Respiratory Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

A client with on a morphine epidural infusion is at highest risk for ? [. . .]

A

respiratory depression

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2
Q

Albuterol is a what type of agonist ? [. . .]

A

B2 agonist

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3
Q

A child with asthma assessed for the presence or absence of intercostal retractions during ? [. . .]

A

Inspiration

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4
Q

During Epiglottitis the child adopts a famous position called ? [. . .]

A

Tripoding

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5
Q

In Asthma the smooth muscles of the [. . .] and [. . .] constrict ?

A

bronchi and bronchioles

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6
Q

What is the most critical problem in cystic fibrosis? [. . .]

A

Lung insufficiency

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7
Q

Cystic fibrosis is usually found in a ? [. . .]

A

white infant or child

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8
Q

The nursing care of children with communicable diseases is virtually the same for all, regardless of the ? [. . .]

A

particular disease

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9
Q

Meconium ileus at birth (10% to 20% of cases) is seen in what patient? [. . .]

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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10
Q

Administer fatsoluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) in water soluble form for what type of patients? [. . .]

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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11
Q

IPV is contraindicated for those with history of anaphylactic reaction to ? [. . .]

A

neomycin or streptomycin

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12
Q

Its usually caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) ? [. . .]

A

Bronchiolitis

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13
Q

Patients with Bronchiolitis present with a history of upper respiratory symptoms and an unusual cough called ? [. . .]

A

Paroxysmal coughing

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14
Q

Bronchiolitis (RSV) patients need to be monitored for [Blank] and observe for [Blank] ? [. . .]

A

respiratory status and hypoxia

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15
Q

Nasal congestion and Nasal flaring are usually seen in respiratory patients with ? [. . .]

A

Bronchiolitis

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16
Q

Bronchiolitis is usually caused by ? [. . .]

A

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

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17
Q

Isolation of choice for RSV is [. . .]

A

contact isolation

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18
Q

It is used in the prevention of respiratory syncytial virus infections and it is recommended for infants that are high-risk and younger than 2 years of age with a history of prematurity, lung disease, or congenital heart disease). Administer ? [. . .]

A

Palivizumab

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19
Q

In planning and providing nursing care, a patent airway is always the priority of care, in what age groups? [. . .]

A

all age group, all patients #1

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20
Q

Inflammatory disorder of the middle ear is ? [. . .]

A

Otitis Media

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21
Q

Two types of Otiitis Media ? [. . .]

A

Suppurative or Serous

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22
Q

In this pediatric patients there is a risk for conductive hearing loss if untreated or incompletely treated. What disease can lead to this? [. . .]

A

Otitis Media

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23
Q

In otitis media reducing body temperture (fever) is a very high priority because of risk of ? [. . .]

A

seizures

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24
Q

Otitis media child need to be positioned on the ? [. . .]

A

affected side

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25
Q

Teach preventive care (smoking and bottle feeding when child is in supine position are predisposing factors) to? [. . .]

A

Otitis media

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26
Q

There are two types of Tonsillitis ? [. . .]

A

viral or bacterial

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27
Q

Tonsillitis may be related to infection by ? [. . .]

A

Streptococcus

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28
Q

Tonsilitis if related to strep, treatment is very important because of the risk for developing acute ? [. . .]

A

glomerulonephritis or rheumatic heart disease.

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29
Q

Encourage warm saline gargles for what patient? [. . .]

A

Tonsolitis patients

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30
Q

Describe the purpose of bronchodilators. [. . .]

A

to reverse bronchospasm

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31
Q

Why is genetic counseling important for the family of a child with cystic fibrosis? [. . .]

A

Because the disease is autosomal recessive in its genetic pattern

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32
Q

Why are IV fluids important for a child with an increased respiratory rate? [. . .]

A

risk of dehydration and acid-base imbalance

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33
Q

What is the most common postoperative complication following a tonsillectomy? [. . .]

A

Hemorrhage

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34
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms of the hemorrhage complication in patients who just received a tonsollectomy? [. . .]

A

frequent swallong, vomiting fresh blood, clearing throat

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35
Q

When these pediatric patients have fever and pain the infant may pull at ear ? [. . .]

A

Otitis Media

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36
Q

What are the physical assessment findings for a child with asthma? [. . .]

A

Expiratory wheezingRalesTigh CoughAltered blood gas

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37
Q

This disease can impair the functioning of multiple systems including gastrointestinal, respiratory, and endocrine, although the most debilitating and life-threatening illnesses involve the pulmonary system. [. . .]

A

Cystic fibrosis

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38
Q

These clients have excessive and thick respiratory secretions which make it difficult to breathe and places them at increased risk of infections such as pneumonia and bronchiectasis. [. . .]

