6

Question 1

Consider an airport inside a Class C control zone. At night, when the control tower is not operating, this airport _____ and the airspace ____

Answer 1

Becomes an uncontrolled airport becomes a Class E airspace.

AIM, RAC 2.8.3
AIM RAC 2.8.5
RAC 101.01

Question 2

Low-level air ROUTES are contained within Cass_____ airspace and extend vertically from_____ to _____.

Answer 2

G; the surface; 18.000 feet excluded.

AIM, RAC 2.8.7

Question 3

What is the minimum altitude you must fly at and the minimum distance you must maintain from a forest fire?

Answer 3

3.000 fee: agl at more chan 5 nautical miles from the fire.

AIM, RAC 2.9.2

Question 4

You are flying in the Standard Pressure Region at FL320. On the approach plate of your arrival aerodrome (this aerodrome is also in the Standard Pressure Region), it is indicated that you must perform a holding pattern at the lAF at 10,000 feet, you should set your altimeter on the current aerodrome altimeter setting:

Answer 4

just prior to beginning descent under 10.000 feet.

AIM, RAC 2.11

Question 5

The pilot of an aircraft under ifr flight plan shall advise atc. when in controlled airspace, of a modification of the true airspeed at the cruising altitude or cruising level where the change intended is_____ or more of the TAS specified in the flight plan, or the Mach number, where the change intended is ______ or more of the Mach number that has been included in the ATC clearance.

Answer 5

5%, 0.01

aim, rac 3.6.2

Question 6

What is the TIME tolerance when entering the adiz?

Answer 6

+/- 5 minutes.

AIM RAC 3.8

Question 7

Where can the dimensions and boundaries of the adiz be found?

Answer 7

in the Designated Airspace Handbook.

AIM RAC 3.8

Question 8

In a NON-RADAR departure, what will be the separation interval provided by ATC between a light aircraft following a medium aircraft?

Answer 8

No separation interval, but will issue wake turbulence advisories to light aircraft.

AIM, RAC 4.1.1

Question 9

in flight, you are approaching an airport where an MF is in use. You should establish radio contact:

Answer 9

At least five minutes before entering the area.

AIM, RAC 4.5.7

Question 10

When performing a hold BELOW 14.000 feet with no wind, inbound legs should be _____ long, standard turns should be to the ____ at _____ or an average bank angle of at least _____. whichever requires the lesser bank.

Answer 10

1 minute; right, rate 1; 25º
AIM, RAC 10.6
AIM, RAC 10.3
AIM, RAC 10.2

Question 11

To climb from 7.000 feet asl to 9.000 feet asl. what would be the speed limitation for a turbojet aeroplane in a holding pattern where no shuttle procedure is specified?

Answer 11

230

AIM, RAC 10.7

Question 12

Below 6.000 feet asl. the maximum speed in a holding pattern for a civil turboprop aircraft is _____ kias.

Answer 12

200

AIM, RAC 10.7

Question 13

RVSM airspace is all airspace within cda from ____ to ____ inclusive.

Answer 13

FL290; FL410.

AIM, RAC 11.7.2

Question 14

The lower limit of the Southern Control Area is _____ of the Northern Control Area is ____ and of the Arctic Control Area is _____

Answer 14

18000ft, FL230, FL270

AIM, GEN 5.1

Question 15

A movement area includes:

Answer 15

The manoeuvring area and aprons.

CAR 101.01

Question 16

An air operator principal may be:

Answer 16

• Accountable executive
• Full or part time operations manager
• Chief Pilot
• Person responsible for maintenance control system or equivalent
• Owner

The accountable executive appointed by the air operator under section 105.02 of the car.

Any person who is employed or contracted by the air operator on a full- or part-time basis as the operations manager, the chief pilot or the person responsible for the maintenance control system, or any person who occupies an equivalent position.

Any person who exercises control over the air operator as an owner.

CAR103.2

Question 17

To act as pilot-in-command of an aeroplane for which the minimum flight crew document specifies a minimum flight crew of two pilots, you must have:

Answer 17

A valid ATPL

CAR 401.30
CAR401.32

Question 18

Which of the following airspaces is a restricted area?

Answer 18

Class F airspace

CAR 601.02

Question 19

Where can you find the procedures regarding class F airspace?

Answer 19

in the Designated Airspace Handbook.

