1101 Exam Part 3 Flashcards

(29 cards)

1
Q

Name the seven layers of the OSI model:

A
  • # 1. The Physical Layer.
  • # 2. The Data Link Layer.
  • # 3. The Network Layer.
  • # 4. The Transport Layer.
  • # 5. The Session Layer.
  • # 6. The Presentation Layer.
  • # 7. The Application Layer.
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2
Q

A client states that their computer is experiencing slow performance when reading or writing to the hard drive. You have already verified that it is not a system (software) performance issue, and the system is not overheating. What would be the BEST action to take in attempting to fix this problem?

A

Slow performance can be a symptom of overheating or other problems. Since we eliminated overheating as the cause, the issue is most likely caused by a file system problem. To fix this problem, you should try running the disk repair tool or run the Disk Defragmenter tool (for non-SSD devices) to optimize the file system and read/write performance. Since there are no grinding or clicking sounds being observed, it is unlikely that the hard drive will fail soon making backing up the hard drive a lower priority. The system cooling fans are not the issue otherwise the system would be overheating.

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3
Q

What are the seven steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting model?

A

The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

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4
Q

What does a steady light mean on a NIC?

A

If the lights are steady on a network interface card (NIC), it indicates that there is no network activity. If it is blinking, this indicates that data is passing over the NIC to the network. Even if there were an incorrect TCP/IP configuration or intermittent connectivity, there would be blinking lights to indicate transmission attempts.

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5
Q

What is a router in the context of a network?

A

A router is a device that connects two or more packet-switched networks or subnetworks. It serves two primary functions: managing traffic between these networks by forwarding data packets to their intended IP addresses, and allowing multiple devices to use the same Internet connection.

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6
Q

Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. What device needs to be installed?

A

A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.

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7
Q

Dion Training recently hired a new graphic designer. You have been asked to install a new, high-end PCIe x16 graphics card into one of the standard corporate workstations so the new designer can get to work. After installing the card, you attempt to power on the computer. The computer makes some odd noises when you press the power button, but the monitor displays the words, ‘no source.’ What is MOST likely the issue?

A

High-end graphics cards generally require additional power to operate. Most corporate workstations come with minimal power supplies (usually 250-300 watts) that cannot provide the additional power required to operate a high-end graphics card. In this case, the power supply should be upgraded to at least a 500-750 watt power supply to support the new graphics card.

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8
Q

What’s the difference between a foul smell and a burning smell when diagnosing electronics failures?

A

A foul smell is usually indicative of a distended capacitor. Capacitors are small electrical components on the motherboard. Therefore you should inspect the motherboard for replacement. If there was a burning smell, then the power supply should be the first component inspected. A foul smell is usually indicative of a distended capacitor. Capacitors are small electrical components on the motherboard. Therefore you should inspect the motherboard for replacement. If there was a burning smell, then the power supply should be the first component inspected.

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9
Q

Difference between emulators and virtual machines

A

Emulators emulate hardware without relying on the CPU being able to run code directly. Virtual machines use CPU self-virtualization, to whatever extent it exists, to provide a virtualized interface to the real hardware. Emulators were created before virtualization and operate much slower than a true virtualization environment with a hypervisor.

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10
Q

What is HyperThreading?

A

HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits.

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11
Q

The Chief Financial Officer has asked Maria for a recommendation on how the company could reduce its software licensing costs while still maintaining the ability to access its application server remotely. What should Maria recommend?

A

A thin client is a small device that can operate with or without an operating system installed on the client device. Instead, it can boot directly from a network-based operating system on a common server and access applications on the company’s application server. This type of architecture can drastically reduce the need for operating system licenses and reduce deployment costs. A thin client runs from resources stored on a central server instead of a localized hard drive. Thin clients work by connecting remotely to a server-based computing environment where most applications, sensitive data, and memory are stored.

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12
Q

How many bits does a memory channel transfer?

A

64 per channel

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13
Q

A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has installed three 6 TB hard drives operating at 7200 RPM in a RAID 5 configuration. How much usable storage space is contained in this NAS?

A

A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. Since the NAS uses a RAID 5 configuration, it is a stripped array with parity. The three 6 TB HDDs are installed, but 33% of the storage capacity will store the parity information. This leaves only 12 TB of usable storage space in the NAS when using the RAID 5 configuration.

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14
Q

Explain each acronym: AES, FDE, PAM, TPM

A

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based cryptographic processing component that is a part of the motherboard. A Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) is a device that looks like a USB thumb drive and is used as a software key in cryptography. Full Disk Encryption (FDE) can be hardware or software-based. Therefore, it isn’t the right answer. The Advanced Encryption System (AES) is a cryptographic algorithm. Therefore, it isn’t a hardware solution.

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15
Q

What are the front connectors on a motherboard?

A

This area connects the various wires to the front panel to include the LED activity lights for the hard disk drive and the power/reset buttons.

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16
Q

A computer technician is building a server that will run multiple virtual machines simultaneously. Which CPU technology should be selected so that the processor can utilize two logical cores?

A

HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. This allows the system to run multiple cores for each operating system in a virtualized environment. Since the question asked about logical cores and not physical cores, the answer is hyperthreading and not a multi-core processor.

17
Q

Describe a Molex connector

A

A Molex connector provides DC power to the various drives inside a computer case. Molex and Mini-Molex are both 4-pins connectors, with Mini-Molex only being used to support floppy disk drives. The large-sized one is used for hard disk drives, CD-ROM drives, and DVD drives.

18
Q

Explain the differences between a serial cable, a patch cable, a crossover cable, and a straight-through cable

A

A crossover cable should be used to connect two similar devices (PC to PC, Router to Router, Switch to Switch, etc.) to create a network. For an ethernet cable, this should be a network cable with a T568A wiring standard on one end and a T568B wiring standard on the other end of the cable to create a crossover cable.

A straight-through or patch cable is a network cable that uses the same wiring standard on both ends such as T568A to 5T568A or T568B to T568B.

A serial cable is a data cable that transmits data a single bit at a time. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable.

19
Q

Why does a crossover cable work the way it does?

A

A crossover cable is used to connect like network devices directly to each other, such as two computers or two switches, without the need for a hub or router in between. It does this by swapping the transmit and receive pairs in the Ethernet cable, allowing the devices to communicate directly.

20
Q

What is Firewire?

A

FireWire is a serial SCSI connection that uses a D-shaped connector that supports up to 800 Mbps of bandwidth.

21
Q

What is the IPP and how is it different from LPP?

A

The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.

22
Q

Explain 2.4 GHz wireless channels

A

The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.

23
Q

Which of the following types of networks would be created if a wireless access point, a microwave link, and a satellite link were combined in a mesh?

A

The 802.11s standard defines a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN). Unlike an ad hoc network, nodes in a WMN (called Mesh Stations) can discover one another and peer, forming a Mesh Basic Service Set (MBSS). The mesh stations can perform path discovery and forwarding between peers, using a routing protocol, such as the Hybrid Wireless Mesh Protocol (HWMP). A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders.

24
Q

Which technologies are used in licensed vs. unlicensed long-range fixed wireless?

A

Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system. Conversely, a user could purchase a licensed cellular fixed wireless system that requires a license from the FCC to operate to ensure they are not interfering with other users and services in the same frequency band.

25
Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?
The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.
26
Differences between 5.0 GHz and 2.5 GHz in WiFi
The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. This longer wavelength gives the 2.4 GHz frequency the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels.
27
Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz frequency band and reaches up to 11 Mbps speeds?
The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps.
28
What is the difference between a port replicator and a docking station?
A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop.
29
What is an inverter in an LCD panel?
The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight.