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CompTIA > 1101 Exam > Flashcards

1101 Exam Flashcards

(90 cards)

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1
Q
  1. How to fix the “OS not found” error if the MBR is corrupted?
A

The “OS not found” error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the ‘bootrec /fixboot’ command to fix the GPT.

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2
Q
  1. What are five causes of the “OS not found” error?
A

a. the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk
b. the hard disk is damaged
c. incorrect or malformed master boot record
d. an incompatible partition is marked as Active
e. a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active

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3
Q
  1. What can cause a duplicate IP address error?
A

If you defined a static IP address for a workstation or network device, duplicate IP address conflicts may occur on a DHCP network. To resolve it, convert the workstation or network device with the static IP address to a dynamic assignment or exclude the static IP address from the DHCP scope on the DHCP server. Duplicate IP addresses are not caused by logging into two workstations at once, nor are they caused by moving a workstation.

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4
Q
  1. What do corona wires do in a laser printer?
A

A corona wire is a charged wire in a laser printer that draws the toner off the drum onto the paper. It must be cleaned when the toner cartridge is replaced.

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5
Q
  1. What causes white streaks on a laser printer’s image?
A

Dirty corona wires

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6
Q
  1. What to do if app sluggish on phone?
A

First try restarting the app, THEN soft reset, THEN factory reset

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7
Q
  1. What’s an issue with NumLock on small keyboards?
A

You can accidentally set NumLock on and type numbers instead of letters

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8
Q
  1. What does a single mobo beep usually mean?
A

Successfully completed POST

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9
Q

What is an internal VM connection?

A

VMs can communicate with each other and the host machine, but not the internet

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10
Q

What is an external VM connection?

A

Provides internet access (natch)

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11
Q

What is a private VM connection?

A

This creates a virtual switch that lets VMs communicate with themselves, but not the host

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12
Q

What is a localhost network in the context of a VM?

A

This means that each VM can only communicate with itself

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13
Q

What is a Virtual NIC?

A

A virtual NIC (network interface card) is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network.

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14
Q

What is VDI?

A

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it.

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15
Q

What is VNC?

A

Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.

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16
Q
  1. How fast will a PCIe x8 expansion card run if installed in a PCIe x16 slot?
A

8x speed, bc PCIe cards are backwards compatible. 8x refers to the number of PCIe lanes the card utilizes

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17
Q

What is PXE?

A

The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client/server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator.

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18
Q

How do you configure the PXE boot option?

A
  1. To configure a computer to utilize the PXE boot option, you need to configure it under the BIOS boot option
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19
Q

What is an A record?

A

An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address.

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20
Q

What is an AAAA record?

A

An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address.

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21
Q

What is an MX record?

A

An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic.

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22
Q

What is an SOA resource record?

A

A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain.

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23
Q

What is Mini PCIe?

A

Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop.

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24
Q

What is DKIM?

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism. This can replace or supplement SPF. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public key as a TXT record in the DNS server.

