1.3 Flashcards
1
Q
1. Isolating the proximal enamel is known as: A. Ditching B. Pitching C. Undercutting D. Overcutting
A
A. Ditching
2
Q
- Special attention is given to matrix application for the insertion of amalgam in an MO cavity in a
Maxillary first premolar because of:
A. Length of lingual cusp
B. Restoration being on the esthetic zone
C. Concavity on the cervical third of the mesial surface of the crown
D. Faciolingual width of the mesial marginal ridge of the tooth
A
C. Concavity on the cervical third of the mesial surface of the crown
3
Q
3. Which of the following is the weakest phase of the set amalgam? A. Beta-2 B. Gamma C. Gamma-1 D. Gamma-2
A
D. Gamma-2
4
Q
4. Long molecules composed principally of nonmetallic elements that are chemically bonded by covalent bonds. A. Metals B. Ceramics C. Polymers D. Composite E. None
A
C. Polymers
5
Q
5. The idea cavosurface margin for an indirect composite inlay is: A. Less than 90 degrees B. More than 90 degrees C. 90 degrees D. Between 90-100 degrees E. Between 80-90 degrees
A
C. 90 degrees
6
Q
- Indirect composites is superior to porcelain for intracoronal posterior esthetic restoration for the following reasons, except:
A. Decrease polymerization shrinkage
B. Easier to polish if adjusted
C. Better marginal adaptation
D. Less wear on opposing tooth structures
E. Lower bulk fracture rates
A
A. Decrease polymerization shrinkage
7
Q
- Butt join margins are recommended in an indirect composite inlay preparation for the following reasons, except:
A. Beveled margins remove less tooth structures
B. Thin beveled margins can break off during sealing
C. Beveled margins are more likely to fracture under occlusal force
D. Beveled margins are more difficult to prepare in the mouth.
E. Beveled margins are more difficult to finish in the lab.
A
A. Beveled margins remove less tooth structures
8
Q
8. The following fillers used for composite resins, except: A. Quartz B. Fluoride containing fluorosilicates C. Amorphous silica D. Aluminum oxide E. Barium strontium
A
B. Fluoride containing fluorosilicates
9
Q
9. Which plague communities in high concentrations can produce a sufficiently low pH enough to cause demineralization of teeth? A. Mutans streptococci B. S. Sanguis C. C. Lactobacillus D. A. Viscosus E. Both a & C
A
E. Both a & C
10
Q
10. Probably the most important organisms in the initiation of enamel caries: A. Mutans streptococci B. S. Sanguis C. C. Lactobacillus D. A. Viscosus E. Both a & C
A
A. Mutans streptococci
11
Q
11. Most likely organism to initiate root caries: A. Mutans streptococci B. S. Sanguis C. C. Lactobacillus D. A. Viscosus E. Both A & C
A
D. A. Viscosus
12
Q
12. Two thirds of enamel has right angled cavosurface angle and butt joint between amalgam tooth surface. A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel
A
A. Partial bevel
13
Q
13. Entire enamel beveled at 70 degree to cavite wall. A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel
A
B. Long bevel
14
Q
14. Right angled cavosurface angle A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel
A
C. Butt joint
15
Q
15. One-half of enamel wall at 40 degree to cavity wall. A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel
A
A. Partial bevel
16
Q
- Cavity varnish functions in which of the following ways in the amalgam restoration?
I, Improves marginal seal
II, Prevents discoloration of dentin
III, Provides thermal protection
IV, Has a direct medicinal benefit to pulpal tissue
V, Prevents acid penetration to the pulp from cements
A. I & II only
B. I, II, & V
C. I, III, IV & V
D. II, III & IV
E. All of the choices
A
B. I, II, & V
17
Q
17. which of the following solutions is used to etch enamel when using the acid etch technique (putol) composite resins? A. 50% silicophosphoric acid B. 75% phosphoric acid in water C. 37% phosphoric acid in water D. 25% hydrofluoric acid in a buffer
A
D. 25% hydrofluoric acid in a buffer
18
Q
- Three essential factors for the initiation of a carious lesion are:
A. Bacteria, polysaccharides and enamel
B. Bacteria, suitable substrate and susceptible tooth
C. Proteolytic bacteria, easily fermentable carbohydrate and susceptible tooth
D. Lactobacilli, suitable substrate and dental lamella
A
B. Bacteria, suitable substrate and susceptible tooth
19
Q
- A marginal ridge wall in a prepared cavity for amalgam is:
A. At right angles to the pulpal floor
B. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
C. At an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
D. Determined by the extent of the fissure of the central groove
A
….
