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Path questions imperialendo.co.uk > Infections > Flashcards

Infections Flashcards

1
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Coxsackie Virus
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • West Nile Virus
  • Naegleria fowleri
  • Toxoplasm Gondii
  • Meningococcus
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • H. Influenzae
  • Herpes Simplex
  • Candida

A 6 month old boy presents in A&E with a headache, stiff neck and a non-specific rash. He was covering his eyes with his hands

A

Coxsackie virus

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2
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Coxsackie Virus
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • West Nile Virus
  • Naegleria fowleri
  • Toxoplasm Gondii
  • Meningococcus
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • H. Influenzae
  • Herpes Simplex
  • Candida

32 year old male’s CT scan shows enhancement of the basal cistern and meninges. He is HIV positive

A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

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3
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Coxsackie Virus
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • West Nile Virus
  • Naegleria fowleri
  • Toxoplasm Gondii
  • Meningococcus
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • H. Influenzae
  • Herpes Simplex
  • Candida

CSF aspiration of this patient appeared turbid. The protein content was >0.6g/l and the glucose level was 0.5mmol/l

A

Meningococcus

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4
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Coxsackie Virus
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • West Nile Virus
  • Naegleria fowleri
  • Toxoplasm Gondii
  • Meningococcus
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • H. Influenzae
  • Herpes Simplex
  • Candida

This pathogen is treated with cefotaxime

A

H. Influenzae

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5
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Coxsackie Virus
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • West Nile Virus
  • Naegleria fowleri
  • Toxoplasm Gondii
  • Meningococcus
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • H. Influenzae
  • Herpes Simplex
  • Candida

The CSF of this patient was sent for a special bacteriological staining

A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

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6
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Amophotericin B
  • Echinocandins
  • Aspergillosis
  • Fluconazole
  • Blastomycosis
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Candida endophthalmitis
  • Pulmonary cryptococcal infection
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Cryptococcosis neoformans
  • Voriconazole
  • Cryptococcus gattii
  • Zygomyces
  • Dermatophyte

A young infant has generalized candidiasis with notable involvement of body creases (groin, axillae, neck, cubital fossae). What is this secondary to?

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis

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7
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Amophotericin B
  • Echinocandins
  • Aspergillosis
  • Fluconazole
  • Blastomycosis
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Candida endophthalmitis
  • Pulmonary cryptococcal infection
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Cryptococcosis neoformans
  • Voriconazole
  • Cryptococcus gattii
  • Zygomyces
  • Dermatophyte

48 year old lady presents to A&E with fever, fatigue, vomiting, headache, confusion and neck stiffness. Her notes reveals that she is HIV positive. A lumbar puncture was performed. Which organism was revealed on examination of the CSF?

A

Cryptococcosis neoformans

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8
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Amophotericin B
  • Echinocandins
  • Aspergillosis
  • Fluconazole
  • Blastomycosis
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Candida endophthalmitis
  • Pulmonary cryptococcal infection
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Cryptococcosis neoformans
  • Voriconazole
  • Cryptococcus gattii
  • Zygomyces
  • Dermatophyte

83 year old man, who wears dentures, presents with thick white deposits on his oral mucous membranes. Microscopy shows the organism is Candida albicans. What anti-fungal drug should he be started on?

A

Fluconazole

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9
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Amophotericin B
  • Echinocandins
  • Aspergillosis
  • Fluconazole
  • Blastomycosis
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Candida endophthalmitis
  • Pulmonary cryptococcal infection
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Cryptococcosis neoformans
  • Voriconazole
  • Cryptococcus gattii
  • Zygomyces
  • Dermatophyte

41 year old man recently had a stem cell transplant. A CT scan of his thorax showed several nodules demonstrating the “halo sign”. What condition does this CT scan suggest?

A

Aspergillosis

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10
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Amophotericin B
  • Echinocandins
  • Aspergillosis
  • Fluconazole
  • Blastomycosis
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Candida endophthalmitis
  • Pulmonary cryptococcal infection
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Cryptococcosis neoformans
  • Voriconazole
  • Cryptococcus gattii
  • Zygomyces
  • Dermatophyte

This antifungal works by stimulating cell death. It does this by creating pores in the cell membrane, causing leakage of electrolytes and cytoplasm.

A

Amophotericin B

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11
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Histoplasma Capsulatum
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii
  • Microsporum audoni
  • Trichophyton rubrum
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Fusarium spp.
  • Coccoides immitis
  • Candida albicans
  • Malassezia furfur
  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Rhizopus arrhizus
  • Blastomyces dermatitidis
  • Aspergillus niger
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Coccidioides immitis
  • Epidermophyton floccosum

A 19 year old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the GP with a 6 week history of a rash. Examination reveals patchy hypopigmentation over the arms, trunk and neck.

A

Malassezia furfur

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12
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Histoplasma Capsulatum
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii
  • Microsporum audoni
  • Trichophyton rubrum
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Fusarium spp.
  • Coccoides immitis
  • Candida albicans
  • Malassezia furfur
  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Rhizopus arrhizus
  • Blastomyces dermatitidis
  • Aspergillus niger
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Coccidioides immitis
  • Epidermophyton floccosum

A 45 year old businessman presents with pain and blurred vision in his right eye. He remembers something hitting him in the eye when tending to his uncle’s farm while on holiday in India.

A

Fusarium spp.

