1.1 Flashcards
1
Q
- Salivary glands of the hard palate are located in the:
a. Median raphe
b. Anterolateral zone
c. Gingival zone
d. Posterolateral zone
A
D. Posterolateral zone
2
Q
- Long bones of the skeleton increase in length because of the:
A. Mitotic division of the osteocytes
B. Mitotic division of the osteoblasts
C. Resorption of primary bone by osteoclasts
D. Appositional growth on the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate
E. Interstitial growth in the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate
A
E. Interstitial growth in the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate
3
Q
- Which of the following muscles serves as the forearm’s principal extensor?
A. Pronator teres -flexor
B. Brachioradialis - flexor
C. Triceps brachii
D. Coracobrachialis - flexor
E. Extensor carpi radialis longus – extensor of wrist
A
C. Triceps brachii
4
Q
4. A tumor of the maxiliary sinus may cause an overflow of tears by exerting pressure on the: A. Lacrimal gland B. Lacrimal pluncta C. Conjunctival sac D. Nasolacrimal duct E. None of these
A
D. Nasolacrimal duct
5
Q
- Which of the following artery is not a branch of the maxillary artery?
A. Deep temporal
B. Middle meningeal
C. Inferior alveolar
D. Superficial temporal – external carotid artery
E. Posterior superior alveolar
A
D. Superficial temporal – external carotid artery
6
Q
- Which of the following artery-foramen/fissure pairings is NOT correct?
A. Accessory meningeal – foramen ovale
B. Inferior alveolar – mandibular formanen
C. Posterior superior alveolar – sphenopalatine foramen
D. Middle meningeal – foramen spinosum
E. Anterior tympanic – petrotympanic fissure
A
C. Posterior superior alveolar – sphenopalatine foramen
7
Q
- Surgical excision of the parotid gland endangers which of the following structures in in addition to the facial nerve?
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Motor nerves to the muscle of mastication
C. External carotid artery and auriculotemporal nerve
D. Lesser occipital nerve and spinal accessory never
A
C. External carotid artery and auriculotemporal nerve
8
Q
8. A needle for an inferior alveolar nerve injection mistakenly passes posteriorly as the level of the mandibular foramen. Which of the following structures is it likely to contact? A. Parotid gland B. Lingual nerve C. Internal carotid artery D. Pterygomandibular raphe E. Tendon of the temporalis muscle
A
A. Parotid gland
9
Q
9. Which of the following cartilages will be cut twice in a sagittal section through the neck? A. Cricoid B. Thyroid C. Arytenoid D. Epiglottis E. 2nd tracheal cartilage
A
A. Cricoid
10
Q
10. Which of the following contains the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract? A. Pars nervosa B. Pars intermedia C. Infundibular stalk D. Pars distalis of the hypophasis
A
C. Infundibular stalk
11
Q
- The lateral boundary of the retropharyngeal (prevertebral) space at the level of the oropharynx is the:
A. Carotid shealth
B. Medial pterygoid muscle and its fascia
C. Middle pharyngeal constrictor and its fascia
D. Pterygomandibular raphe
E. Stypharyngeus muscle and its fascia
A
A. Carotid shealth
12
Q
- The temporalis muscle inserts into the:
A. Coronoid process
B. Condylar process
C. Lateral aspect of the mandibular angle
D. Articular disk of the TMJ
E. Fovea of the mandible
A
A. Coronoid process
13
Q
13. Which of the following is surrounded partly by connective tissue and epithelium contains, lymphoid follicles has no sinuses, and is penetrated by a number of crypts? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. Lymph node D. Palatine tonsil E. Bursa of fabricius
A
D. Palatine tonsil
14
Q
- The trigeminal nerves innervate exclusively which of the following muscles or muscle parts?
