1101 Exam Part 4 Flashcards

(32 cards)

1
Q

What’s the difference between MDM and MAM?

A

Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users’ corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. MAMs focus on the application while MDMs focus on the device.

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2
Q

What’s the difference between Z-wave and Zigbee?

A

Z-Wave is a wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z-Wave creates a mesh network topology, using low-energy radio waves to communicate from one appliance to another. Devices can be configured to work as repeaters to extend the network but there is a limit of four hops between a controller device and an endpoint. This allows for wireless control of residential appliances and other devices, such as lighting control, security systems, thermostats, windows, locks, swimming pools, and garage door openers. Zigbee is a low-power wireless communications open-source protocol used primarily for home automation. Zigbee uses radio frequencies in the 2.4 GHz band and a mesh topology.

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3
Q

Which port should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access diontraining.com but can access the website by its IP address?

A

The Domain Name System (DNS) servers provide resolution of host and domain names to their IP addresses and are essential for locating resources on the Internet. Most local networks also use DNS for name resolution. Typically, the DNS server would be the gateway address, though this may not be the case on all networks. Often two DNS server addresses (preferred and alternate) are specified for redundancy. DNS operates over TCP/UDP port 53, and if that is blocked, the client will be unable to convert the domain name (diontraining.com) to its IP address.

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4
Q

What is TFTP and what port does it use?

A

The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. (NICE)

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5
Q

What is a loopback address?

A

In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1. The loopback address is used to send a test signal sent to a network destination to diagnose problems. It is not routable over the internet

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6
Q

What is a broadcast address?

A

A broadcast address is an IP address that is used to target all systems on a specific subnet network instead of single hosts.

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7
Q

What is a multicast address?

A

A multicast address is a logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network that are available to process datagrams or frames intended to be multicast for a designated network service.

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8
Q

How are IPv6 addresses summarized?

A

Using a :: symbol

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9
Q

What does a MAC address look like?

A

MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34

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10
Q

Describe a loopback plug

A

A loopback plug is used to test a port. It involves connecting pin 1 to pin 3 and pin 2 to pin 6. You can do this either by rewiring the jack or twisting the relevant pairs together on a cable stub. Alternatively, you can purchase a prefabricated loopback plug. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software.

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11
Q

What is a CNAME?

A

A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME).

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12
Q

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) infrastructure?

A

A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection).

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13
Q

What is an optical network terminal?

A

An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.

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14
Q

What are the POE and POE+ standards?

A

Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points.

The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers.

The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets.

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15
Q

What is 802.11s?

A

The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology, where multiple APs are installed throughout a location advertising a single SSID. The APs are connected together using a wired network such as Ethernet, but users can connect to the APs via a wireless connection. Think of IEEE 802.11s as replacing wires with wireless links in the above scenario. That removes the infrastructure cost such as laying wires and maintaining them. Also, it enables flexibility in terms of moving the APs or installing new APs.

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16
Q

Which is larger – mini-ITX or micro-ATX?

A

Mini-ITX is the most commonly used form factor with HTPC systems because they require the smallest fans or passive cooling, which minimizes the noise produced by the system. A micro-ATX motherboard produces more heat and is larger than a mini-ITX motherboard. Micro-ATX motherboards also require a larger (and louder) fan to keep the system cooled, so it is a poor choice for an HTPC.

17
Q

What are the dimensions of a MicroATX motherboard?

A

The mATX (microATX) motherboard’s form factor is 9.6” x 9.6” in size (24 cm x 24 cm). The mATX form factor is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. An mATX motherboard is backward-compatible with the larger ATX motherboard since it contains the same mounting point locations as the full-size board.

18
Q

What are the dimensions of an ATX motherboard?

A

An ATX motherboard’s form factor is 12” x 9.6” in size (305mm x 244mm).

19
Q

What are the dimensions of an ITX motherboard?

A

Trick question! ITX is a series of form factors that began with the mini-ITX, but there is no specific size called ITX. The mITX (Mini-ITX) form factor is 6.7” x 6.7” in size (17 cm x 17cm). The mITX is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. These motherboards are usually used in computers designed for passive cooling and a low power consumption architecture, such as a home theater PC system.

20
Q

Which button on a desktop computer begins a reboot of the computer without power being removed from the computer’s components?

A

The reset button is usually located on the front panel of a desktop computer next to the power button. When the reset button is pressed, it allows the user to reboot the computer without releasing power from the system’s components. This is often used when software has malfunctioned and caused the computer to halt or lock up. The power button is used to shut down or put the computer to sleep. There is usually not a dedicated suspend or hibernate button, but these are instead provided as software buttons in the operating system.