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13
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Histoplasma Capsulatum
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii
  • Microsporum audoni
  • Trichophyton rubrum
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Fusarium spp.
  • Coccoides immitis
  • Candida albicans
  • Malassezia furfur
  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Rhizopus arrhizus
  • Blastomyces dermatitidis
  • Aspergillus niger
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Coccidioides immitis
  • Epidermophyton floccosum

A 38 year old HIV-positive woman presents with fever, headache and confusion. Several weeks ago she had a cough. India ink staining of her CSF revealed budding yeast cells surrounded by a wide gelatinous capsule.

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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14
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Histoplasma Capsulatum
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii
  • Microsporum audoni
  • Trichophyton rubrum
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Fusarium spp.
  • Coccoides immitis
  • Candida albicans
  • Malassezia furfur
  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Rhizopus arrhizus
  • Blastomyces dermatitidis
  • Aspergillus niger
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Coccidioides immitis
  • Epidermophyton floccosum

A 52 year old man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with fever, facial pain and black nasal discharge. He is given amphotericin B and posaconazole, and sent for urgent surgical debridement.

A

Rhizopus arrhizus

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15
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Histoplasma Capsulatum
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii
  • Microsporum audoni
  • Trichophyton rubrum
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Fusarium spp.
  • Coccoides immitis
  • Candida albicans
  • Malassezia furfur
  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Rhizopus arrhizus
  • Blastomyces dermatitidis
  • Aspergillus niger
  • Candida tropicalis
  • Coccidioides immitis
  • Epidermophyton floccosum

A 10 year old girl presents with cough, fever, pleuritic chest pain and haemoptysis 1 month after an allogeneic bone marrow transplant for leukaemia. CXR shows multiple pulmonary nodules. Sputum cultured on Sabouraud’s agar produces green colonies with white periphery.

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

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16
Q

Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.

  • Clindamycin 600mg TID
  • Albendazole 400mg BID
  • Mebendazole 100mg BID
  • Mebendazole 250mg BID
  • Quinine 650mg TID
  • Metronidazole 500mg TID
  • Metronidazole 250mg TID
  • Tetracycline 500mg QID
  • Amphotericin B
  • Nitazoxanide 250mg BID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg BID
  • Metronidazole 125mg TID
  • Doxycycline 100mg BID
  • Doxycycline 500mg BID
  • Tetracycline 250mg QID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg TID

Giardia lamblia

A

Metronidazole 250mg TID

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17
Q

Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.

  • Clindamycin 600mg TID
  • Albendazole 400mg BID
  • Mebendazole 100mg BID
  • Mebendazole 250mg BID
  • Quinine 650mg TID
  • Metronidazole 500mg TID
  • Metronidazole 250mg TID
  • Tetracycline 500mg QID
  • Amphotericin B
  • Nitazoxanide 250mg BID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg BID
  • Metronidazole 125mg TID
  • Doxycycline 100mg BID
  • Doxycycline 500mg BID
  • Tetracycline 250mg QID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg TID

Cryptosporidium parvum

A

Nitazoxanide 500mg BID

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18
Q

Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.

  • Clindamycin 600mg TID
  • Albendazole 400mg BID
  • Mebendazole 100mg BID
  • Mebendazole 250mg BID
  • Quinine 650mg TID
  • Metronidazole 500mg TID
  • Metronidazole 250mg TID
  • Tetracycline 500mg QID
  • Amphotericin B
  • Nitazoxanide 250mg BID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg BID
  • Metronidazole 125mg TID
  • Doxycycline 100mg BID
  • Doxycycline 500mg BID
  • Tetracycline 250mg QID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg TID

Entamoeba histolytica

A

Metronidazole 500mg TID

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19
Q

Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.

  • Clindamycin 600mg TID
  • Albendazole 400mg BID
  • Mebendazole 100mg BID
  • Mebendazole 250mg BID
  • Quinine 650mg TID
  • Metronidazole 500mg TID
  • Metronidazole 250mg TID
  • Tetracycline 500mg QID
  • Amphotericin B
  • Nitazoxanide 250mg BID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg BID
  • Metronidazole 125mg TID
  • Doxycycline 100mg BID
  • Doxycycline 500mg BID
  • Tetracycline 250mg QID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg TID

Leishmania (mucosal)

A

Amphotericin B

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20
Q

Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.

  • Clindamycin 600mg TID
  • Albendazole 400mg BID
  • Mebendazole 100mg BID
  • Mebendazole 250mg BID
  • Quinine 650mg TID
  • Metronidazole 500mg TID
  • Metronidazole 250mg TID
  • Tetracycline 500mg QID
  • Amphotericin B
  • Nitazoxanide 250mg BID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg BID
  • Metronidazole 125mg TID
  • Doxycycline 100mg BID
  • Doxycycline 500mg BID
  • Tetracycline 250mg QID
  • Nitazoxanide 500mg TID

Balantidium coli

A

Tetracycline 500mg QID

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21
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pneumonitis jiroveci
  • Cutaneous larva migrans
  • Filariasis
  • Cryptosporidiosis
  • Scabies
  • Candidiasis
  • Salmonella
  • Ascariasis
  • Taenia saginata
  • Schistosomiasis
  • Giardiasis
  • Amoebic liver abscess
  • Crab lice
  • Malaria
  • Cysticercosis
  • Tinea pedis

A teenager presents to the GP with a one week history of intense pruritus. O/E you find a thin linear red burrow tracking along the dorsal aspect of the elbow.