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25
What is SPF?
Sender Policy Framework (SPF) uses a DNS record published by an organization hosting an email service. The SPF record identifies the hosts authorized to send emails from that domain, and there must be only one per domain. SPF does not provide a cryptographic authentication mechanism like DKIM does, though.
26
What is DMARC?
he Domain-Based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework can ensure that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC relies on DKMI for the cryptographic authentication mechanism.
27
What is SMTP?
The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol for electronic mail transmission, which does not utilize cryptographic authentication mechanisms by default.
28
What is the difference between a hub and an unmanaged switch?
A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network.
29
What does a wireless print server do?
A wireless print server can receive print jobs directly from all of the network users.
30
Why would you avoid creating a print share or setting an IP address on a personal workstation for a shared computer?
Print jobs would fail any time the workstation was shut down or restarted.
31
What is a virtual printer?
Virtual printers can print a document to a PDF or XPS file, but don't print physical documents
32
Why use a TCP/IP print server?
A TCP/IP print server will eliminate any compatibility issues associated with using different operating systems and allow the users to send jobs directly to the printer. TCP/IP printing is considered a high-speed and reliable method for sending a print job directly to a printer.
33
What is AirPrint?
A wireless printing feature in macOS and iOS that is incompatible with Windows and Linux
34
What is Bonjour?
Bonjour is Apple's implementation of zero-configuration networking
35
What is a 110 punchdown block?
A 110 punchdown block is a type of punch block used to terminate runs of on-premises wiring in a structured cabling system. The designation 110 is also used to describe a type of insulation displacement contact (IDC) connector used to terminate twisted pair cables when using a punch-down tool similar to the older 66 punchdown block. A 110 punchdown block provides more spacing between the terminals and is designed for Cat 5 networks to eliminate crosstalk between the cables.
36
What is an IDC in the networking context?
a type of insulation displacement contact (IDC) connector used to terminate twisted pair cables when using a punch-down tool
37
What's the difference between a 66 and a 110 punchdown block?
A 110 punchdown block is newer. It provides more spacing between the terminals and is designed for Cat 5 networks to eliminate crosstalk between the cables.
38
What is an F-type connector?
F type connectors are used for coaxial cables
39
What is an IDF in the data center?
Intermediate Distribution Frame, a room that contains UPS power, cooling and a cable rack that interconnects and manages the telecommunications/internet wiring between an MDF and workstation devices.
40
What is an MDF in the data center?
A main distribution frame (MDF) is the primary hub or demarcation point that interconnects private or public IT and telecommunication lines coming into a building to an internal network via any number of intermediate distribution frames (IDFs) which cross connect from the MDF to remote workstation devices.
41
What happens when two overlapping APs are set to the same channel?
This will cause interference and higher latency
42
What ports do FTP and SFTP utilize?
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22.
43
What port does Telnet use?
Port 23
44
What port does LDAP use?
The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389.
45
What port does RDP use?
RDP operates over tcp/3389
46
What is NetBIOS?
The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS.
47
What port does NetBIOS use?
NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139
48
What is IMAP?
The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.
49
What port does IMAP use?
tcp/143
50
What USB standard supports data rates of up to 480 Mbps?
USB 2.0
51
What is the data rate for USB 1.1?
12 Mbps
52
What are the data rates for USB 3.0 and 3.1?
5 Gbps (superspeed) and 10 Gbps (superspeed +)
53
How much power can USB 3.0 and 3.1 deliver?
4.5 W
54
What is an SC connector?
An SC, or subscriber connector, is a general-purpose push/pull style connector that has a square, snap-in connector that latches with a simple push-pull motion. SC connectors are widely used in single-mode fiber optic systems.
55
What is an ST connector?
An ST, or straight tip, connector is a quick-release bayonet-style connector for fiber optics that has a long cylindrical connector. The Bayonet is what distinguishes ST from SC
56
What is an LC connector?
Lucent connector, small form factor connector for fiber optics that combines the transmit and receive cables into a single square, snap-in connector.
57
What is an MTRJ connector?
Acronym for Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MT-RJ); a Fiber optic Cable Connector popular with small form factor devices due to its small size; the connector houses two fibers and mates with locating pins on the plug.
58
What is RAID 1?
A mirrored array that contains a full copy of the data on each drive. Full redundancy.
59
What is RAID 0?
An array that basically combines all drives into a single drive using disk striping. Zero redundancy but high speed.
60
What is RAID 10?
With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency.
61
What is RAID 5?
RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.
62
What is DCPS in a laser printer?
The DCPS (DC Power Supply/Source) of a laser printer is used to convert high voltage AC into lower voltage DC for the printer. The DCPS converts 115VAC or 220VAC power into +5 VDC and -5 VDC for use by the printer's logic board, and +24 VDC to power the motors that feed the paper through the printing path in the last printer.
63
What defines the bare-metal approach to a virtualized environment?
No host operating system
64
What are the chokepoints for running VMs on a desktop?
CPU and RAM. CPU must support virtualization and be a multicore processor. Need at least 16 GB ram for hosting many VMs.
65
What does a transfer roller do in a laser printer?
It charges the toner in the drum before it transfers to the paper.
66
What is one common cause of IP address conflict errors?
This can occur when two network devices are assigned the same IP address on a network. This occurs most commonly when static IP addresses are used, so the easiest way to avoid this issue is to use DHCP to assign the IP addresses on the network.
67
What is an APIPA address?
Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.
68
How can you tell if a device is using an APIPA address?
The address will be from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255
69
What is DHCP and what does it do?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol assigns IP addresses
70
What are CAT6 and CAT6a?
Cat6 cable provides greater bandwidth and data transfer rates up to 1 Gbps over 100 m, the same as Cat5e. However, at shorter distances of up to 37 m (121 ft.), Cat6 is able to achieve 10 Gbps speeds thanks to its improved shielding and higher bandwidth. Cat6a operates at a 500 MHz bandwidth, allowing it to reach 10 Gbps to the full 100 m distance.
70
What are CAT5 and CAT5e?
Introduced in 1995, Category 5 cable has a data rate of up to 100 Mbps at distances up to 100m. Cat5e achieves 1 Gbps by increasing the number of twists, making it more resistant to crosstalk.
71
What port does SSH use?
tcp/22
72
What port does SMTP use?
tcp/25
73
What port does DNS use?
upd/53
74
What port does DHCP use?
udp/67 and udp/68
75
What port does HTTP use?
tcp/80
76
What port does HTTPS use?
tcp/443
77
What port does POP3 use?
tcp/110
78
What port does IMAP v4 use?
tcp/143
79
What port does SMB use (minus NetBIOS)?
tcp/445
80
What port does SNMP use?
Queries: udp/161 Traps: upd/162
81
What is the latest SNMP version?
SNMP v3! It adds message integrity, authentication, and encryption and can perform the bulk data transfers enabled by v2.
82
Wi-Fi 1
802.11 Link rate: 1–2 Frequency: 2.4 GHz
83
Wi-Fi 2
802.11b Link rate 1-11 Freq: 2.4 GHz
84
Wi-Fi 3
802.11a (5 GHz) and 802.11g (2.4 GHz). Link rate: 6-54 Mbit/s
85
Wi-Fi 4
802.11n Link rate: 6.5 - 600 Mbit/s. Freq: 2.4 and 5. Adds MIMO -- multiple input, multiple output
86
Wi-Fi 5
802.11ac Link rate: up to 7 Gbit/s. Freq: 5 Uses Multi-User (MU) MIMO
87
Wi-Fi 6
802.11ax Link rate: up to 9.6 Gbit/s. Freq: 2.4 and 5 eight bi-directional (download AND upload) MU-MIMO streams , each stream 1.2 Gbit/s.
88
What is OFDMA?
Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access -- a feature of 802.11ax that solves Wi-Fi issues in crowded areas by creating a structural analog to cellular networks.
89

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