A

Cystic fibrosis

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39
Q

what is an airway clearance technique for patients with Cystic fibrosis? [. . .]

A

Chest physiotherapy (CPT)

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40
Q

Chest physiotherapy (CPT) can be done manually or mechanically via? [. . .]

A

using palm percussors and vibrators

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41
Q

The most severe and well known symptom of Cystic fibrosis is? [. . .]

A

the production of thick respiratory secretions

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42
Q

Chest physiotherapy (CPT) should be performed how many times a day? [. . .]

A

at least once per day, regardless of whether the child is experiencing shortness of breath or coughing.

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43
Q

Procedure that helps remove sticky secretions that cause ineffective airway clearance [. . .]

A

Chest physiotherapy

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44
Q

[. . .] , is used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure and will not impact the results of allergy skin testing

A

Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor

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45
Q

[. . .] does not have antihistamine properties and will not interfere with allergy skin testing

A

Acetaminophen

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46
Q

To ensure an accurate result, the client should avoid [. . .] for up to 2 weeks prior to the test

A

antihistamines

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47
Q

[. . .] , an inhaled shortacting beta adrenergic agonist, will not interfere with allergy skin testing results and should not be discontinued, as it is necessary to ensure client safety during acute asthma exacerbations

A

Albuterol

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48
Q

[. . .] is a genetic disorder involving the cells lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal (GI), and reproductive tracts

A

Cystic fibrosis (CF)

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49
Q

These abnormal secretions plug smaller airway passages and ducts in the [. . .] , which can impair digestive enzymes and result in ineffective absorption of essential nutrients. These sticky respiratory secretions lead to a chronic cough and inability to clear the airway, eventually causing chronic lung disease (bronchiectasis). As a result of these changes, the client’s life span is shortened; most affected individuals live only into their 30s.

A

GI tract

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50
Q

[. . .] is beneficial to promote removal of airway secretions, improve muscle strength, and increase lung capacity

A

Aerobic exercise

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51
Q

A diet high in [. . .] is recommended due to defective digestive enzymes and impaired nutrient absorption

A

fat and calories

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52
Q

Clients with cystic fibrosis should have a diet [. . .] to combat nutrient malabsorption

A

high in fat and calories

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53
Q

[. . .] toxicity can occur when fuelburning (eg, wood, coal) stoves or appliances are used in poorly ventilated settings.

A

Carbon monoxide (CO)

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54
Q

Clients with CO toxicity may have vague symptoms (eg, [. . .] ), so it is important to assess for possible CO exposure to prevent delay of appropriate emergency care.

A

headache, dizziness, nausea

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55
Q

[. . .] is most often associated with smoke inhalation from structure fires, but is also generated by furnaces/hot water heaters fueled by natural gas or oil, coal or wood stoves, fireplaces, and engine exhaust.

A

CO toxicity (poisoning)

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56
Q

[. . .] appliances; risk of CO toxicity increases in the fall and winter due to increased used of heat sources in an enclosed space

A

Fuelburning heating/cooking

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57
Q

[. . .] , an inhaled shortacting beta adrenergic agonist

A

Albuterol

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58
Q

Acetaminophen does not have [. . .] properties and will not interfere with allergy skin testing.

A

antihistamine

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59
Q

To ensure an accurate allergy skin testing result, the client should avoid [. . .] for up to 2 weeks prior to the test

A

antihistamines

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60
Q

[. . .] is a disorder of the lungs characterized by reversible airway hyperreactivity and chronic inflammation of the airways.

A

Asthma

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61
Q

Albuterol (Proventil) is a [. . .] associated with intermittent or persistent asthma.

A

shortacting beta agonist (SABA) administered as a quickrelief, rescue drug to relieve symptoms

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62
Q

[. . .] is an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) normally used as a longterm, firstline drug to control chronic airway inflammation.

A

Beclomethasone (Beconase)

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63
Q

When using an ICS metereddose inhaler (MDI), small particles of the medication are deposited and can impact (what part) [. . .] . Rinsing the mouth and throat well after using the MDI and not swallowing the water are recommended to help prevent a Candida infection (thrush) (white spots on tongue, buccal mucosa, and throat), a common side effect of ICSs.

A

the tongue and mouth

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64
Q

The use of a [. . .] with the inhaler can also decrease the risk of developing thrush

A

spacer

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65
Q

It is important for the nurse to clarify indications and sequencing as the SABA is a rescue drug taken on an [. . .] and is not always taken with the ICSI

A

asneeded basis

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66
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids (eg, fluticasone, beclomethasone) are not [. . .] . They are prescribed to be taken on a regular schedule (eg, morning, bedtime) on a longterm basis to prevent exacerbations and should not be omitted even if the SABA is effective.