A

Scabies

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22
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pneumonitis jiroveci
  • Cutaneous larva migrans
  • Filariasis
  • Cryptosporidiosis
  • Scabies
  • Candidiasis
  • Salmonella
  • Ascariasis
  • Taenia saginata
  • Schistosomiasis
  • Giardiasis
  • Amoebic liver abscess
  • Crab lice
  • Malaria
  • Cysticercosis
  • Tinea pedis

A 38-year-old female care home worker presents to the GP with a one week history of cramping, bloating and diarrhoea. She says her symptoms worsen when she drinks milk.

A

Giardiasis

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23
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pneumonitis jiroveci
  • Cutaneous larva migrans
  • Filariasis
  • Cryptosporidiosis
  • Scabies
  • Candidiasis
  • Salmonella
  • Ascariasis
  • Taenia saginata
  • Schistosomiasis
  • Giardiasis
  • Amoebic liver abscess
  • Crab lice
  • Malaria
  • Cysticercosis
  • Tinea pedis

A 42-year-old male presents to the A&E complaining of RUQ abdominal pain and dysentery. When asked he tells you he has recently returned from a business trip in Nigeria. An ultrasound is done which shows a mass in the liver.

A

Amoebic liver abscess

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24
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pneumonitis jiroveci
  • Cutaneous larva migrans
  • Filariasis
  • Cryptosporidiosis
  • Scabies
  • Candidiasis
  • Salmonella
  • Ascariasis
  • Taenia saginata
  • Schistosomiasis
  • Giardiasis
  • Amoebic liver abscess
  • Crab lice
  • Malaria
  • Cysticercosis
  • Tinea pedis

A 25-year-old male presents to the A&E with severe watery diarrhoea, cramping and fever. He is confused. Upon questioning he tells you he is HIV positive.

A

Cryptosporidiosis

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25
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pneumonitis jiroveci
  • Cutaneous larva migrans
  • Filariasis
  • Cryptosporidiosis
  • Scabies
  • Candidiasis
  • Salmonella
  • Ascariasis
  • Taenia saginata
  • Schistosomiasis
  • Giardiasis
  • Amoebic liver abscess
  • Crab lice
  • Malaria
  • Cysticercosis
  • Tinea pedis

A 19-year-old presents to the A&E in a prolonged seizure. His mother says it has never happened before. On further questioning she tells you they are recently returned from Africa and her son had been complaining of headaches, dizziness and diarrhoea.

A

Cysticercosis

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26
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Candida Albicans
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Varicella Zoster virus
  • HHV 8
  • JC Virus
  • Molluscum contagiosum
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • Pneumocystic Jiroveci
  • Scabies

A child previously diagnosed with HIV presents with a non-itchy, thick scaly rash on their limbs, trunk and scalp.

A

Scabies

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27
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Candida Albicans
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Varicella Zoster virus
  • HHV 8
  • JC Virus
  • Molluscum contagiosum
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • Pneumocystic Jiroveci
  • Scabies

A 9 year old child is brought to your clinic with gradually worsening weakness and speech difficulties. When you examine him you notice increasing visual loss and cognitive deterioration.

A

JC Virus

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28
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Candida Albicans
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Varicella Zoster virus
  • HHV 8
  • JC Virus
  • Molluscum contagiosum
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • Pneumocystic Jiroveci
  • Scabies

A neonate presents with poor feeding and failure to thrive. You notice white deposits on her gums.

A

Candida Albicans

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29
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Candida Albicans
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Varicella Zoster virus
  • HHV 8
  • JC Virus
  • Molluscum contagiosum
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • Pneumocystic Jiroveci
  • Scabies

After several weeks of malaise and a low fever, a 14 year old boy presents to your clinic with increasing dyspnoea and a dry cough. A CXR shows widespread pulmonary infiltrates.

A

Pneumocystic Jiroveci

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30
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Candida Albicans
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Varicella Zoster virus
  • HHV 8
  • JC Virus
  • Molluscum contagiosum
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • Pneumocystic Jiroveci
  • Scabies

A 6 year old boy with bilateral parotid swelling and raised papules around his mouth with scarring present where his parents report he has been scratching the rash.

A

Molluscum contagiosum

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31
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • CCR7
  • dsDNA
  • RTIP
  • CCR5
  • dsRNA
  • gp121
  • gp41
  • ssDNA
  • NNRTI
  • gp120
  • CD4
  • CD20
  • ssRNA
  • gp70
  • CD8
  • NNPTI

HIV surface protein essential for HIV entry into cells

A

gp120

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32
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • CCR7
  • dsDNA
  • RTIP
  • CCR5
  • dsRNA
  • gp121
  • gp41
  • ssDNA
  • NNRTI
  • gp120
  • CD4
  • CD20
  • ssRNA
  • gp70
  • CD8
  • NNPTI

Co-receptor for HIV entry into cells. Mutations in this receptor can give some protection to certain HIV strains.

