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01 - Nclex Board Review > Genitourinary Disorders > Flashcards

Genitourinary Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Immune complex response to an antecedent beta hemolytic streptococcal infection of skin or pharynx?

A

acute glomerulonephritis (agn)

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2
Q

Decreased urinary output is the first sign of ?

A

renal failure

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3
Q

A disorder in which the basement membrane of the glomeruli becomes permeable to plasma proteins; most often idiopathic in nature?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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4
Q

It usually occurs between the ages of 2 and 3 years. Its course may involve exacerbations and remission over several years?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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5
Q

Edema that begins insidiously becomes severe and generalized along with lethargy, anorexia, and pallor is what pathnogmonic of?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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6
Q

Frothy appearing urine, massive proteinuria and decreased serum protein (hypoproteinemia) along with elevated serum lipids is what pathnogmonic of?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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7
Q

Administer steroids such as prednisone and c gics such as bethanechol (urecholine) as prescribed for ?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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8
Q

Measure abdominal girth daily.

A

nephrotic syndrome

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9
Q

Provide small, frequent feedings of a normal protein, low salt diet. Client is commonly prescribed iv albumin followed by diuretic in this syndrome ?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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10
Q

Monitor temperature; assess for signs of infection, protect from persons with infections along with providing skin care (edematous areas are vulnerable) ?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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11
Q

Train to prevent infection, this is so so important in these patients?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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12
Q

Recent streptococcal infection with mild to moderate edema (often confined to face) along with dark colored urine (hematuria) points to what syndrome?

A

acute glomerulonephritis (agn)

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13
Q

These patients present with signs and symptoms of slight to moderate proteinuria with hypertension, along with irritability & lethargy ?

A

acute glomerulonephritis (agn)

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14
Q

Elevated antistreptolysin (aso) titer along with elevated bun and creatinine plus oliguria is what syndrome ?

A

acute glomerulonephritis (agn)

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15
Q

Bacterial infection anywhere along the urinary tract (most ascend) is what?

A

urinary tract infection (uti)

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16
Q

In infants this shows up vague symptoms, fever, irritability along with poor food intake ?

A

urinary tract infection (uti)

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17
Q

In infants this shows up diarrhea, vomiting, jaundice along with a strong smelling urine and dysuria plus fever?

A

urinary tract infection (uti)

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18
Q

In older children this shows up urinary frequency and along with hematuria and enuresis?

A

urinary tract infection (uti)

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19
Q

Its a malignant renal tumor which is encapsulated and it occurs in preschool children.

A

wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

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20
Q

This tumor is embryonic in origin and it occurs in preschool children and its malignant?

A

wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

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21
Q

Its very important to protect the child from injury by placing a sign on bed stating “no abdominal palpation.”

A

wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

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22
Q

During this disease process its important to prepare family and child for imminent nephrectomy.

A

wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

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23
Q

Congenital defect of urethral meatus in males; urethra opens on ventral side of penis behind the glans is called?

A

hypospadias

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24
Q

What antecedent event occurs with agn?

A

beta hemolytic streptococcal infection

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25
Q

What are the priorities for a client with wilms’ tumor?

A

protect the child from injury to the encapsulated tumor. prepare the family/child for surgery.

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26
Q

What is the physiologic reason for the lab finding of hypoproteinemia in nephrosis?

A

hypoproteinemia occurs because the glomeruli are permeable to serum proteins.

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27
Q

During your assessment of a patient taking nsaids which of the following side effects is most likely to be seen?

A

renal ischemia

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28
Q

A condition in which a child is unable to control bladder function regardless of the age in which they are expected to be able to control their voiding?

A

enuresis

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29
Q

A congenital anomaly of the penis in pediatric patients that presents as an opening of the urethra is on the underside , rather than at the end, of the penis is?

A

hypospadias

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30
Q

It is an inherited disease of the kidneys that develops as a cyst in the nephron?

A

polycystic kidney disease

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31
Q

When the question talks about a sharp pain, followed by blood in the urine it usually means

A

ruptured cyst from pkd

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32
Q

The main lab assessment in patients with nephrotic syndrome is what?