20
Q
- The distal wall in an MO cavity on a mandibular second premolar is:
A. At right angles to the pulpa floor
B. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
C. At an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
D. Determined by the extent of the fissure of the central groove
A
C. At an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
21
Q
21. Have less well-defined margins, tends to be U-shaped in cross section, and progress more rapidly due to the lack of protection from an enamel covering: A. Smooth surface lesion B. Root surface lesion C. Pit and fissure lesion D. All of these
A
B. Root surface lesion
22
Q
22. Regions characterized by alternating phases of high and low mineralization activity: A. Line of Pickerel B. Perikymata ridges C. Striae of Retzius D. Enamel rods
A
C. Striae of Retzius
23
Q
23. Can be observed clinically as intact, but discolored, usually brown or black spots. A. Incipient caries B. Arrested caries C. Remineralized D. Both A & C E. Both B & C
A
E. Both B & C
24
Q
24. This phenomenon proposes that flexure of the tooth at the cervical margin while under load is responsible for the progressive breakdown of the brittle dental tissues.. A. Erosion B. Attrition C. Abrasion D. Abfraction E. Both B & D
A
D. Abfraction
25
25. In a class 2 prepared cavity for dental amalgam, the facial and lingual proximal walls should be formed:
A. Approximately with each other
B. At right angles to the gingival floor
C. Slightly diverging as the walls approach the proximal surface
D. Slightly diverging as the walls approach the occlusal surface
C. Slightly diverging as the walls approach the proximal surface
26
```
26. The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is:
A. Actinomycesviscosus
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Streptococcus salivarius
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
```
A. Actinomycesviscosus
27
```
27. The ability of the handpiece to withstand lateral pressure of the revolving tool without decreasing its speed or reducing its cutting efficiency is called:
A. Vibration
B. Torque
C. Amplitude
D. Heat production
E. Pressure
```
B. Torque
28
28. Prevention form of the proximal portion of an incident class 2 amalgam considers the final position of the cavosurface margin. The single most controlling factor is:
A. Enamel thickness
B. Marginal ridge-cavosurface margin
C. Gingival extent of caries
D. Relationship with the approximating tooth surface
C. Gingival extent of caries
29
```
29. Retention grooves in the proximal box of class 2 cavity prepared for amalgam should be:
A. Elongated ad rounded in dentin at facioaxial and linguoaxial line angles extending from the gingival floor to the axiopulpal line angle
B. Sharp and well defined, extending from the gingival floor to the occlusal cavosurface angle along facial and lingual line angle
C. Sharp and elongated at the dej of facial and lingual walls
D. Short and rounded at DEJ of facial and lingual walls
```
A. Elongated ad rounded in dentin at facioaxial and linguoaxial line angles extending from the gingival floor to the axiopulpal line angle
30
```
30. Pitted amalgam margins in a class 2 amalgam may be caused by:
A. Poor cavity preparation
B. Inadequate lateral condensation
C. Overcarving the amalgam
D. Improper finishing procedure
```
B. Inadequate lateral condensation
31
```
31. Used in preparing depth gauge grooves on a cusp that needs capping:
A. # 169L
B. # 271
C. Flame shaped diamond bur
D. Paper disc
```
B. # 271
32
32. Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when:
A. Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
B. Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
C. Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
D. Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
C. Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
33
33. Cast metal restoration are indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. When extension of the mesiodistal dimension of the tooth is necessary to form a contact with an adjacent tooth
B. Presence of fracture lines in enamel and dentin
C. Large proximo-occlusal caries but the facial and facial tooth surface are relatively non-carious
D. Presence of facial and lingual smooth surface caries in addition to the carious occlusal and proximal surfaces
E. A molar that is treated endodontically
D. Presence of facial and lingual smooth surface caries in addition to the carious occlusal and proximal surfaces
34
34. The following are the reasons in preparing the secondary flare for an onlay restorations, except:
A. Extends margins to embrasures making more self-cleansing
B. Making margins more accessible to finishing procedures
C. Conserve enamel
D. Direction of flare results to 40-degree marginal metal which is burnishable
E. A more blunted and stronger enamel is produced
C. Conserve enamel
35
```
35. The amount of gingival-to-occlusal divergence for an unusually short vertical wall for an inlay/onlay tooth preparation is
A. Maximum of 5 degrees
B. Maximum of 2 degrees
C. Minimum of 5 degrees
D. Minimum of 2 degrees
```
B. Maximum of 2 degrees
36
36. The following are the advantages of cast metal inlay/onlays, except:
A. Higher chair time
B. High compressive and tensile strength
C. Control of contours and contact is easy to achieved
D. Biocompatible to soft tissues
E. Low wear
A. Higher chair time
37
37. The following are indications for cast metal restoration, except:
A. Teeth at risk for fracture
B. High caries rate
C. Large restorations
D. Endodontically treated tooth
E. Diasteama closure & occlusal plane correction
B. High caries rate
38
38. The ffg are true about skirt preparations, except:
A. Eliminates chances of post restorative fracture
B. Primarily an extracoronal restoration
C. Prepared in dentin
D. Braces the tooth against forces that might split the tooth
E. Satisfy retention and resistance form requirements
C. Prepared in dentin
39
39. This theory suggests that caries results from a shift in the balance of the resident (putol) modifications in local environment conditions.