A

CCR5

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33
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • CCR7
  • dsDNA
  • RTIP
  • CCR5
  • dsRNA
  • gp121
  • gp41
  • ssDNA
  • NNRTI
  • gp120
  • CD4
  • CD20
  • ssRNA
  • gp70
  • CD8
  • NNPTI

Class of drugs used in HIV

A

NNRTI

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34
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • CCR7
  • dsDNA
  • RTIP
  • CCR5
  • dsRNA
  • gp121
  • gp41
  • ssDNA
  • NNRTI
  • gp120
  • CD4
  • CD20
  • ssRNA
  • gp70
  • CD8
  • NNPTI

Genome of HIV

A

ssDNA

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35
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • CCR7
  • dsDNA
  • RTIP
  • CCR5
  • dsRNA
  • gp121
  • gp41
  • ssDNA
  • NNRTI
  • gp120
  • CD4
  • CD20
  • ssRNA
  • gp70
  • CD8
  • NNPTI

HIV transmembrane protein essential for entry into cells

A

gp41

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36
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pseudomembranous candidiasis
  • Measles
  • Hyperplastic candidiasis
  • Scabies
  • Oral hairy leukoplakia
  • Atrophic candidiasis
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Dental caries
  • Varicella zoster virus
  • TB

A 4-year-old HIV-infected boy presents to a clinic with a 3-day history of buccal lesions. Today, his parents have also noticed a rash, fever and cough.

A

Measles

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37
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pseudomembranous candidiasis
  • Measles
  • Hyperplastic candidiasis
  • Scabies
  • Oral hairy leukoplakia
  • Atrophic candidiasis
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Dental caries
  • Varicella zoster virus
  • TB

A 39-year-old HIV-infected woman presents to the clinic with burning discomfort in her mouth accentuated by acidic or spicy food. On examination, there are bright red lesions on her palate and tongue with depapillated areas.

A

Atrophic candidiasis

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38
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pseudomembranous candidiasis
  • Measles
  • Hyperplastic candidiasis
  • Scabies
  • Oral hairy leukoplakia
  • Atrophic candidiasis
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Dental caries
  • Varicella zoster virus
  • TB

A 25-year-old HIV-infected male during a routine appointment on examination has white bilateral lesions on his tongue unaffected by scraping with a tongue blade.

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

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39
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pseudomembranous candidiasis
  • Measles
  • Hyperplastic candidiasis
  • Scabies
  • Oral hairy leukoplakia
  • Atrophic candidiasis
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Dental caries
  • Varicella zoster virus
  • TB

A 25-year-old HIV-infected male presents to clinic with a two-day history of severe chest pain and a papular rash in a dermatomal distribution. He began antiretroviral therapy 2 months ago.

A

Varicella zoster virus

40
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Pseudomembranous candidiasis
  • Measles
  • Hyperplastic candidiasis
  • Scabies
  • Oral hairy leukoplakia
  • Atrophic candidiasis
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Dental caries
  • Varicella zoster virus
  • TB

A 18-year-old HIV-infected woman presents with a 5-week history of ulcerated lesions on her ear and tongue, which have become increasingly painful.

A

Herpes simplex virus

41
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • MRSA
  • Psuedomonas aeuruginosa
  • Clostridium Difficile
  • Kiebsella
  • Aspergillus Fumigatus
  • Candida Albicans
  • MSSA
  • Salmonella Enteriditis
  • Pneumococcal pnuemoniae
  • Legionella
  • Escheria Coli
  • VRE

67 year old man currently being treated with antibiotics on respiratory ward develops diarrhoea.

A

Clostridium Difficile

42
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • MRSA
  • Psuedomonas aeuruginosa
  • Clostridium Difficile
  • Kiebsella
  • Aspergillus Fumigatus
  • Candida Albicans
  • MSSA
  • Salmonella Enteriditis
  • Pneumococcal pnuemoniae
  • Legionella
  • Escheria Coli
  • VRE

89 year old woman who has recently undergone orthopaedic surgery develops fever and cystitis. Staff noticed that she seems to be more confused.

A

Escherichia Coli

43
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • MRSA
  • Psuedomonas aeuruginosa
  • Clostridium Difficile
  • Kiebsella
  • Aspergillus Fumigatus
  • Candida Albicans
  • MSSA
  • Salmonella Enteriditis
  • Pneumococcal pnuemoniae
  • Legionella
  • Escheria Coli
  • VRE

Gram negative motile coccobacilli isolated from a patient currently in ITU, who doctors suspect has developed pneumonia

A

Psuedomonas aeuruginosa

44
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • MRSA
  • Psuedomonas aeuruginosa
  • Clostridium Difficile
  • Kiebsella
  • Aspergillus Fumigatus
  • Candida Albicans
  • MSSA
  • Salmonella Enteriditis
  • Pneumococcal pnuemoniae
  • Legionella
  • Escheria Coli
  • VRE

44 year old woman currently taking ciprofloxacin for a respiratory tract infection develops fever and malaise. She also complains of small, red bumps on the back of her hand.

A

MRSA

45
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • MRSA
  • Psuedomonas aeuruginosa
  • Clostridium Difficile
  • Kiebsella
  • Aspergillus Fumigatus
  • Candida Albicans
  • MSSA
  • Salmonella Enteriditis
  • Pneumococcal pnuemoniae
  • Legionella
  • Escheria Coli
  • VRE

38 year old currently being treated for cancer complains of odynophagia. Endoscopy shows white plaques of the oesophageal mucosa

A

Candida Albicans

46
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Artesunate
  • Plasmodium Knowlesi
  • Gametocytes
  • Plasmodium Malariae
  • Hydoxychloroquine
  • Plasmodium Ovale
  • Hypnozoites
  • Plasmodium Vivax
  • Maurer’s Clefts
  • Primaquine
  • Mefloquine
  • Schuffner’s dots
  • Merozites
  • Sporozoites
  • Plasmodium Falciparam

A sixth form student travels back from India after attending a family wedding. It has been two weeks since he has returned and now has a fever every 4 days. A diagnosis of malaria is confirmed, what is the likely organism?