A

severe protienuria ( 3.5 g of protien in 24 hours)

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33
Q

Massive protienuria (protien in urine) with hypoalbuminemia and edema is pathognomonic for?

A

nephrotic syndrome

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34
Q

A bluish grey color stoma indicates

A

impaired perfusion, not infection

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35
Q

What is the name of the surgical technique that uses an excised piece of the client’s ileum to create an incontinent urinary diversion?

A

an ileal conduit

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36
Q

Less than 10,000 organisms/ml is a normal value for?

A

urine culture

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37
Q

When a renal arteriogram is performed with a contrast agent ; how is excretion of the dye accelerated out of the body?

A

oral and intravenous hydration

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38
Q

Portable ultrasonic bladder scanners are used at the bedside to determine?

A

amount of residual urine in the bladder

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39
Q

Greater than ( ) 10,000 organisms/ml indicate?

A

a urinary infection

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40
Q

This medication can be used to treat hyperkalemia?

A

sodium polystyrene sulfonate (kayexalate)

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41
Q

What are some s/s of infection?

A

fever, elevated white blood cell count, odor, and delayed healing

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42
Q

If the stoma is dusky or any shade of blue, the nurse should suspect

A

impaired perfusion and contact the cp immediately

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43
Q

These anticholinergic medications: tolterodine, oxybutynin, solifenacin are commonly used for

A

overactive bladder

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44
Q

Its a life threatening complication of escherichia coli diarrhea and results in red cell hemolysis, low platelets, and acute kidney injury?

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome (hus)

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45
Q

The client with kidney disease due to reduced glomerular filtration rate are at risk for both hyperkalemia and

A

hyperphosphatemia

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46
Q

Untreated hyperkalemia may cause life threatening?

A

cardiac arrhythmias

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47
Q

Since renal damage affects ↑ bp clients with ckd are at risk for?

A

uncontrolled hypertension and hypertensive emergencies

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48
Q

What does the kidneys regulate?

A

fluid volume and blood pressure

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49
Q

Examples of allowable foods for ckd clients include

A

apples, pears, grapes, pineapple, blackberries, blueberries, and plums

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50
Q

What does an elevated serum creatinine level preoperatively increases the risk for

A

postoperative kidney injury

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51
Q

Clients with chronic kidney disease (ckd) have decreased glomerular filtration, resulting in retention of fluid and what else?

A

potassium and phosphorus

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52
Q

Painless hematuria is the most common presenting symptom of?

A

bladder cancer

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53
Q

Acute urinary retention is best treated with rapid complete bladder decompression. The nurse should carefully assess for which s/s?

A

hypotension and bradycardia

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54
Q

This is a procedure that uses a flexible fiber optic scope inserted through the urethra into the urinary bladder (men or women) with the client in the lithotomy position?

A

a cystoscopy

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55
Q

After a transurethral resection of the prostate (turp) this symptom is expected?

A

bladder spasms

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56
Q

The client with kidney disease due to reduced glomerular filtration rate are at risk for both hyperkalemia and

A

hyperphosphatemia

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57
Q

What is the most dangerous consequence of cystic fibrosis?

A

respiratory failure

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58
Q

The grieving process begins with denial or disbelief what are the next steps in the grieving process?

A

anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance

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59
Q

The following signs and symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis and require immediate further assessment?

A

nausea, vomiting, and headache

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60
Q

What does renal damage cause relating to cardiovascular?

A

high blood pressure

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61
Q

What do the kidneys regulate?

A

fluid volume and blood pressure

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62
Q

Decreased sweat production in dehydration may lead to?

A

hyperthermia

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63
Q

The first phase of the grieving process is?

A

denial or disbelief

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64
Q

Meningomyelocele children are at a high risk for developing what diseases?

A

bacterial meningitis

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65
Q

The signs and symptoms are commonly associated with constipation, urinary retention, flushing, dry mouth, and heat intolerance?