A. Buccinator and masseter
B. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid
C. Anterior & posterior bellies of digastric
D. Medial and lateral pterygoid
E. Tensor and levatorveli palatine
A
D. Medial and lateral pterygoid
15
Q
15. Which fossa is an irregular-shaped space lying posterior to the maxilla, between pharynx and the ramus of the mandible? A. Pterygopalatine fossa B. Mandibular fossa C. Infratemporal fossa D. Coronoid fossa
A
C. Infratemporal fossa
16
Q
16. Defined as a small pit or depression in bone? A. Fossa B. Fissure C. Fovea D. Meatus
A
C. Fovea
17
Q
17. Which bones form the floor of the nasal cavity? A. Ethmoid and palatine bone B. Nasal bone and maxilla C. Palatine bone and maxilla D. Nasal and vomer bones
A
C. Palatine bone and maxilla
18
Q
18. All of the following nerves pass though the superior orbital fissure, except: A. Ophthalmic nerve (CN V) B. Abducens nerve (CN VI) C. Optic nerve nerve (CN II) D. Oculomotor nerves (CN III) E. Trochlear nerves (CN IV)
A
C. Optic nerve nerve (CN II)
19
Q
19. Which part of the urinary system transports urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder? A. Kidney B. Ureters C. Urethra D. All
A
B. Ureters
20
Q
20. The ductus venosus present in the fetus become what in the newborn? A. Ligamentum arteriosum B. Ligament teres C. Fossa ovalis D. Ligamentum venosum
A
D. Ligamentum venosum
21
Q
21. A small, pear-shaped muscular sac lying on the undersurface of the liver. A. Pancreas B. Gallbladder C. Stomach D. Esophagus
A
B. Gallbladder
22
Q
- Which structure is called the adenoid when enlarged?
A. Lingual tonsil
B. Palatine tonsil
C. Pharyngeal tonsil
A
C. Pharyngeal tonsil
23
Q
23. Which muscle of the anterior abdominal wall helps form the cremaster muscle? A. External oblique B. Internal oblique C. Transverses D. Rectus abdominis
A
B. Internal oblique
24
Q
24. Which muscle of the soft palate draws the soft palate down to the tongue, closing the oropharyngeal isthmus? A. Tensor velipalatini B. Levatorvelipalatini C. Palatoglossus D. Palatopharyngeus E. Muscularis uvulae
A
D. Palatopharyngeus
25
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25. Which space should be entered when performing an emergency tracheotomy?
A. Epidural space
B. Medullary space
C. Cricothyroid space
D. Pleural space
```
C. Cricothyroid space
26
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26. A shallow linear depression on the surface of a tooth that does not mark the junction of primary parts of the tooth, is called?
A. The oblique ridge
B. A developmental groove
C. A transverse ridge
D. A supplemental groove
E. A mamelon
```
D. A supplemental groove
27
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27. Which one of the following is not a line angle found on an anterior teeth?
A. Mesiolabial
B. Distoocclusal
C. Linguoincisal
D. Distoincisal
E. Distolabial
```
B. Distoocclusal
28
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28. All but which one of the following are point angle found on posterior teeth?
A. Distolinguoincisal
B. Messiobucco-occlusal
C. Distobucco-occlusal
D. Mesiolinguo-occlusal
E. Distolinguo-occlusal
```
A. Distolinguoincisal
29
```
29. Using the universal system notation, tooth C is which of the following?
A. Primary left mandibular second molar
B. Primary right maxillary first molar
C. Primary right maxillary canine
D. Permanent right maxillary canines
E. Permanent left maxillary lateral
```
C. Primary right maxillary canine
30
30. Which of the following is not true regarding surfaces of the teeth?
A. Mesial surfaces are those towards the median line of the face
B. Distal surfaces are those most distant from the median line of the face
C. The surface that is towards the lip is the lingual surface
D. Collectively, the surface that is towards the cheeks in posterior teeth and the lips on anterior teeth is the facial surface
E. The surface that is towards the cheek on posterior teeth is the buccal surface
C. The surface that is towards the lip is the lingual surface
31
31. Which of the following is true regarding curvatures of the maxillary central incisor cervical line / CEJ?
A. It is the semicircular curve toward the root apex on the labial surface
B. It shows more curvature towards the incisal on the mesial surface than the distal
C. It is a semicircular toward the incisal on the lingual surface
D. Both A & B
E. All of the above
D. Both A & B
32
32. Which of the following is true regarding the lingual fossa of maxillary central incisors?
A. The mesial marginal ridge marks the mesial boundary of the fossa
B. The CEJ marks the cervical boundary of the fossa
C. The cingulum marks the cervical boundary of the fossa
D. Both A & B
E. Both A & C
E. Both A & C
33
```
33. From the mesial aspect, the crest of curvature (greatest measurement) in the labial and lingual surface of maxillary incisors are located in which third of the crown?