A

Plasmodium Malariae

47
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Artesunate
  • Plasmodium Knowlesi
  • Gametocytes
  • Plasmodium Malariae
  • Hydoxychloroquine
  • Plasmodium Ovale
  • Hypnozoites
  • Plasmodium Vivax
  • Maurer’s Clefts
  • Primaquine
  • Mefloquine
  • Schuffner’s dots
  • Merozites
  • Sporozoites
  • Plasmodium Falciparam

The aim of this therapeutic agent is to kill the hypnozoites in liver in non-falciparum malaria.

A

Primaquine

48
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Artesunate
  • Plasmodium Knowlesi
  • Gametocytes
  • Plasmodium Malariae
  • Hydoxychloroquine
  • Plasmodium Ovale
  • Hypnozoites
  • Plasmodium Vivax
  • Maurer’s Clefts
  • Primaquine
  • Mefloquine
  • Schuffner’s dots
  • Merozites
  • Sporozoites
  • Plasmodium Falciparam

What stage of the parasitic life cycle that is found within the salvia of the female Anopheles mosquito?

A

Sporozoites

49
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Artesunate
  • Plasmodium Knowlesi
  • Gametocytes
  • Plasmodium Malariae
  • Hydoxychloroquine
  • Plasmodium Ovale
  • Hypnozoites
  • Plasmodium Vivax
  • Maurer’s Clefts
  • Primaquine
  • Mefloquine
  • Schuffner’s dots
  • Merozites
  • Sporozoites
  • Plasmodium Falciparam

A patient returns from West Africa. When looking under light microscopy at erythrocytes, large coarse disc like granulations are observed. What are these inclusions called?

A

Maurer’s Clefts

50
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Artesunate
  • Plasmodium Knowlesi
  • Gametocytes
  • Plasmodium Malariae
  • Hydoxychloroquine
  • Plasmodium Ovale
  • Hypnozoites
  • Plasmodium Vivax
  • Maurer’s Clefts
  • Primaquine
  • Mefloquine
  • Schuffner’s dots
  • Merozites
  • Sporozoites
  • Plasmodium Falciparam

A gap year student returns back from the Borneo after completing the “World Challenge” after returning 12days ago he has a daily fever. What is the likely infective organism?

A

Plasmodium Knowlesi

51
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Mycobacterium Bovis
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • Mycobacterium Marinum
  • Myobacterium Ulcerans

A 16 year old UK school girl presents with supraclavicular and axillary lymph node swelling, with intermittent fevers, after taking a routine BCG vaccination. What is the likely causative organism?

A

Mycobacterium Bovis

52
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Mycobacterium Bovis
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • Mycobacterium Marinum
  • Myobacterium Ulcerans

A 22 year old woman comes into his GP after holiday in Peru with a painless ulcer on her leg. Examination revealed no lymphadenopathy, but there was some underlying oedema noted. What is the likely causative organism?

A

Myobacterium Ulcerans

53
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Rotavirus
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Gingivostomatitis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Respiratory syncitial virus
  • Bordetella purtussis
  • Ritter’s disease
  • Measles
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Shigella sonnei
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Rhinovirus

The parents of a 5 year old girl bring her to A&E. She has a sunburn-like rash that covers his entire body. You notice bullae and areas of skin desquamation. Her parents mention that she had a terrible throat infection a week ago.

A

Ritter’s disease (Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome)

54
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Rotavirus
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Gingivostomatitis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Respiratory syncitial virus
  • Bordetella purtussis
  • Ritter’s disease
  • Measles
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Shigella sonnei
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Rhinovirus

A 7 year old boy presents with profuse watery diarrhoea. His parents mention that several kids from his school have also been having diarrhoea over the last 2 weeks.

A

Rotavirus

55
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Rotavirus
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Gingivostomatitis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Respiratory syncitial virus
  • Bordetella purtussis
  • Ritter’s disease
  • Measles
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Shigella sonnei
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Rhinovirus

A 14 year old boy presents with a history of episodic paroxysms of violent coughing followed by a loud inspiratory whoop.

A

Bordetella purtussis

56
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Rotavirus
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Gingivostomatitis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Respiratory syncitial virus
  • Bordetella purtussis
  • Ritter’s disease
  • Measles
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Shigella sonnei
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Rhinovirus

A 19 year old lady brings her 6 month old baby to see you in clinic. The child has been having recurrent nasal discharges and snuffles over the last 3 months. On examination you notice a bullous rash with areas of desquamation over the hands and feet. The child also has a palpable liver.

A

Treponema pallidum

57
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Rotavirus
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Gingivostomatitis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Respiratory syncitial virus
  • Bordetella purtussis
  • Ritter’s disease
  • Measles
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Shigella sonnei
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Rhinovirus

The parents of an 8 year old girl bring her to see you in clinic. She has had a fever and has been reluctant to eat over the last week. On examination you notice nasal flaring.

A

Respiratory syncitial virus

58
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aciclovir
  • VZIG
  • Foscarnet
  • Wait and watch
  • Gancyclovir
  • Zanamivir
  • Inteferon-alpha
  • Oseltamivir
  • Ribavarin
  • Rituximab
  • Valaciclovir

42 year old HIV patient presents with blurred vision. Fundoscopy shows pizza pie retina

A

Gancyclovir

59
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aciclovir
  • VZIG
  • Foscarnet
  • Wait and watch
  • Gancyclovir
  • Zanamivir
  • Inteferon-alpha
  • Oseltamivir
  • Ribavarin
  • Rituximab
  • Valaciclovir

72 year old intubated ITU patient with Influenza A

A

Zanamivir

60
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aciclovir
  • VZIG
  • Foscarnet
  • Wait and watch
  • Gancyclovir
  • Zanamivir
  • Inteferon-alpha
  • Oseltamivir
  • Ribavarin
  • Rituximab
  • Valaciclovir

Treatment for Post Transplant Lymphoproliferative disease

A

Rituximab

61
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aciclovir
  • VZIG
  • Foscarnet
  • Wait and watch
  • Gancyclovir
  • Zanamivir
  • Inteferon-alpha
  • Oseltamivir
  • Ribavarin
  • Rituximab
  • Valaciclovir

23 year old male with a vesicular rash “down below”

A

Aciclovir

62
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aciclovir
  • VZIG
  • Foscarnet
  • Wait and watch
  • Gancyclovir
  • Zanamivir
  • Inteferon-alpha
  • Oseltamivir
  • Ribavarin
  • Rituximab
  • Valaciclovir

32 year old pregnant women with a child who developed chickenpox 3 days ago

A

VZIG

63
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • H1N1
  • Influenzavirus A
  • H1N1 & H1N2
  • Influenzavirus A & B
  • H1N1 & H3N2 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus B
  • H1N1 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus C
  • H1N2
  • H3N2
  • H5N1
  • H7N7

The current influenza vaccine contains antigens representing these virus strains

A

H1N1 & H3N2 & Influenzavirus B

64
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • H1N1
  • Influenzavirus A
  • H1N1 & H1N2
  • Influenzavirus A & B
  • H1N1 & H3N2 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus B
  • H1N1 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus C
  • H1N2
  • H3N2
  • H5N1
  • H7N7

The main hosts of this strain of virus are seals, birds, pigs and horses; however it has also infected humans with a low mortality rate.

A

H7N7

65
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • H1N1
  • Influenzavirus A
  • H1N1 & H1N2
  • Influenzavirus A & B
  • H1N1 & H3N2 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus B
  • H1N1 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus C
  • H1N2
  • H3N2
  • H5N1
  • H7N7

This type of influenza virus is the most virulent and causes the most severe disease

A

Influenzavirus A

66
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • H1N1
  • Influenzavirus A
  • H1N1 & H1N2
  • Influenzavirus A & B
  • H1N1 & H3N2 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus B
  • H1N1 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus C
  • H1N2
  • H3N2
  • H5N1
  • H7N7

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) can be used to treat the predominant strains of these types of influenza

A

Influenzavirus A & B

67
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • H1N1
  • Influenzavirus A
  • H1N1 & H1N2
  • Influenzavirus A & B
  • H1N1 & H3N2 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus B
  • H1N1 & Influenzavirus B
  • Influenzavirus C
  • H1N2
  • H3N2
  • H5N1
  • H7N7

Also known as ‘bird flu’, a strain of this subtype has a 50% mortality rate in humans

A

H5N1

68
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • TNFα
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • CD8 lymphocytes
  • IFNγ
  • Gag p24
  • Fas/FasL
  • Macrophages
  • Anti-gp120 and anti-gp41
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • NK cells
  • CCR5 and CXCR4
  • IL-2
  • Dendritic cells

Co-receptor molecules used in addition to CD4 by the HIV molecule to enter cells.

A

CCR5 and CXCR4

69
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • TNFα
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • CD8 lymphocytes
  • IFNγ
  • Gag p24
  • Fas/FasL
  • Macrophages
  • Anti-gp120 and anti-gp41
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • NK cells
  • CCR5 and CXCR4
  • IL-2
  • Dendritic cells

Antibodies produced in response to HIV infection during initial adaptive immune response

A

Anti-gp120 and anti-gp41

70
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • TNFα
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • CD8 lymphocytes
  • IFNγ
  • Gag p24
  • Fas/FasL
  • Macrophages
  • Anti-gp120 and anti-gp41
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • NK cells
  • CCR5 and CXCR4
  • IL-2
  • Dendritic cells

Secretion of chemokines that block this is a proposed mechanism for long-term non-progression in those infected with HIV.

A

CCR5 and CXCR4

71
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • TNFα
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • CD8 lymphocytes
  • IFNγ
  • Gag p24
  • Fas/FasL
  • Macrophages
  • Anti-gp120 and anti-gp41
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • NK cells
  • CCR5 and CXCR4
  • IL-2
  • Dendritic cells

The progression of HIV-1 is followed by measuring the level of this.

A

CD4 lymphocytes

72
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • TNFα
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • CD8 lymphocytes
  • IFNγ
  • Gag p24
  • Fas/FasL
  • Macrophages
  • Anti-gp120 and anti-gp41
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • NK cells
  • CCR5 and CXCR4
  • IL-2
  • Dendritic cells

Non-specifically activated within hours of infection.

A

NK cells

73
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Neutrophils
  • CD3
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • Gp120
  • CD8 Lymphocytes
  • Chemokine
  • Dendritic cells
  • CCR5
  • Memory B cells
  • DNA polymerase
  • Natural killer cells
  • RNA polymerase
  • CD8
  • DNA ligase
  • CD4
  • DNA integrase

HIV virus primarily infects and reduces the number of these cells.