CAR 601.04

Question 20

To fly inside the Class C Control Zone of an international airport during a vfr flight, you need:

Answer 20

The Alls, a clearance from atc a two-way vhf radio, a mode C transponder.

CAR 601.08

Question 21

What restriction applies to a pilot who finds out he/she has a physical impediment preventing him/her from meeting the medical requirements of a pilot license?

Answer 21

No one shall fly with a physical ineptitude that could cause a problem dunng the flight.

CAR 602.02

Question 22

Aircraft operating limitations are described in:

Answer 22

The Aircraft Flight Manual.

CAR 602.07

Question 23

As portable electronic devices may cause interference with communication or navigation systems, they should not be used in flight:

Answer 23

in Canada.

CAR 602.08

Question 24

Who is authorized to declare an aircraft as ready to take off or not. in the event of possible icing?

Answer 24

The pic ora crew member designated by the pic.

a person designated by the aircraft operator.

Someone who took a course about surface contamination.

CAR 602.11(5)

Question 25

how are cruising altitudes determined?

Answer 25

By magnetic tracks in the Southern Domestic Airspace and true tracks in the Northern Domestic Airspace. CAR 602.34

Question 26

A person may operate over water a transport category aeroplane at up to _____ NM. or the distance that can be covered in _____ minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site without life rafts being carried on board.

Answer 26

400, 120 CAR 602.63

Question 27

You are flying at FL390 in an aeroplane pressurized at cabin pressure altitude of 8.000 feet. You are planning to land at an airport that has an elevation of 2.569 feet. During the descent, you will have a groundspeed of 380 knots and a rate of descent of 2.510 feet per minute. You should start your descent at _____NM from the destination airport, and the rate of descent required for your cabin to arrive on the ground with a zero differential pressure will be feet per_____minute.

Answer 27

92; 375

Question 28

Which of the following is true regarding the anti-skid system on most transport aeroplanes?

Answer 28

Each wheel having brakes is equipped with speed sensors that detect rapid decelerations of the wheel. Explanation The anti-skid system found in some aeroplane braking systems prevents the wheels from stopping during a brake that's too hard or on a wet or frozen surface. On a braking system equipped with an anti-skid system, each wheel (having its own brake) has speed sensors that detect rapid decelerations of the wheel. When the wheel speed i This system allows a reducaon of braking distance and are wear and helps avoid the loss of control caused by a wheel locking up. and therefore the ability to taxi more safely.

Question 29

Which of the following is true regarding the CAT IIIb autopilot?

Answer 29

a device must be at the airport to use this autopilot. On light aircraft, autopilots have three levels of control: - roll only: single-axis autopilot - roll and pitch: two-axis autopilot: they can receive radionavigation information to provide automatic flight guidance once the aircraft has taken off until the moment just before landing - roll, pitch and yaw: three-axis autopilot An autopilot controlling landing and rollout is known as a CAT IIIb landing or Autoland, it is often available at major airports. An autopilot that also controls taxi to parking position is known as CAT IIIc in modern transport aircraft, the autopilot is a three-axis system. It is often divided into taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing phases Autopilots allow time and fuel to be saved, decrease pilot workload and increase passenger comfort. However, they are often unable to correctly react to dangerous situations and to turbulent flight conditions.

Question 30

An overheating warning system that lights up in the cockpit could indicate:

Answer 30

A battery overload CAR 525.1353

Question 31

On a light aeroplane, how is the stall warning device activated?

Answer 31

With a slot on the leading edge, sensitive to variations in the flow of air when approaching a stall.

Question 32

No operator shall operate an IFR turbine-powered aeroplane unless it has a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of six or more, unless the aeroplane is equipped with an operative TAWS that:

Answer 32

Meets the requirements for class A or class B equipment. Has a terrain and airport database compatible with the area of operation. Meets, effective on the day that is five years after the day on which this section comes into force, the altitude accuracy requirements set out in section 551.102 of Chapter 551 of the Airworthiness Manual. CAR 605.42

Question 33

The acronym CFiT is used to designate:

Answer 33

A crash of an aeroplane without loss of control of the pilots.

Question 34

At minimum, what alerts are given by a Class B taws?

Answer 34

1 - Reduced required terrain clearance 2 - imminent terrain impact 3 - Premature descent 5 - Excessive rates of descent 6 - Negative climb rate or altitude loss after takeoff 7 - Descent to 500 feet above the terrain or nearest runway elevation during a non-precision approach

Question 35

When is it possible for a pilot to deviate from an atc instruction?