A. Incisal
B. Junction of middle and cervical
C. Junction of incisal and middle
D. Cervical
E. Middle
```
A. Incisal
34
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34. The maxillary lateral incisors is smaller than maxillary central incisor in all aspect which one of the following?
A. Crown length
B. Root length
C. Crown width MD
D. Diameter at the cervix
E. Crown width LL
```
B. Root length
35
35. Which of the following is true regarding the maxillary lateral incisor?
A. Eruption occurs at an age of 7 to 8 years
B. It is the widest mesiodistal of any anterior teeth
C. It exhibits the most number in variations both in crown and root
D. Both A & B
E. Both A & C
C. It exhibits the most number in variations both in crown and root
36
36. Which of the following is true regarding of the mandibular canines?
A. Bifurcated root is not uncommon
B. If bifurcated, the roots are facial and lingual
C. Both A and B
D. If bifurcated, the roots are mesial and distal
E. A, B, and D
C. Both A and B
37
37. Compared to the maxillary canine, which of the is true of the mandibular canine?
A. Viewed from the mesial, the crown has less labial curvature
B. Viewed from the mesial, the crown shows a more prominent cingulum
C. Both A and B
D. Viewed from the distal, the crown is thicker in the incisal aspect
E. A, B, and D
A. Viewed from the mesial, the crown has less labial curvature
38
38. The term bicuspids, when applied to human dentition, is misleading. The term premolar is more appropriate because:
A. Most premolars demonstrate one cusp only
B. Human premolars show a variation from one to three cusps
C. Human premolars show a variation from two to five cusps
D. The typical premolar will have a five cusp
B. Human premolars show a variation from one to three cusps
39
39. When viewed from the mesial, an identifying characteristics of maxillary first premolar crowns is which of the following?