A

anticholinergic medications

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66
Q

Oxybutynin (ditropan) is an anticholinergic medication that is frequently used to treat?

A

overactive bladder

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67
Q

When performing a physical assessment of the renal system the first step is to?

A

empty the bladder before beginning

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68
Q

When performing a physical assessment of the renal system in the order

A

auscultate goes before percussing

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69
Q

During peritoneal dialysis: the dialysate flows into your abdomen and stays there for a prescribed period of time (4 6hrs) what’s this period called?

A

dwell time

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70
Q

What can cause increased specific gravity?

A

fluid deficit, dehydration

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71
Q

Loss of albumin in urine leads to

A

hypoalbuminemia

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72
Q

Metabolic acidosis is an acid base imbalance that occurs when the ph level drops from excess? (2)

A

acid accumulation or bicarbonate (hco)

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73
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome characterized by?

A

massive proteinuria, edema, and hypoalbuminemia

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74
Q

Why should nephrotic syndrome clients have their visits restricted (or limited)?

A

because of increased susceptibility to infection

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75
Q

What does nephrotic syndrome leads to?

A

generalized edema

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76
Q

What two (2) instructions are given to women with who had repeated uti’s in a year in reference to personal hygiene?

A

avoid douching and using feminine perineal products (eg, deodorants, powders, sprays)

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77
Q

What is the highest priority for a client newly diagnosed with stress incontinence?

A

preventing uti’s and skin breakdown

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78
Q

These three (3) class of drugs can all cause urinary retention?

A

opioids, anticholinergic , and tricyclic antidepressants

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79
Q

What is a common clinical manifestation of uti in the elderly?

A

confusion

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80
Q

What temperature is considered febrile in the elderly?

A

100.2 f (37.8 c)

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81
Q

This often occurs frequently after surgery due to administration of opioids (eg, morphine) and anesthesia?

A

urinary retention

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82
Q

When the specific gravity is > 1.030 what does that indicate?

A

fluid deficit (dehydration)

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83
Q

The normal urine specific gravity value ranges from

A

1.003 to 1.030

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84
Q

The presence of a few (0 5 per high power field) wbcs on urinalysis is?

A

within normal limits (wnl)

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85
Q

This client’s urinalysis reveals that the client is most likely dehydrated, what color is the urine most likely?

A

amber color = indicates concentrated urine, hence dehydrated

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86
Q

What are dialysis patient closely monitored after the instillation and dwell portions of the cycle?

A

indications of respiratory distress (eg, difficulty breathing, rapid respirations, crackles)

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87
Q

Changes to glomerulus that leads to massive leakage of protein in urine

A

nephrotic syndrome

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88
Q

Regulates the intracellular fluid

A

potassium

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89
Q

Regulates the extracellular fluid

A

chloride

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90
Q

Other types of incontinenc that may not be helped by scheduled toileting

A

urge incontinence, stress incontinence

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91
Q

Urine output greater than is desired in children

A

1.5 ml/kg/hr

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92
Q

Metabolic acidosis is typically seen with

A

acute kidney injury (aki)

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93
Q

When the kidneys are damaged, they are unable to retain

A

sodium

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94
Q

Is the most common initial sign of an aki

A

oliguria (urine output less than 400 ml/24 hours)

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95
Q

Constipation is a significant problem associated with

A

peritoneal dialysis

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96
Q

The client having a bowel movement allows decreased intestinal pressure, therefore resolving the

A

outflow failure

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97
Q

A significant problem associated with peritoneal dialysis

A

constipation

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98
Q

The number one complication associated with peritoneal dialysis is

A

peritonitis

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99
Q

An assessment finding consistent with hypomagnesemia

A

psychosis

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100
Q

Magnesium normal level

A

1.6 2.6 mg/dl

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101
Q

From a neurological perspective symptoms of hypomagnesemia range from

A

confusion to psychosis

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102
Q

Cardiac arrhythmias can occur with

A

hypomagnesemia

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103
Q

Tetany is another assessment finding consistent with hypomagnesemia other neuromuscular assessment findings consistent with hypomagnesemia, include