A. Non specific plaque hypothesis
B. Specific plaque hypothesis
C. Ecological plaque hypothesis
C. Ecological plaque hypothesis
40
```
40. These are biological factors that act directly on the biofilm:
I. Saliva
II. Diet
III. Lifestyle
IV. Fluoride
V. Socioeconomic status
A. I, II, III & IV
B. I, II, III & V
C. I, II & IV
D. I, II & V
E. I, II & III
```
C. I, II & IV
41
```
41. Involves the occlusal and proximal surface/s of a posterior tooth and may cap one or more (putol) the cusps.
A. Amalgam restorations
B. Pin-retained restorations
C. Cast inlay restoration
D. Cast onlay restoration
```
C. Cast inlay restoration
42
```
42. Defined as the total complex formed when pellicle adheres to the tooth surface and becomes populated with bacteria and their extracecullar products.
A. Plaque
B. Biofilm
C. Oral biofilm
D. Both A & B
E. All of them
```
C. Oral biofilm
43
43. Most commonly used modification in an onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit the split-tooth syndrome:
A. Collar preparation
B. Skirt preparation
C. Slot preparation
D. Facial and lingual surface groove extension
B. Skirt preparation
44
```
44. Bur # 557:
A. Cylindrical plain-cut fissure
B. Tapered plain-cut fissure
C. Cylindrical cross-cut fissure
D. Tapered dentate fissure
E. Round-nose fissure bur
```
C. Cylindrical cross-cut fissure
45
```
45. Bur # 901:
A. Round bur
B. Inverted cone
C. Pear-shaped
D. Wheel bur
E. End-cutting bur
```
E. End-cutting bur
46
```
46. Salivary antibacterial agent that catalyses the oxidation of salivary thiocyanate by hydrogen peroxide to the toxic molecule hypothiocyanite which inactivates bacterial enzymes.
A. Apolactoferrin
B. Lactoperoxidase
C. Lysozyme
D. Hsitatins
E. Lactoferrin
```
B. Lactoperoxidase
47
```
47. Salivary antibacterial agent that inhibit the growth of C. albicans and S.mutans:
A. Apolactoferrin
B. Lactoperoxidase
C. Lysozyme
D. Hsitatins
E. Lactoferrin
```
D. Hsitatins
48
```
48. This technique uses two different materials to form one final restoration, with an objective of making the most of the biological, physical and/or aesthetic properties of each material and, in the presence of adhesion, to achieve as close as possible to a single monolithic reconstruction of a tooth.
A. “Sandwich” technique
B. Atraumatic restorative technique
C. Lamination technique
D. Both A & C
```
D. Both A & C
49
```
49. Progressive permanent deformation of a set amalgam under load:
A. Crevice corrosion
B. Creep
C. Crevice fatigue
D. Thermal expansion
```
B. Creep
50
```
50. Refers to the resistance offered by the amalgam to the forces of condensation used in placement.
A. Filling
B. Compression
C. Condensation pressure
D. Packability
```
D. Packability
51
```
51. It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease and injury in human populations and those factors making groups susceptible to disease an injury.
A. Epidemiology
B. Dental epidemiology
C. Descriptive epidemiology
D. Experimental epidemiology
```
.....
52
```
52. It is used to delineate disease patterns in community.
A. Dental epidemiology
B. Experimental epidemiology
C. Descriptive epidemiology
D. Epidemiology
```
D. Epidemiology
53
```
53. It is used to aid in the conceptualization and quantification of the disease status of the community.
A. Experimental epidemiology
B. Analytical epidemiology
C. Descriptive epidemiology
D. Epidemiology
```
C. Descriptive epidemiology
54
```
61. Importance of community dentistry except:
A. Entry into the community
B. Community study
C. Area selection
D. Integration
E. C & D
```
.....
55
```
62. Choosing a community with no serious peace and order problem.
A. Entry into the community
B. Community study
C. Area selection
D. Integration
E. C & D
```
C. Area selection
56
```
63. Performing observation, interview, and surveying.
A. Entry into the community
B. Community study
C. Area selection
D. Integration
E. C & D
```
B. Community study