A. The presence of a mesial developmental depressions
B. A linger lingual cusp compared to the buccal cusp
C. The facial crest of contour located in the occlusal third of the crown
D. The presence of mesiiolingual grooves
A. The presence of a mesial developmental depressions
40
40. What stage does the maxillary second premolar crown begin calcification
a. About 3 months pre natal
b. About 3 months post natal
c. About 2 to 2 ½ years
d. About 2 ½ to 3 years
c. About 2 to 2 ½ years
41
41. The maxillary 2nd premolar erupts at what age?
10 – 12 YEARS
42
42. When the occlusal form of the mandibular 2nd pm is highly variable, which are the most common of this tooth?
3 cups, facial mesiolingual, distolingual
43
44. A linear elevation that serves as a line of demarcation between the mmr and lingual lobe of mandibular 1st premolar?
a. Mesial marginal developmental groove
b. Mesial developmental groove
c. Lingual developmental groove
d. Mesiolingual developmental groove
e. Mesiolingual developmental ridge
d. Mesiolingual developmental groove
44
45. Smallest cusp of mandibular 2nd premolar of 3 cusp type:
a. Mesiobuccal cusp
b. Distolingual cusp
c. Mesiolingual cusp
d. Buccal cusp
e. Distobuccal cusp
b. Distolingual cusp
45
43. The development groove from a y- pattern in which of the ff premolars?
Mandibular 2nd with 3 cusps
46
46. Primary teeth differ from permanent teeth in that primary teeth have except:
a. White crown
b. More pronounced cervical ridges
c. Comparatively larger pulp
d. Comparatively larger and slender roots
e. Longer crowns compared with their mesiodistal diameters
e. Longer crowns compared with their mesiodistal diameters
47
1. The following presents a trapezoidal outline on their crown portion
i. Facial aspect of incisors
ii. Lingual aspect of molars
iii. proximal aspect of premolars
iv. proximal aspect of maxillary molars
v. proximal aspect of mandibular molars
Facial aspect of incisors
ii. Lingual aspect of molars
iii. proximal aspect of premolars
iv. proximal aspect of maxillary molars
48
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48. The occlusal outline of maxillary first molar contains two obtuse and two acute angles. The acute angles are:
I. Mesiolingual
II. Mesiofacial
III. Distolingual
IV. Distofacial
```
II. Mesiofacial
| III. Distolingual
49
49. The process whereby the organic components of the teeth hardens
CALCIFICATION
50
50. Using the universal system of tooth notation, tooth letter C is
Primary maxillary right canine
51
```
51. Which of the following is considered to be the normal hemoglobin?
A. Hemoglobin A
B. Hemoglobin C
C. Hemoglobin H
D. Hemoglobin S
E. Hemoglobin M
```
A. Hemoglobin A
52
```
52. What major type of protein present in the plasma functions to provide colloid osmotic pressure in the plasma?
A. Globulin
B. Albumin
C. Fibrinogen
D. All of them
```
B. Albumin
53
```
53. The normal plasma concentration of calcium varies between:
A. 3.0 and 5.0 mg/dl
B. 5.5 and 7.5 mg/dl
C. 8.5 and 10.5 mg/dl
D. 15.0 and 20.0 mg/dl
```
C. 8.5 and 10.5 mg/dl
54
```
54. Within the spinal cord, the H-shaped mass of gray matter is divided into homs, which consist mainly of neuron cell bodies. Cell bodies in the posterior horn relay:
A. Voluntary motor impulses
B. Reflex motor impulses
C. Sensory impulses
D. All
```
C. Sensory impulses
55
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55. Which part of the brainstem serves as an autonomic reflex center to maintain homeostasis, regulating respiratory, vasomotor, and cardiac functions?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. A & B only
E. All
```
C. Medulla oblongata
56
56. 84% of the entire blood volume of the body is in the:
A. It is constant throughout the molecule
B. Systematic circulation
C. Heart
D. Pulmonary vessels
B. Systematic circulation
57
57. All of the following statements concerning the backbone of DNA are true, except:
A. It is constant throughout the molecule
B. It consists of deoxyriboses linked by phosphodiester brdiges or phosphodiester linkages
C. It is hydrophobic
D. It is highly polar
C. It is hydrophobic
58
```
58. The primary purine bases in both RNA and DNA are:
A. Thymine (T) and guanine (G)
B. Adenine (A) and guanine (G)
C. Cytosine (C) and thymine (T)
D. Guanine (G) and cytosine (C)
```
B. Adenine (A) and guanine (G)
59
```
59. The thick ascending loop of Henle reabsorbs:
A. Potassium ions and water
B. Water only
C. Sodium and chloride ions
D. Potassium and chloride ions
```
C. Sodium and chloride ions
60
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60. The kidney normally excretes:
A. 1 to 2 L of urine per day
B. 10 to 20 L of urine per day
C. 50 to 75 L of urine per day
D. 100 to 150 L of urine per day
```
A. 1 to 2 L of urine per day
61
61. Fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs where?
A. In the cytosol
B. In the mitochondria
C. In the nucleus
B. In the mitochondria
62
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62. Gluconeogenesis, which occurs mainly in the liver, is the synthesis of glucose from compounds that are not carbohydrates. Which organ is a minor contributor of newly synthesized glucose molecules?
A. Appendix
B. Gallbladder
C. Kidneys
D. Pancreas
```
C. Kidneys
63
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63. The liver releases glucose back into the circulating blood during exercise. Besides the skeletal muscle, what other organ takes up this extra glucose?