A

numbness, tingling, seizures, and increased deep tendon reflexes

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104
Q

Adh (anti diuretic hormone) level is increased in the client with

A

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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105
Q

Adh results in increased thirst and increased free water retention. a combination of these two factors leads to

A

dilutional hyponatremia

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106
Q

Bladder pain radiate to

A

patient’s shoulder

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107
Q

Patient with chronic diabetes insipidus (di) is instructed to weigh themselves

A

daily

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108
Q

When a patient sweats excessively, sodium is lost in sweat and their serum sodium levels will decrease, leading to

A

hyponatremia

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109
Q

Salt water drowning would be a cause of

A

hypernatremia

110
Q

Fresh water drowning is a cause of

A

hyponatremia

111
Q

In a 24 hour urine collection the first specimen is always

A

discarded

112
Q

Proper education on the collection of the 24 hour urine specimen is essential, as retaining the first specimen

A

can cause an error in the result

113
Q

In third spacing, fluid shifts and remains there

A

interstitial space

114
Q

Alcoholism puts patients at risk for the development of

A

third spacing

115
Q

Narrow and peaked t waves is indicative of

A

hyperkalemia

116
Q

Bounding pulses are another sign of

A

fluid volume excess

117
Q

Another sign of fluid volume excess

A

bounding pulses

118
Q

The nurse has appreciated dyspnea, rales, and crackles on her assessment, which are all signs of

A

fluid volume excess

119
Q

Another sign of fluid volume excess relating to weight is

A

weight gain

120
Q

A client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis must observe dietary modifications that include controlled amounts of

A

sodium, phosphorus, calcium, potassium, and fluids

121
Q

Urinary retention can occur because of mechanical obstruction of the bladder outlet in men and women how

A

enlarged prostate in a man or vaginal prolapse in a woman

122
Q

Primary function is to “ contract ” and fully empty the bladder

A

detrusor smooth muscle

123
Q

Patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy are often placed on alpha adrenergic agonists like

A

prazosin, doxazosin, or terazosin

124
Q

The preferred technique for investigating recurring urinary tract infections due to being non invasive

A

renal ultrasound

125
Q

An appropriate technique when obstruction of the urinary tract is suspected to be a potential cause of the urinary tract infection

A

intravenous pyelogram (ivp)

126
Q

Respiratory status should be assessed first in any client with

A

hypokalemia

127
Q

Hypokalemia affects peripheral pulses which are expected to be

A

thready and weak

128
Q

Insensible fluid loss occurs to every patient through the

A

skin and the lungs

129
Q

Excessive sweating is an example of

A

insensible fluid loss

130
Q

Sensible fluid loss is a loss that the patient is

A

aware of

131
Q

Another example of a sensible fluid loss

A

large amounts of diarrhea

132
Q

Chloride normal level

A

96 106 meq/l

133
Q

Clients with diarrhea tend to have hyperchloremic metabolic

A

acidosis

134
Q

Often used to restore fluid volume in hypovolemic or dehydrated states

A

isotonic fluids

135
Q

Following extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, the client should increase fluid intake and ambulate frequently to facilitate?

A

passage of the stone fragments

136
Q

Clients receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate must have normal bowel function to avoid the risk of?

A

intestinal necrosis = the nurse must assess for constipation, signs of impaction, and recent bowel patterns.

137
Q

Oxybutynin (ditropan) is an anticholinergic medication that is frequently used to treat

A

overactive bladder = common side effects include: new-onset constipation dry mouth flushing heat intolerance blurred vision drowsiness

138
Q

Circulatory compromise is common after sustaining a burn, as extensive tissue injury combined with the systemic inflammatory response causes increased capillary permeability, fluid and electrolyte shifts, and decreased intravascular volume. These intravascular losses begin rapidly after a burn and may lead to hypovolemic shock and death.

A

therefore, the nurse should prioritize initiation of fluid resuscitation (option 3).

139
Q

What is the name of surgery involving incisions made through eschar (burned tissue) and is performed to prevent tissue ischemia and necrosis from impaired circulation?