Answer 35

in response to ACAS. TCAS. GPWS or WS alert. AIM, RAC 6.1

Question 36

a weather radar is a device which:

Answer 36

Measures rain density.

Question 37

Which of the following statements is true about lightning detection equipment?

Answer 37

it is unable to detect rain. it is able to display most electrical activities in a storm or line of storms. it is able to display cells behind thunderstorms or mountains.

Question 38

______ are airfoils that open automatically, at high angles of attack, on the leading edge, allowing a uniform airflow over the profiles, thus flattening the vortices which forms on the wing's upper surface.

Answer 38

Leading edge slats

Question 39

When taxiing, you can check that certain instruments are working properly, if the magnetic compass is serviceable, it should _____

Answer 39

Move freely to indicate the known directions during a turn.

Question 40

The magnetic compass will show the biggest northerly turning error in which of these situations?

Answer 40

Starting a turn on a heading 350°M and ending on a heading 020ºM. Explanation The magnetic compass is subject to a northerly turning error when following a northerly heading. When turning from north, the compass first indicates a turn in the opposite direction before correcting with a certain lag.

Question 41

The gyro of a gyromagnetic remote indicating compass is corrected by:

Answer 41

The torque motor.

Question 42

During a descent, ice blocks the static port of your aircraft. Therefore, your vertical speed indicator will ______ your altimeter will ____ and your airspeed indicator will _____

Answer 42

Show 0; show the altitude at which the blockage occurred; overestimate.

Question 43

When at sea level in ISA conditions, TAS equals IAS if there are no instrument errors, when climbing above 20.000 feet of pressure altitude and maintaining a constant ias. tas will, on average:

Answer 43

increase by 2% for every 1.000 feet.

Question 44

what will be the true altitude under the following conditions: - Pressure altitude: 15.000 feet • indicated altitude: 18.000 feet - Outside air temperature: -30°C - Station elevation (providing the altimeter setting): 3.000 feet

Answer 44

17000ft

Question 45

Refer to images 1 and 2 in the Appendix. in flight, you decide to check your position using the Slmcoe VOR/DME on your NAV1 and the Mans VOR/DME on your NAV2. You centre the needle on your NAV1 and read 263° on the OBS with a FROM indication. You centre the needle on your NAV2 and read 280° on the OBS with a TO information. What is your position?

Answer 45

Over Bradford Airport

Question 46

Refer to images 1 and 2 in the Appendix. in flight, you decide to check your position using the Slmcoe VOR/DME on your NAV1 and the Mans VOR/DME on your NAV2. You centre the needle on your NAV1 and read 073° on the OBS with a TO indication. The DME of your NAV2 indicates 14nm. what is your position?

Answer 46

Over Mono Mills City.

Question 47

Refer to images 1 and 2 in the Appendix. in flight, you decide to check your position along your track using the Slmcoe VOR/DME on your NAVI and the Wans VOR/DME on your NAV2. The DME of your NAV1 indicates 32 NM. The DME of your NAV2 indicates 13 NM. What is your position?

Answer 47

Over Alliston City.

Question 48

When flying a lnav approach, the minimum altitude to which you can descend in order to acquire the required visual reference is called:

Answer 48

MDA AIM, COM 5.4.2.1

Question 49

Refer to image 3 in the Appendix. According to the conditions below, determine the fuel flow of the aircraft when flying for maximum range: Altitude: 20.000 feet Conditions: ISA + 10ºC Gross weight: 9.000 lbs Propeller speed: 1.900 RPM

Answer 49

355 pounds per hour Explanation To answer this question, first determine che true airspeed to fly for best range. Find the highest point of the curve standing for the altitude (20.000 feet). From this pome draw a straight vertical line to the inferior index, you obtain the true airspeed for best range (188 kts). noy/. from the previous point, draw a straight horizontal line to the left index. The specific air range reads (0.53 NAM/lb). Finally, divide the true airspeed by the specific air range. Here, you have: 188 / 0.53 = 354.72 Ibs/h.