A. Kidneys
B. Heart
C. Brain
D. Lungs
```
C. Brain
64
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64. Temperature-regulating mechanism that increase heat production include:
I. Shivering
II. Outaneous vasodilation
III. Increased voluntary activity
IV. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
V. Increased secretion of epinepherine from the adrenal medulla
A. I, II, & III
B. I, II, & V
C. I, III, & IV
D. I, III, & V
E. III, IV, & V
```
E. III, IV, & V
65
65. Which of the following can alter the function of the medullary centers for respiration?
I. The central and peripheral chemoreceptors
II. The apneustic and pneumotaxic centers in the pons
III. The central nervous system at the conscious level
A. I & II only
B. I & II only
C. II & III only
D. I, II, & III
A. I & II only
66
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66. Which eye structure/s contains the nerves that sense light and the blood supply that nourishes them?
I. Sclera
II. Cornea
III. Iris
IV. Pupil
V. Lens
VI. Retina
A. I, II, & V
B. II, III, & IV
C. III & VI
D. III only
E. VI only
```
E. VI only
67
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67. TRUE of pharyngeal stage of swallowing.
I. Esophagus is open
II. Trachea is open
III. Peristaltic wave from pharynx to esophagus
IV. Principally a reflex act
A. I, II & III
B. I, III & IV
C. II, III & IV
D. I & IV only
E. II only
```
B. I, III & IV
68
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68. Erythropoietin
A. Raises the blood sugar level
B. Controls the blood pressure
C. Promotes protein production
D. Stimulates RBC production
```
D. Stimulates RBC production
69
69. The function of arteries is to:
A. Acts as control valves through which blood is released into the capillaries
B. Exchange fluid, nutrients, electrolytes, hormones and other substances
C. Transport blood under high pressure to the tissues
D. Acts as conduits for the transport of blood from the tissue back to the heart
C. Transport blood under high pressure to the tissues
70
70. The stretch receptors of the atria that elicit the Bainbridge reflex transmit their afferent signals through the:
A. Trigeminal nerves to the medulla of the brain
B. Vagus nerves to the medulla of the brain
C. Facial nerves to the medulla of the brain
D. Glossopharyngeal nerves to the medulla of the brain
B. Vagus nerves to the medulla of the brain
71
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71. Failure of the heart to show tetanus when stimulated is explained by:
A. Fatigue
B. A long chronaxie
C. Automaticity
D. A long refractory period
```
D. A long refractory period
72
72. Normally, the rate of the heart beat in a human is determined by:
A. The bundle of His
B. All cardiac muscle
C. The nerve impulses from the cardiac center of the medulla
D. The sinoatrial node
E. The cervical ganglion
D. The sinoatrial node
73
73. In the absence of compensatory changes, a drop in blood pressure results from:
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Increased hematocrit
C. The nerve impulses from the cardiac center of the medulla
D. The sinoatrial node
E. The cervical ganglion
C. The nerve impulses from the cardiac center of the medulla
74
74. All of the following statements concerning supporting cusps are true, except:
A. They contact the opposing tooth in the intercuspal position
B. They support the vertical dimension of the face
C. They are nearer the faciolingual center of the tooth than the non-supporting cusps
D. Their outer incline has a potential for contact
E. They have narrower and sharper cusp ridges than non-supporting cusps
E. They have narrower and sharper cusp ridges than non-supporting cusps
75
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75. Parts of the gingival fibers resist rotational forces that are applied to a tooth?
A. Gingival margin
B. Free gingival groove
C. Mucogingival junction
D. Gingival sulcus
E. Interdental gingiva
```
E. Interdental gingiva
76
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76. Which group of the principal fibers of the periodontal ligament runs perpendicular from the alveolar bone to the cementum and resists lateral forces?