A

an escharotomy

140
Q

What is the nursing care for minor sunburn?

A

involves protecting the burn from further sun exposure, increasing fluid intake, taking mild oral analgesics (eg, acetaminophen), and applying cool compresses and soothing lotions.

141
Q

In patients who receive burns, the rehabilitation phase begins after?

A

the client’s wounds have fully healed and lasts about 12 months

142
Q

Medications such as tetracycline and rifampin can decrease the effectiveness of?

A

oral contraceptives = additional contraceptive techniques will be needed

143
Q

Clients with hyperkalemia experience muscle weakness, and what ecg changes are seen?

A

tall, peaked t waves, shortened qt interval), and cardiac arrhythmias

144
Q

Potassium is released when cellular damage occurs, resulting in?

A

hyperkalemia = potassium >5.0

145
Q

What is the predominant intracellular cation?

A

potassium

146
Q

The primary goals of this skin disorder is management: to alleviate pruritus and keep the skin hydrated to prevent scratching?

A

atopic dermatitis (eczema)

147
Q

This is a chronic skin disorder characterized by pruritus, erythema, and dry skin with unknown cause?

A

atopic dermatitis (eczema)

148
Q

Exposure to any amount of this medication during pregnancy can cause birth defects?

A

isotretinoinan and tetracycline

149
Q

Isotretinoinan has signs and symptoms which are associated with this rare skin disorder that manifest itself with painful rash that spreads and blisters. Then the top layer of affected skin dies, sheds and begins to heal after several days?

A

stevens johnson syndrome

150
Q

Name the oral acne medication derived from vitamin a?

A

isotretinoinan = therefore taking vitamin a supplements along with isotretinoin can cause vitamin a toxicity

151
Q

Blood donation is also prohibited during the duration of treatment and up to a month after treatment ends due to the possibility of inadvertent transfusion to a pregnant woman. What is this medication?

A

isotretinoinan

152
Q

Isotretinoin should not be taken with tetracycline because the latter also increases the risk for ?

A

intracranial hypertension = so in a way it mimics meningitis which manifests itself with ↑ icp

153
Q

The amount of fluid removed (ultrafiltration) is determined by calculating the difference between the last post-dialysis weight and the client’s current?

A

pre-dialysis weight

154
Q

A 2.2-lb (1-kg) weight gain is equal to how many milliliters of retained fluid?

A

1,000 ml

155
Q

Is a urinary analgesic prescribed to relieve symptoms of dysuria associated with a urinary tract infection. An expected side effect of the drug is orange-red discoloration of urine.

A

phenazopyridine hydrochloride (pyridium)

156
Q

Is a measure of glomerular function and is a sensitive indicator of renal disease progression.

A

creatinine clearance

157
Q

What is a vaginal support device recommended for pelvic organ prolapse?

A

a pessary

158
Q

A herbal preparation, is often used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia.

A

saw palmetto

159
Q

Is used to treat heart failure and in some countries (eg, germany) is an approved treatment for this purpose.

A

hawthorn extract

160
Q

Has been used for centuries to treat depression. It may cause hypertension and serotonin syndrome when used with other antidepressants.

A

st john’s wort

161
Q

Black cohosh is an herbal supplement often used by perimenopausal clients experiencing?

A

hot flashes

162
Q

A collection of symptoms resulting from various causes of glomerular injury.

A

nephrotic syndrome

163
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is a collection of symptoms resulting from?

A

glomerular injury the 4 characteristic manifestations are proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia.

164
Q

The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children is?

A

minimal change nephrotic syndrome, which is generally considered idiopathic

165
Q

Lipid levels (normal total cholesterol <200 mg/dl [5.2 mmol/l]) can increase with what condition?

A

nephrotic syndrome

166
Q

The flow of urine is dependent on gravity. The drainage bag should be hung below the level of the [. . .] to maintain gravity flow

A

bladder

167
Q

The flow of urine is dependent on gravity. In order to maintain gravity flow, the drainage bag should be hung?

A

below the level of the bladder

168
Q

Clients with this pathology have increased risk for urinary tract infections (uti) due to incomplete bladder emptying and urine retention.

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia (bph)

169
Q

Is a medication that inhibits further growth of the prostate.

A

finasteride (proscar)

170
Q

Anemia associated with chronic kidney disease is treated with?

A

recombinant human erythropoietin

171
Q

Treatment therapy with recombinant human erythropoietin is initiated when hemoglobin is?

A

<10 g/dl (100 g/l) to alleviate the symptoms of anemia (eg, fatigue) and the need for blood transfusions

172
Q

Is a contraindication to recombinant erythropoietin therapy.

A

uncontrolled hypertension

173
Q

Hypertension is a major adverse effect of?

A

erythropoietin administration

174
Q

Hypokalemia in a client with heart failure creates a risk for life-threatening?

A

cardiac dysrhythmias

175
Q

Should never be crushed as this would cause the client to absorb the medication too rapidly.

A

sustained-release medications

176
Q

“Dronates”: alendronate, ibandronate, pamidronate, risedronate are medications belong to what class of drugs and what to they treat?

A

biphosphonates, osteoporosis

177
Q

Is also common with tetracyclines and bisphosphonates

A

pill-induced esophagitis

178
Q

Massage therapy to the flank should not be performed since they cause the instigation of?

A

renal colic

179
Q

These two supplements can be confused with upper gastrointestinal bleeding since both turn stools dark.

A

oral iron tablets and bismuth salts (pepto-bismol)

180
Q

Alpha-1-adrenergic antagonists taken for bladder issues (eg, terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin, alfuzosin) should be taken at what time to avoid orthostatic hypotension?

A

bedtime, not in the morning

181
Q

Grapefruit juice can cause significant interactions with drugs such as?

A

calcium channel blockers and sildenafil

182
Q

Chills and fever, vomiting, flank pain, and costovertebral tenderness are the characteristic signs and symptoms of?

A

acute pyelonephritis

183
Q

Acute pyelonephritis is an infection of the kidney usually caused by an extension of infection from the?

A

lower urinary tract (bladder)

184
Q

The priority of care for acute pyelonephritis before initiating antibiotic therapy whenever possible is what?

A

to obtain blood and urine cultures

185
Q

Conditions that increase acid production or retention can put a client at risk for?

A

metabolic acidosis (ph < 7.35, hco3 < 22 meq/l ) (eg, ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis, renal failure) or bicarbonate depletion (eg, diarrhea)

186
Q

A client with excessive vomiting which leads to loss of stomach acid is at risk for?

A

metabolic alkalosis

187
Q

A client with claustrophobia who was stuck in an elevator is at risk for an anxiety attack, which leads to hyperventilation and?

A

respiratory alkalosis (ph >7.45, paco2 <35 mm hg [4.66 kpa])

188
Q

Is due to an increase in the production or retention of acid or the depletion of bicarbonate via the kidneys or gastrointestinal (gi) tract.

A

metabolic acidosis

189
Q

It’s super important to monitor for signs of potential clotting such as absence of a bruit, absence of a thrill, decreased capillary refill, and coolness of the extremity below the fistula during what procedure?

A

following placement of an arteriovenous fistula

190
Q

A palpable thrill (vibration) over the fistula or an auscultated bruit (blowing or swooshing sound caused by turbulent blood flow) indicates?

A

a patent fistula

191
Q

Absence of the thrill or bruit in the fistula can indicate?

A

potential clot formation

192
Q

To avoid further complications and prevent progressive kidney damage, clients with ckd are advised to follow certain dietary restrictions, including?

A

sodium restriction, potassium restriction, low protein, low phosphorus

193
Q

Foods such as cured meats, pickled foods, canned soups, frankfurters, cold cuts, soy sauce, and salad dressings are example of food high in?

A

sodium = so are restricted in patients with ckd

194
Q

Foods such as raw carrots, tomatoes, and orange juice are examples of foods high in?

A

potassium = clients with ckd are prescribed low potassium diets

195
Q

The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill client is?

A

daily weight

196
Q

Will be elevated in renal failure, dehydration, and malnutrition

A

bun

197
Q

Injection of contrast dye for visualization of the absence, presents, location, size, and configuration of each kidney, the feeling of the renal pelvis, an outline of the ureters

A

intravenous pyelogram

198
Q

What is the visualization of the urethra and bladder called

A

cystoscopy

199
Q

This renal exam can test for several disorders including diabetes mellitus, dehydration, uti, kidney trauma, and glomerulonephritis

A

urinalysis

200
Q

This renal test reflects the damage to the glomeruli with the resultant leaking of protein and red blood cells

A

urinalysis

201
Q

The best indicator of kidney filtration function

A

creatinine clearance test

202
Q

Creatine clearance test measures the amount of creatinine filtered by the glomeruli over

A

24 hours

203
Q

This renal disease is described as rapid onset of oliguria accompanied by a rising bun level and serum creatinine

A

acute renal failure

204
Q

Inflammation of glomerulus that leads to leakage of rbcs and protein into urine

A

glomerulonephritis

205
Q

This renal inflammation is typically caused by a post strep infection

A

glomerulonephritis

206
Q

These s/s describe this renal disease: htn, decreased gfr, edema, tea colored urine from hematuria, elevated bun, proteinuria

A

glomerulonephritis

207
Q

After a chemical burn, wash with

A

water or normal saline

208
Q

Best indicator of the status of glomerular filtration

A

serum creatinine level

209
Q

Massive proteinuria, foamy, frothy dark urine, hypoalbuminemia (low protein in blood), edema is pathognomonic for

A

nephrotic syndrome

210
Q

Plays a role in blood clotting

A

calcium

211
Q

Physical changes related to hyperkalemia include

A

chest pain, arrhythmias, and muscle weakness or paralysis

212
Q

Cause ekg changes like peaked t waves

A

hyperkalemia

213
Q

Cause ekg changes widened qrs complexes

A

hyperkalemia

214
Q

Cause ekg changes st-segment depression

A

hyperkalemia

215
Q

This is a physical characteristic seen on ekgs in patients with hyperkalemia

A

lengthened qrs interval

216
Q

What do thiazide diuretics cause

A

calcium retention

217
Q

Due to immobility bed rest can be a cause of

A

hypercalcemia

218
Q

What can cause hypercalcemia

A

hyperparathyroidism

219
Q

Antacids are high in

A

magnesium

220
Q

Pth functions to pull calcium stores from the bones and put it into the

A

serum, increasing the serum calcium

221
Q

When a client is suffering from severe hypernatremia, monitoring

A

neurological status is the nurse’s priority (foa - altered mental status)

222
Q

These complications range from a restless, agitated client, to a comatose state

A

neurological complications of hypernatremia

223
Q

Sodium plays a major role in the brain and nervous system, so any imbalances can cause serious

A

neurological symptoms

224
Q

U waves on the ecg are associated with

A

hypokalemia (eg. seen in acute renal failure)

225
Q

Severe and prolonged hyperkalemia will increasingly prolong

A

the pr and qrs intervals with the potential for cardiac arrest

226
Q

By itself, hyponatremia does not manifest in the

A

ecg

227
Q

There are no ecg manifestations brought about by

A

hypernatremia alone

228
Q

Prednisone can lead to

A

adrenal suppression, which is a potentially life-threatening side effect of the drug

229
Q

The average value for bicarbonate in the intravascular space ranges from

A

22 meq/l to 29 meq/l

230
Q

Third-degree burns can cause

A

hypovolemia, not hypervolemia

231
Q

A temperature of 36.4 to 37.4 degrees celsius is

A

average, no need to report as its not abnormal

232
Q

A child is not considered febrile until their temperature reaches

A

38.0 degrees celsius

233
Q

Urine output less than 400 ml/24 hours

A

oliguria

234
Q

The most common initial sign of an aki (acute kidney injury)

A

oliguria (urine output less than 400 ml/24 hours)