A

rescue drugs

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67
Q

When these medications are administered together, the sequence is [. . .] first to open the airways and ICS second

A

SABA

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68
Q

Proper use of the shortacting beta agonist (SABA) inhaler includes taking it apart and rinsing the mouthpiece with warm water [. . .] times a week

A

1–2

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69
Q

The [. . .] is the most appropriate oxygen delivery device to apply at this time because it is comfortable, used for the short term, inexpensive, and permits the client to eat and drink fluids.

A

nasal cannula

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70
Q

Nasal Canulas can supply adequate oxygen concentrations of up to [. . .]

A

44%

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71
Q

The [. . .] is used in emergencies, delivers high concentrations of oxygen (up to 90%–95%), requires a tight face seal, and is restrictive and uncomfortable.

A

nonrebreather mask

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72
Q

The [. . .] mask is a more expensive device used to deliver a guaranteed oxygen concentration to clients with unstable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. These clients cannot tolerate changes in oxygen concentration.

A

Venturi

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73
Q

Epiglottitis should be considered first in a 37yearold child with [. . .] , toxic appearance (^^eg, sitting up, leaning forward, drooling), stridor, and highgrade fever.^^

A

acute respiratory distress

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74
Q

When assessing a client with symptoms suggestive of [. . .] (eg, ^^acutely ill, drooling, leaning forward, dyspnea^^), the nurse should prepare for an emergency airway.

A

epiglottitis

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75
Q

Its a bronchodilator with a low therapeutic index and a narrow therapeutic range (1020 mcg/mL)? [. . .]

A

Theophylline

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76
Q

Theophylline can cause seizures and [. . .] .

A

lifethreatening arrhythmias

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77
Q

[. . .] and ciprofloxacin can dramatically increase serum theophylline levels (80%). Therefore, they should not be used in these clients.

A

Cimetidine

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78
Q

[. . .] causes thickened mucus, making respiratory infections common.

A

Cystic fibrosis

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79
Q

Treatment for Cystic Fibrosis typically performed usually before meals and going to bed? [. . .]

A

chest physiotherapy

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80
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an inherited [. . .] disorder of the exocrine glands that results in physiologic alterations in the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive systems.

A

autosomal recessive

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81
Q

A white pupil (leukocoria, or cat’seye reflex) is one of the first signs of [. . .] , an intraocular malignancy of the retina. (not related to CF)

A

retinoblastoma

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82
Q

[. . .] is defined as inadequate gas exchange that is intrapulmonary (pneumonia, pulmonary embolism) or extrapulmonary (head injury, opioid overdose) in origin.

A

ARF

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83
Q

Type I hypoxemic failure is associated with an alteration in transfer of [. . .] (eg, acute respiratory distress syndrome, pulmonary edema, shock).

A

Oxygen

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84
Q

Type II hypercapnic, or ventilatory, failure is associated with [. . .] (eg, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, myasthenia gravis, flail chest).

A

CO2 retention

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85
Q

The therapeutic effect [. . .] is relaxation of the smooth muscles of the airways, which results in immediate bronchodilation

A

Albuterol

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86
Q

The [. . .] machine will provide positive pressure oxygen and expel CO2 from the lungs.

A

bilevel positive airway pressure (BIPAP)

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87
Q

This client is already showing signs of [. . .] and confusion, which is usually a late indicator of respiratory decline.

A

lethargy

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88
Q

Nebulizer treatments are commonly part of the treatment plan for a client with [. . .] . However, these do not take priority when the client has CO2 retention and is deteriorating.

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

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89
Q

Steroid therapy is a common pharmaceutical intervention for [. . .] exacerbation, but it does not take priority over BIPAP in this deteriorating client. In addition, steroids take hours to days to have an effect.

A

COPD

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90
Q

[. . .] is an effective treatment to decrease CO2 levels in clients with hypercapnic respiratory failure.

A

BIPAP therapy

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91
Q

[. . .] and peak expiratory flow are the best indicators of treatment effectiveness during an acute asthma attack.

A

Improvements in oxygen saturation

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92
Q

[. . .] is the best indicator of treatment effectiveness as it reflects gas exchange.

A

Oxygen saturation

93
Q

[. . .] is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation, swelling, and narrowing of the airways in the lungs.

A

Asthma

94
Q

Treatment of an acute asthma attack can include nebulized breathing treatment with a [. . .] , and oral or IV corticosteroids.

A

shortacting betaagonist medication such as albuterol

95
Q

The absence of wheezes may indicate [. . .] or progression of airway swelling to the point of little air flowing through the lungs or complete closure of the airways

A

resolution of the attack

96
Q

[. . .] , by measuring how much air a person can exhale, indicates the amount of airway obstruction.