21
Q

You are configuring a new server for a client. The client has purchased five 1 TB hard drives and would like the server’s storage system to provide redundancy and double fault tolerance. Which of the following configurations would BEST meet the client’s requirements?

A

RAID 10 provides for redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 5 is a redundant array of independent disks configuration that uses disk striping with parity, but it only provides single fault tolerance. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

22
Q

What is a Type 2 hypervisor?

A

A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing operating system.

23
Q

What is a Type 1 hypervisor?

A

A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as bare metal, uses a specialized hypervisor OS to run the virtual machines (such as VM Ware’s ESXi).

24
Q

How do you recalibrate a touchscreen laptop?

A

Tablet/laptops with touchscreen capability can be recalibrated from within the Windows Control Panel.

25
Jason's iPad only had 12% battery remaining at the end of the day, so he connected his iPad to the lightning cable and wall adapter last night before going to bed. In the morning, Jason tried to turn on the iPad, but it appeared to be completely powered down, and the battery was drained. Jason connected the lightning cable to his iPhone, and the iPhone began charging. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason that the iPad didn't charge overnight?
Since the iPad didn't charge overnight, but the iPhone could charge with the same wall adapter and lightning cable, so we must suspect that the charging port or the battery on the iPad is defective. Since the iPad's battery was working yesterday during the day (as noted by the 12% battery remaining at the end of the day), it is MOST likely that the charging port is defective.
26
What's a sign of an incorrect tension setting in an impact printer?
The tension setting being incorrect will lead to the paper pooling or bubbling up during feeding, but it wouldn’t necessarily cause creasing.
27
Peter is attempting to print to his office printer, but nothing comes out. Yesterday, his printer was working just fine. Peter does not notice any errors on the taskbar's printer icon. Which of the following actions should Peter try FIRST to solve this issue?
When this issue occurs, it is often because the system properly sent the print job to the print queue, but the print queue has become stuck. If no error is shown in the taskbar's printer icon, the user should open the print queue to determine if the print job has become stuck. If it is, then the print queue can be emptied or reset.
28
You are troubleshooting an issue with an impact printer in an automotive service department. The printer has begun to print unevenly. As the print head goes from left to right across the page, the printout goes from darker to lighter. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
An impact printer has teeth along the paper's edges that pull the paper along a tractor as it prints. This moves the paper up one line at a time. The print head moves from left to right across the page, impacting the print head through the ribbon to mark the paper. If the ribbon advance mechanism is defective, the ribbon will not advance as the print head goes across the page, leading to a lightening of the ink being marked on the paper. If the printer ribbon itself were worn out, it would be lighter in color as you went down the page (not from left to right).
29
Troubleshoot an issue where you can ping the server's IP, but you cannot access it by its domain name
Whenever you have an issue where you can ping the server's IP, but you cannot access it by its domain name, it has something to do with DNS(!!!!!!!!!). Being able to troubleshoot issues with internet connections is an important part of being an IT technician or administrator. The ipconfig /flushdns command provides you with a means to flush and reset the contents of the DNS client resolver cache. During DNS troubleshooting, if necessary, you can use this procedure to discard negative cache entries from the cache, as well as any other dynamically added entries. Resetting the cache does not eliminate entries that are preloaded from the local Hosts file. To eliminate those entries from the cache, remove them from the hosts.ini file instead.
30
What does S.M.A.R.T. stand for?
S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.
31
Describe defragging
Defragging is a simple process when file fragments are put together to speed up file access. File fragments are put together, and quality defragmentation utilities also assemble the free space into a single block to prevent future fragmentation. By defragmenting the hard drive, the server doesn't have to spend as much time accessing the information, and it can boot up faster.
32
A workstation in Dion Training’s conference room is experiencing an issue when trying to boot up. When the workstation is powered on, the workstation displays an error stating that a bootable device cannot be found. The technician enters the UEFI environment and sees that the hard disk drive is no longer being recognized by the system. The technician shut down the workstation, opened the case, and verified that the memory modules and cables are properly connected to the internal hard disk drive. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the workstation’s failure to recognize the internal hard disk drive?
If the hard drive fails, the workstation will experience data loss or fail to boot up. Since the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the internal hard disk drive, it has either failed or is disconnected. Since the technician verified the hard drive was properly cabled, the drive itself must have failed. If the boot order of the devices is incorrect, the system would still try to boot from each connected drive before issuing the no bootable device error message. If the system was overheating, it would cause intermittent reboots instead of failing to find a bootable device.