235
Q

When the kidneys are damaged, they are unable to retain

A

sodium note: sodium levels would be decreased → hyponatremia

236
Q

In an ekg with a flat t wave

A

hypokalemia

237
Q

Is a common finding seen in renal failure

A

hyperkalemia

238
Q

Hypomagnesemia is often associated with

A

hypokalemia and hypocalcemia

239
Q

Untreated hypomagnesemia may lead to

A

treatment-refractory hypokalemia

240
Q

Magnesium deficiency results in decreased production of parathyroid hormone and consequently,

A

secondary hypocalcemia

241
Q

Alcoholism leads to

A

hypomagnesemia

242
Q

A risk factor that is associated with hypomagnesemia

A

s alcoholism

243
Q

The nurse should monitor the urine output and report if the volume is less than(ml/kg/hr)

A

0.5 ml/kg/hr or no output for more than 15 minutes

244
Q

A cyanotic stoma is a

A

medical emergency and, if not addressed, can lead to necrosis

245
Q

Stoma care and skincare should be taught to the client at the time of

A

discharge

246
Q

Hyponatremia refers to a sodium level lower than

A

135 meq/l

247
Q

Increased thirst occurs in

A

hypernatremia note: due to the body’s attempt to increase fluid intake and balance sodium levels

248
Q

Orthostatic hypotension is often seen in association with

A

hyponatremia

249
Q

The nurse must assess the volume status while evaluating a client with

A

hyponatremia because it helps to differentiate between hypovolemic, euvolemic, and hypervolemic hyponatremia

250
Q

Orthostatic or postural hypotension refers to a significant decrease in systolic blood pressure of greater than

A

20 mmhg or a reduction of at least 10 mmhg in diastolic pressure upon 3 to 5 minutes of standing note: often, it indicates hypovolemia

251
Q

Phenazopyridine causes the urine to have what type of color

A

orange color

252
Q

Phenazopyridine is prescribed to relieve pain, irritation, discomfort, or urgency caused by

A

uti note: any injury to the urinary tract

253
Q

Normal magnesium level is

A

1.6-2.6 mg/dl

254
Q

A risk factor for hypomagnesemia

A

alcoholism and diarrhea

255
Q

The most common electrolyte abnormality observed in alcoholic patients

A

hypomagnesemia

256
Q

Hypothyroidism is a risk factor for

A

hypermagnesemia

257
Q

Is the continuous involuntary leakage or dribbling of urine that occurs with incomplete bladder emptying

A

overflow incontinence

258
Q

The normal range for potassium is

A

3.5 - 5 meq/l

259
Q

Inverted t waves are a sign of

A

hypokalemia

260
Q

Tall, peaked t waves are a hallmark sign of

A

hyperkalemia

261
Q

Wide, flat p wavesa prolonged pr intervala depressed st segment these are all signs of what in an ekg

A

hyperkalemia

262
Q

Leads to serious arrhythmias and can progress to heart block, ventricular fibrillation, or even asystole if left untreated

A

hyperkalemia

263
Q

The most common side effect of oral potassium is

A

gi upset

264
Q

Always instruct your patient to take oral potassium supplements with

A

food

265
Q

Before administering potassium supplements make sure that they are

A

mixed

266
Q

Glomerular filtration rate (gfr) measures

A

kidney function

267
Q

Hyperkalemia is most commonly caused by excessive

A

oral intake of high potassium foods

268
Q

The two common isotonic iv fluids (same osmotic pressure as blood plasma)

A

normal saline and lactated ringers

269
Q

Sodium bicarbonate decreases the chloride level and is an appropriate choice in patients with severe

A

hyperchloremic acidosis

270
Q

Furosemide and bumetanide are loop diuretics, often used to treat fluid retention (edema) in

A

congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders such as nephrotic syndrome

271
Q

Loop diuretics often cause

A

hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

272
Q

Intravenous urography uses contrast dye so its important to

A

encourage pt to drink at least 1 liter of fluid

01 - Nclex Board Review (7 decks)

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