A

CD4 lymphocytes

74
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Neutrophils
  • CD3
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • Gp120
  • CD8 Lymphocytes
  • Chemokine
  • Dendritic cells
  • CCR5
  • Memory B cells
  • DNA polymerase
  • Natural killer cells
  • RNA polymerase
  • CD8
  • DNA ligase
  • CD4
  • DNA integrase

HIV virus binds to this receptor on the macrophage cell surface.

A

CD4

75
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Neutrophils
  • CD3
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • Gp120
  • CD8 Lymphocytes
  • Chemokine
  • Dendritic cells
  • CCR5
  • Memory B cells
  • DNA polymerase
  • Natural killer cells
  • RNA polymerase
  • CD8
  • DNA ligase
  • CD4
  • DNA integrase

HIV binding is mediated by this molecule on its surface.

A

Gp120

76
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Neutrophils
  • CD3
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • Gp120
  • CD8 Lymphocytes
  • Chemokine
  • Dendritic cells
  • CCR5
  • Memory B cells
  • DNA polymerase
  • Natural killer cells
  • RNA polymerase
  • CD8
  • DNA ligase
  • CD4
  • DNA integrase

These cells mount the primary response to HIV targeting infected cells.

A

Natural killer cells

77
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Neutrophils
  • CD3
  • CD4 lymphocytes
  • Gp120
  • CD8 Lymphocytes
  • Chemokine
  • Dendritic cells
  • CCR5
  • Memory B cells
  • DNA polymerase
  • Natural killer cells
  • RNA polymerase
  • CD8
  • DNA ligase
  • CD4
  • DNA integrase

This enzyme is targeted in HAART.

A

DNA integrase

78
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • <50 cells/ul
  • Macrohages
  • <100 cells/ul
  • Rapid progressors
  • <200 cells/ul
  • Long-term non-progressors
  • <300 cells/ul
  • Exposed seronegative
  • DNA Ligase
  • gp120
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • CD4
  • DNA Polymerase
  • CCR5
  • CD4+ T Cells
  • CXCR5

Co-receptor molecule used by some strains HIV for entry into target cells

A

CCR5

79
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • <50 cells/ul
  • Macrohages
  • <100 cells/ul
  • Rapid progressors
  • <200 cells/ul
  • Long-term non-progressors
  • <300 cells/ul
  • Exposed seronegative
  • DNA Ligase
  • gp120
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • CD4
  • DNA Polymerase
  • CCR5
  • CD4+ T Cells
  • CXCR5

Enzymes used to generate cDNA from HIV RNA strands

A

Reverse transcriptase

80
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • <50 cells/ul
  • Macrohages
  • <100 cells/ul
  • Rapid progressors
  • <200 cells/ul
  • Long-term non-progressors
  • <300 cells/ul
  • Exposed seronegative
  • DNA Ligase
  • gp120
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • CD4
  • DNA Polymerase
  • CCR5
  • CD4+ T Cells
  • CXCR5

CD4 count at which AIDS is diagnosed

A

<200 cells/ul

81
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • <50 cells/ul
  • Macrohages
  • <100 cells/ul
  • Rapid progressors
  • <200 cells/ul
  • Long-term non-progressors
  • <300 cells/ul
  • Exposed seronegative
  • DNA Ligase
  • gp120
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • CD4
  • DNA Polymerase
  • CCR5
  • CD4+ T Cells
  • CXCR5

These individuals progress to AIDS within 2-3 years of acquiring HIV

A

Rapid progressors

82
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • <50 cells/ul
  • Macrohages
  • <100 cells/ul
  • Rapid progressors
  • <200 cells/ul
  • Long-term non-progressors
  • <300 cells/ul
  • Exposed seronegative
  • DNA Ligase
  • gp120
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • CD4
  • DNA Polymerase
  • CCR5
  • CD4+ T Cells
  • CXCR5

These individuals maintain stable CD4 T-Cells counts even after 10 years exposure to HIV

A

Exposed seronegative

83
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Coxiella burnetti
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Leigonella pneumophila
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Plasmodium falciparum

A retiring professor presents after returning from a trip to Singapore with a two-day history of flu-like illness. On examination his temperature is 38.6°C and there is increased tactile vocal fremitus and dullness to percussion on the right side of his lower chest.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

84
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Coxiella burnetti
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Leigonella pneumophila
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Plasmodium falciparum

A 37-year-old Bangladeshi fishmonger complains of a persistent dry cough that makes it difficult for him to get to sleep, despite wearing a very comfortable lungi. On examination he is afebrile and his cervical lymph nodes are slightly swollen.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

85
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Coxiella burnetti
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Leigonella pneumophila
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Plasmodium falciparum

An 18-year-old student has just returned from her gap year travels, trekking in Nepal. She tells you that on the plane journey back from her month-long trip, she started feeling feverish and “just chundered everywhere”. She is still feeling ill and is worried she won’t be able to attend all the freshers’ events at her university.

A

Plasmodium falciparum

86
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Coxiella burnetti
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Leigonella pneumophila
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Plasmodium falciparum

A 42-year-old plumber presents with a headache after a bout of flu-like illness. During your ‘systems review’ questioning you find he has also had diarrhoea and vomiting, but he thinks this is just the result of a water pipe in The Reynolds bursting in his face, and that he will recover from this soon.

A

Leigonella pneumophila

87
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Coxiella burnetti
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Leigonella pneumophila
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Plasmodium falciparum

A 20-year-old student presents with a 3-day history of increasing scrotal pain and dysuria. Your consultation is made difficult as he reports that he can’t recall anything that happened during Rugby tour at the weekend, only vague memories of a port bottle and something he really shouldn’t have done with a doughnut.

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

88
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Legionella pneumophilia
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Chlamydis psittaci
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Coxiella burnetii
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Escherichia coli
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Group B Strep (GBS)
  • Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
  • Haemophilus influenza
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

A 60 year old man presents to his GP with a flu-like illness. He is worried as his sputum is blood stained. However, he does not appear severely unwell. Due to his history of chronic bronchitis, the GP sends him to A&E for a CXR.

A

Haemophilus influenza

89
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Legionella pneumophilia
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Chlamydis psittaci
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Coxiella burnetii
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Escherichia coli
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Group B Strep (GBS)
  • Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
  • Haemophilus influenza
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

A 22 year old male student attends A&E complaining of fever, cough and shortness of breath. Upon examination, it is noted that he has a temperature of 38oC, sats 89% (OA) and a resp rate of 23. The blood culture showed a Gram positive cocci.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

90
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Legionella pneumophilia
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Chlamydis psittaci
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Coxiella burnetii
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Escherichia coli
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Group B Strep (GBS)
  • Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
  • Haemophilus influenza
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

A 60 year old female is brought to A&E by her family as they are worried of her deteriorating condition. In the past couple of days, she has been having fever and a cough. However, she has now become confused and is complaining of abdominal pains. Blood test shows lymphocytopenia and hyponatraemia. Diagnosis is made based on antigens detected in a urine test.

A

Legionella pneumophilia

91
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Legionella pneumophilia
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Chlamydis psittaci
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Coxiella burnetii
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Escherichia coli
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Group B Strep (GBS)
  • Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
  • Haemophilus influenza
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

A 18 year old student from Vietnam attends A&E presenting with fever and weight loss. He is particularly worried as he is coughing up blood. CXR reveals shadowing on the right upper zone.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

92
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Legionella pneumophilia
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Chlamydis psittaci
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Coxiella burnetii
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Escherichia coli
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Group B Strep (GBS)
  • Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
  • Haemophilus influenza
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

A 30 year old farmer attends A&E presenting with cough, fever and malaise. He complains that the antibiotics that his local GP prescribed did not work.

A

Coxiella burnetii

93
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • A.fumigatus
  • M.catarrhalis
  • C.burnetti
  • M.tuberculosis
  • C.psittaci
  • Mycoplasma
  • CMV
  • P.aeruginosa
  • H.influenzae
  • P.jiroveci
  • Influenza
  • RSV
  • K.pneumoniae
  • S.aureus
  • L.pneumophilia
  • S.pneumoniae

A cachectic, 25 year old drug user presents to his GP with a persistent dry cough and a feeling of generally being unwell. His chest radiograph shows a bat-wing shadowing.

A

P.jiroveci

94
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • A.fumigatus
  • M.catarrhalis
  • C.burnetti
  • M.tuberculosis
  • C.psittaci
  • Mycoplasma
  • CMV
  • P.aeruginosa
  • H.influenzae
  • P.jiroveci
  • Influenza
  • RSV
  • K.pneumoniae
  • S.aureus
  • L.pneumophilia
  • S.pneumoniae

A 70 year old man presents with a chronic wheeze and some haemoptysis. He said he had a bad chest infection when he did his national service overseas in the tropics but it was treated at the time. His blood work shows a high eosinophil count.

A

A.fumigatus

95
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • A.fumigatus
  • M.catarrhalis
  • C.burnetti
  • M.tuberculosis
  • C.psittaci
  • Mycoplasma
  • CMV
  • P.aeruginosa
  • H.influenzae
  • P.jiroveci
  • Influenza
  • RSV
  • K.pneumoniae
  • S.aureus
  • L.pneumophilia
  • S.pneumoniae

A pet shop worker presents with a high fever and signs of a pneumonia. On examination, you notice a rash on her skin and you are able to palpate her spleen.

A

C.psittaci

96
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • A.fumigatus
  • M.catarrhalis
  • C.burnetti
  • M.tuberculosis
  • C.psittaci
  • Mycoplasma
  • CMV
  • P.aeruginosa
  • H.influenzae
  • P.jiroveci
  • Influenza
  • RSV
  • K.pneumoniae
  • S.aureus
  • L.pneumophilia
  • S.pneumoniae

An 80 lady is in hospital for a hip replacement and acquires a pneumonia. Her chest x-ray shows signs of cavities, but a routine radiograph from last month looks clear.

A

S.aureus

97
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer from the list.

  • A.fumigatus
  • M.catarrhalis
  • C.burnetti
  • M.tuberculosis
  • C.psittaci
  • Mycoplasma
  • CMV
  • P.aeruginosa
  • H.influenzae
  • P.jiroveci
  • Influenza
  • RSV
  • K.pneumoniae
  • S.aureus
  • L.pneumophilia
  • S.pneumoniae

A 2 year old presents with a severe pneumonia and a fever. CXR shows signs of bronchiolitis. Her mum said she seemed well up until recently, but her 4 year old brother had a cold and sniffles last week.

A

RSV

Path questions imperialendo.co.uk (44 decks)

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