A. Alveolar crest
B. Horizontal
C. Oblique
D. Apical
E. Interradicular
```
B. Horizontal
77
```
77. Which group of the gingival fibers resist rotational forces that are applied to a tooth?
A. Transseptal fibers
B. Dentogingival fibers
C. Alveogingival fibers
D. Circumferential fibers
E. Dentoperiosteal fibers
```
C. Alveogingival fibers
78
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78. Gingival fibers are found within the:
A. Attached gingiva
B. Fee gingiva
C. Muciogingival junction
D. Attached and free gingiva
```
D. Attached and free gingiva
79
```
79. The periodontal ligament is made up of all of the following, except:
A. Collagenous fibers
B. Cartilage
C. Nerves
D. Lymphatics
E. Blood vessels
```
B. Cartilage
80
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80. The articular disc of the TMJ is a fibrous, saddle-shaped structure that seperates:
A. The condyle and the sphenoid bone
B. The condyle and the ethmoid bone
C. The condyle and the temporal bone
D. The condyle and the occipital bone
```
C. The condyle and the temporal bone
81
```
81. The most calcified of the dental tissue is
A. Dentin
B. Enamel
C. Cementum
D. Pulp
```
B. Enamel
82
82. Rotational movements take place in which compartment of the TMJ?
A. Upper (mandibular fossa-disc) compartment
B. Lower (condyle-disc) compartment
C. Both A & B
D. Neither of the two
B. Lower (condyle-disc) compartment
83
83. The lateral pterygoid muscle help performs which two mandibular movements?
1. Closing 2. Opening 3. Retrusion 4. Protrusion
A. 1 & 3
B. 1 & 4
C. 2 & 3
D. 2 & 4
B. 1 & 4
84
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84. Medial to lateral curve of the occlusal surfaces of the teeth observed from buccal and a proximal view:
A. Curve of Spee
B. Curve of Wilson
C. Both
D. Neither
```
B. Curve of Wilson
85
```
1. The pH of saliva is:
A. Between 1.0 & 3.0
B. Between 2.5 & 4.5
C. Between 6.0 & 7.0
D. Between 9.0 & 10.0
```
C. Between 6.0 & 7.0
86
86. All of the following statements concerning enamel hypoplasia are true, except:
A. It is a defect in the mineralization of the formed enamel matrix
B. The enamel of primary and permanent teeth appear pitted
C. Radiographically the enamel is either absent or very thin over tip of cuss & interproximal areas
D. It can be caused by nutritional deficiencies
A. It is a defect in the mineralization of the formed enamel matrix
87
87. Caries activity is directly proportional to all of the following, except:
A. The consistency of fermentable carbohydrate ingested
B. The quantity of fermentable carbohydrates ingested
C. The frequency of ingesting fermentable carbohydrates
D. The oral retention of fermentable carbohydrates ingested
D. The oral retention of fermentable carbohydrates ingested
88
88. All of the following characterized saliva, except:
A. High potassium and bicarbonate ion concentration
B. Low sodium and chloride concentrations
C. It is hypertonic
D. Its production is inhibited by vagotomy
D. Its production is inhibited by vagotomy
89
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89. Which of the following decrease with age in the dental pulp?
I, Number of collagen fibers
II, Number of reticulin fibers
III, The size of the pulp
IV, Calcification within the pulp
A. I & II only
B. I & III only
C. I & IV only
D. II & III only
E. IV only
```
D. II & III only
90
```
90. Which of the following ligaments has an outer oblique portion which limits the extent of jaw opening and initiates translation of the condyle down the articular eminence?
A. Capsular
B. Collateral
C. Stylomandibular
D. Temporomandibular
```
D. Temporomandibular
91
91. Which of the following can adversely affect the self-cleansing quality of a dentition in normal alignment?
A. Contact of adjacent teeth
B. Efficient use of a toothbrush
C. Friction of food material during mastication
D. Too great a contour of the cervical enamel ridge
D. Too great a contour of the cervical enamel ridge
92
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92. Bilateral contraction of the posterior fibers of the temporalis muscles results in which mandibular movement?
A. Retrusion
B. Protrusion
C. Opening
D. Closing
```
A. Retrusion
93
93. How does the mandibular arch generally compare in length with the maxillary arch?
A. It is exactly the same
B. It is slightly longer
C. It is slightly shorter
C. It is slightly shorter
94
For numbers 96-100, match the hormone on the left with the appropriate gland or structure that produces it on the right.
94. Insulin
95. Progesterone
96. Renin and angiotensin
97. Parathyroid hormone
98. Prolactin
A. Parathyroid gland
B. Kidneys
C. Pancreas
D. Ovaries
E. Pituitary gland
94. C
95. D
96. B
97. A
98. E