Question 50

Refer to image 4 in the Appendix. According to the information below, determine the time enroute and the landing weight: - Cruising altitude: 35.000 feet - Temperature: isa - 10CC - Headwind: 100 kts • Takeoff weight: 16.500 lbs - Distance to fly: 1.200 NM

Answer 50

4 hours 19 minutes; 120O0 pounds.

Question 51

which of the following is TRUE regarding 1.000 feet-on-Top ifr flights?

Answer 51

AIM. RAC 8.7: A1 OOO-ft-on-top IFR flight may be conducted provided chat: - the flight is made at least 1 OOO ft above all cloud, haze, smoke, or other formation; - the flight visibility above the formation is at least three miles; - the top of the formation is well defined; - the altitude appropriate to the direction of flight is maintained when cruising in level flight; - the'1 OOO-ft-on-top" flight has been authorized by the appropriate atc unit and - the aircraft will operate within class B airspace at or below 12 500 ft asl Class C D. or E airspace.

Question 52

Refer to image 5 in the Appendix. Assuming the following conditions and using the crosswind component chart and the CRFI. which of the following is true? Montreal atis at 0800Z: • Runway: 24R -wind: 290/20 - Weather: Rainy - Montreal CRFI: CYUL CRFI 24/06 3 .35 1112200800

Answer 52

^ The maximum crosswind recommended for a landing is 13 kts: it is not safe to land under these conditions.

Question 53

The Clean Aircraft Concept of the CAR:

Answer 53

Prohibits takeoff when critical surfaces of the aircraft are contaminated by frost ice or snow. AIM, AIR 2.12.2 (c)

Question 54

a pilot applied a type i and iv de-icing fluid on its aircraft but snow is on the wings, over the fluid. Can he/she take off?

Answer 54

No: he/she should apply additional type I and IV de-icing fluid. Explanation aim. air 2.12.2: (c)

Question 55

Can you take off with an aeroplane that has frost under its wings caused by cold-soaked fuel?

Answer 55

Yes. but only in accordance with the manufacturer's procedures and recommendations. CAR 602.11

Question 56

You are descending from an altitude where the temperature was -20ºC to an altitude where the temperature is 10°C. what could happen on the wings of your aircraft?

Answer 56

The cold-soaking phenomenon. AIM, AIR 2.12.2

Question 57

Accumulation of ice on an aircraft will increase:

Answer 57

The stall speed of the aircraft AIM, AIRR 2.12.2

Question 58

What is the best way to remove dry and powdery snow from an aircraft surface?

Answer 58

Blowing cold air or compressed nitrogen gas across the aircraft surface. AIM, AIR 2.12.2 (d)

Question 59

Hoar frost can cover an aircraft that is parked outside during:

Answer 59

A clear night in winter. Explanation Hoar frost is a solid precipitation that forms in clear air and through different mechanisms on the outer surfaces when air saturation occurs and the surface already has a temperature below 0°C. This is the transfer of a gas directly to a solid (ice crystals) without going through the liquid state: deposition. This phenomenon generally occurs during winter nights when the sky is clear. Surfaces then cool by night radiation to a temperature below the surrounding air temperature. This should not be confused with white dew, which occurs when dew droplets appear on the ground by condensation and freeze afterward.

Question 60

Refer to images 6 to 8 in the Appendix. According to the conditions below, determine the total landing distance: - Runway: Wet (reported braking action: poor) - Brake use: autobrake 3 - Landing gross weight: 50.000 Kg - Airport elevation: 2500 ft - Head/tail winds: 35 kts headwind - Runway gradient: - 2.5% ■ OAT: ISA - 10=C - Approach speed: vrefi 5 - Reverse thrust: use of both - Flaps: 15 - Speedbrakes: auto

Answer 60

5.505 feet.

Question 61

Freezing point depressant fluids are _____ in water and they melt ice _____

Answer 61

Highly soluble: slowly. Explanation Explanation aim. AIR 2.12.2: Although freezing point depressant fluids are highly soluble in water, they absorb or melt ice slowly, if frost, ice or snow is adhering to an aircraft surface, the accumulation can be melted by repeated application of proper quantities of freezing point depressant fluid.

Question 62

The anti-ice fluid should first be applied on:

Answer 62

a surface of the aircraft that can be seen from the cockpit. TP 10643E Holdover Time Guidelines - General 25

Question 63

When dealing with icing, what are "critical surfaces'?

Answer 63

Wings, control surfaces, stabilizers, propellers. CAR 602.11

Question 64

Which of the following configurations for a given aircraft will cause the largest vortices?

