____ moves _____. causing a pitch_____ attitude.

Answer 69

Centre of pressure; rearward; down. Explanation Mach tuck is an aerodynamic effect where the aircraft nose tends to pitch downward as the airflow around the wing reaches supersonic speeds. The aircraft will first experience this effect below Mach 1; it then gradually increases as the speed is increasing above the critical Mach number (Merit), and becomes dangerous if che aircraft speed exceeds the maximum operating Mach number (Mmo). Mach tuck is caused by a backward movement of the centre of pressure in transonic flight, when an airfoil passes through the air. the airflow over the upper surface accelerates to a higher local speed, when the aircraft speed reaches its critical Mach number, the accelerated airflow locally reaches the speed of sound and creates a small shock wave (even though the aircraft as a whole is still below the speed of sound). The region in front of the shock wave generates high lift. When the aircraft accelerates, the shock wave on the upper surface of the wing increases and moves backward, creating high lift further back along che wing. This backward movement of lift results in the aircraft tail rising and the nose pitching down or "tucking." The camber and thickness of the aerofoil will affect the critical Mach number: a highly curved upper surface will have a lower value. On sweepback wings, the shock wave is first being created at the wing root: as speed increases, the shock wave and associated lift extend outward and backward. The airflow perturbed by the shock wave will cause a decrease of che horizontal stabilizer efficiency located just behind. An issue with a separate horizontal stabilizer is that it can achieve local supersonic flow with its own shock wave. On some aircraft, a pitch trim compensator is installed to compensate Mach tuck by applying nose up pitch as the speed increases.

Question 70

On an aeroplane in flight, what is the cause of high-speed buffets?

Answer 70

turbulence created by the shock wave when the wing reaches its Mcrit.

Question 71

When the airflow around the wing becomes sonic, shock waves are formed on the wings, the drag and vibrations increase, and the lift and position of the centre of pressure varies, causing variations in pitch. This makes the aircraft unstable and difficult to control. These phenomena begin when the speed of the aircraft exceeds:

Answer 71

The critical mach index. Explanation Mach number (Ma) is a number without dimensions that expresses the ratio between the local velocity of a fluid and the speed of sound in the same fluid, when the airflow around a wing becomes sonic, it's called critical Mach number. At this speed, shock waves are created on the wings. The air compressibility effects become apparent an increase of drag, buffeting, lift and variation of the centre of pressure position responsible for the pitch movements. The shock wave disturbs the laminar airflow on the upper surface of the wing, which causes a diminution of the downwash reduction. The higher the Mach number, the more unstable the aeroplane.

Question 72

Whac is the most important purpose of wing ground spoilers?

Answer 72

Decrease the lift of the wing.

Question 73

During a rapid ascent, the rapid lowering of the external barometric pressure allows the nitrogen gas to form small bubbles in and around blood vessels, joints and muscles, causing strong pain and cramps called the:

Answer 73

Bends. AIM, AIR 3.3

Question 74

When flying IMC. what type of illusion will you experience when accelerating during an overshoot?

Answer 74

A climb, causing you to lower the aeroplane's nose.

Question 75

how will rain hitting the windshield affect your view of objects?

Answer 75

They seem lower than they really are. AIM, AIR 2.5

Question 76

which of the following is FALSE regarding noise and vibrations in the cockpit? Noise can cause permanent hearing damage. Exposure to vibration can cause fatigue, stress, headaches and muscular discomfort Noise can cause fatigue and stress. None of the above.

Answer 76

None of the above. TP 12863E Chapter 5

Question 77

Complete the following checklist: I: M: S: A: F: E:

Answer 77

I: Illness M: Medication S: Stress A: Alcohol F: Fatigue E: Eating

Question 78

What type of stress causes a strong and immediate physiological response, which is exciting in small doses, but exhausting when overdone?

Answer 78

Acute stress.

Question 79

Which of the following is FALSE regarding SOPs? SOPs must be entirely edited and approved by the Minister of Transport before being used. SOPs enable pilots to fly different aircraft from the same fleet by similar procedures. sops are written instructions that aviation personnel are meant to follow in ensuring the safe operation of all flights. SOPs provide consistency across an organization.

Answer 79

SOPs must be entirely edited and approved by the Minister of Transport before being used. TP 12864E Chapter 2

Question 80

which of the following resources are taken into account in the CRM? a- The aircraft and its systems b - Computer software c - Printed materials d - The cockpit crew e • Anyone who may interact with the cockpit crew f - The navigation and the departure and arrival airports g • The weather in flight

Answer 80

a. b. c. d. e. TP 12864E Chapter 5