Answer 64

Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

Question 65

Regarding wake turbulence from a heavy aircraft that has just landed on a runway with a slight crosswind, lateral movement of the upwind vortex will be and the movement of the downwind vortex will be.

Answer 65

Less and therefore remain stationary on the runway; fortified and thus move away from the runway.

Question 66

The critical Mach number is the:

Answer 66

Speed at which the first shock waves form.

Question 67

What causes wingtip vortices to form?

Answer 67

The pressure difference between the top and underside of the wing.

Question 68

When viewed from the back, wingtip vortices are turning _____ around the left wing and _____ around the right wing.

Answer 68

Clockwise; counterclockwise.

Question 69

Whac is one advantage of a sweepback wing?

Answer 69

To increase critical Mach number.

Question 70

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the sweepback wing?

Answer 70

Dutch roll.

Question 71

a yaw damper is an automatic stabilization device using a yaw rate _____ and used to reduce _____

Answer 71

Gyro; Dutch roll.

Question 72

how will a dihedral improve lateral stability if a disturbance causes one wing to drop?

Answer 72

it is a sideslip produced by an unbalanced force that will make the aeroplane roll back into ics proper position. Explanation The dihedral forces an aeroplane to make a sideslip in the direction of che down-pointing wing when a disturbance causes the drop of this wing. This will cause air to flow in the opposite direction of the slip. The air will meet che lower wing with an angle of atcack bigger than the higher wing. The lift surplus created by the lower wing will enable che aeroplane to go back to its initial position with a roll movement

Question 73

The purpose of winglets is to:

Answer 73

Reduce induced drag. Explanation The winglets are installed on some aircraft to prevent creacion of wing dps vortices (induced drag). Their main purpose is felt during flight phases requiring minimum induced drag as the climb (for betcer performances) and che cruise (for minimum fuel consumption). An disadvantage of this device is that it creates some parasite (form) drag.

Question 74

A pilot just arrived at the destination after a flight of several time zones. He/she will go back to its origin point in 3 days, in this case, he/she should:

Answer 74

immediately adapt to the local times for meals and sleep.

Question 75

a pilot has taken a herbal based cough drop that doesn't need any prescription, should he/she take precautions in the case he/she would act as pilot-m-command of an aircraft?

Answer 75

Yes. he/she should ask for authorization from a civil aviation medical examiner.

Question 76

Alcohol consumption before or during a flight:

Answer 76

Will increase the problem of hypoxia even at lower than normal altitudes. Will disturb the functioning of the inner ear causing difficulty in balance. Will reduce piloting skills.

Question 77

During a flight, the pilot of a light aircraft inadvertently finds him/herself in poor weather and is forced to make a precautionary landing, using the DECIDE acronym, to what would the "l: identify plausible action options" correspond?

Answer 77

Looking for a field to land safely. The acronym DECIDE was developed to help you in your decision-making process: D - Detect changes E - Estimate the significance of the changes C - Choose the outcome objective I - Identify the accion options D - Do the better action E - Evaluate the progress. using this process forces you to consider the ouccome of the accions taken.

Question 78

A pilot who planned to do a circling approach encounters bad weather during the approach but decides to continue with the circling approach, which of the following statements describes this pilot's behaviour?

Answer 78

A person tends to react only to information that confirms his/her initial decision and ignores any other information.

Question 79

In pilot decision-making, what is the memory aid checklist that must be completed?

Answer 79

IMSAFE. Explanation TP 12863E - Human Factors For Aviation - Basic Manuel => Chapter 10: Decision-Making And Judgement - Risk Management: IMSAFE: - illness?: Do I have any symptoms? - Medication: Have I been taking prescription or over-the-counter drugs? - Stress: Am i under psychological pressure from the job? Do i have money, health, or family problems? - Alcohol: Have i had anything to drink in the last 2A hours? Do i have a hang-over? - Fatigue: how much time since my last flight? Did i sleep well last night and am i adequately rested? - Eating: Have i eaten enough of the proper foods to keep adequately nourished during the entire flight?

Question 80

While in flight in an airline operation, you are at the halfway point of your "before landing" checklist when you receive a call from the ATC. What should you do in order to not miss any items of your checklist?

Answer 80

Hold your finger on the last item performed, answer the atc. then resume the checklist.