A

Peak expiratory flow rate

97
Q

The albuterol canister should be [. . .] prior to inhalation to ensure appropriate medication delivery.

A

shaken

98
Q

[. . .] is a common side effect of anticholinergic drugs that can be alleviated with sugarfree candies or gum.

A

Xerostomia

99
Q

[. . .] should not be swallowed. These capsules are placed inside the inhaler device, and the capsule is pierced, allowing the client to inhale its contents

A

Tiotropium capsules

100
Q

The adequacy of oxygenation and ventilation in a client with respiratory failure is best evaluated through [. . .]

A

ABG analysis.

101
Q

Hypercapnic respiratory failure means that there’s too much [. . .] in your blood, and near normal or not enough oxygen in your blood.

A

carbon dioxide

102
Q

The HFCWO vest’s rapid vibrations may induce [. . .] in some clients. Therefore, the client should avoid meals and snacks 1 hour before, during, or 2 hours following CPT to prevent gastrointestinal upset

A

nausea and vomiting

103
Q

CPT can be administered using various methods, including [. . .] of the chest wall with cupped hands.

A

percussion (ie, clapping)

104
Q

CPT should be performed at least [. . .] a day, and more often if needed.

A

twice

105
Q

This treatment is an important component of treatment for clients with cystic fibrosis. [. . .]

A

Chest physiotherapy (CPT)

106
Q

A [. . .] vest is a common method of performing CPT

A

highfrequency chest wall oscillation

107
Q

The [. . .] is a handheld device used to measure peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) and is most helpful for clients with moderate to severe asthma.

A

peak flow meter

108
Q

Impaired gas exchange is a deficit in [. . .] and/or elimination of carbon dioxide at the alveolarcapillary membrane.

A

oxygenation

109
Q

By assessing the client’s [. . .] , the nurse can determine the severity of the symptoms (eg. asthma).

A

peak expiratory flow

110
Q

A [. . .] is often the earliest sign of an asthma exacerbation in children.

A

cough

111
Q

Codeine is an opioid drug prescribed as an [. . .] to treat mild to moderate pain and as an antitussive to suppress the cough reflex.

A

analgesic

112
Q

Two groups of commonly used drugs, [. . .] , have the potential to cause problems for clients with asthma.

A

nsaids and beta blockers

113
Q

[. . .] andaspirin are common overthecounter antiinflammatory drugs that can cause bronchospasm in some clients with asthma.

A

Ibuprofen

114
Q

[. . .] is an inflammatory condition in which the smaller airways constrict and become filled with mucus. Breathing, especially on expiration, becomes more difficult.

A

Asthma

115
Q

Quick relief medications (eg, [. . .] , pratropium are used to treat acute symptoms and exacerbations.

A

albuterol

116
Q

Inhaled [. . .] and leukotriene inhibitors are typically used to achieve and maintain control of inflammation for longterm management of asthma.

A

corticosteroids

117
Q

[. . .] exposure can be greatly reduced by washing bed linens every 12 weeks with hot water.

A

Dust mite allergen

118
Q

The [. . .] is a common site of allergen exposure.

A

bed

119
Q

Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene (chemical mediator of inflammation) inhibitor and is not used to treat acute episodes. It is given orally in combination with beta agonists and corticosteroid inhalers (eg, fluticasone, budesonide) to provide [. . .]

A

longterm asthma control

120
Q

which device can deliver adequate oxygen concentrations and is best for clients with adequate tidal volume and normal vital signs [. . .]

A

nasal cannula

121
Q

The nonrebreathing reservoir mask can deliver [. . .] oxygen concentrations and is usually used short term. It is often used for clients with low saturations resulting from asthma, pneumonia, trauma, and severe sepsis; it is not the most appropriate device for a COPD client in this situation.

A

60%–95%

122
Q

Highflow oxygen delivery devices [. . .] deliver oxygen concentrations that do not vary with breathing patterns.

A

eg, Venturi mask, mechanical ventilator

123
Q

[. . .] disease is a neurological condition that increases the risk for aspiration and aspiration pneumonia, a common cause of death in clients with swallowing dysfunction.

A

Alzheimer

124
Q

Place in [. . .] position – quickly maximizes ability to expand lungs, promotes oxygenation, and helps to decrease risk of further aspiration

A

High Fowler’s

125
Q

It is used for longterm control of asthma but not for acute attacks. [. . .]

A

Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair)

126
Q

[. . .] is a combination drug containing a corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a bronchodilator (salmeterol).

A

Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair)

127
Q

After taking [. . .] the client instructions include the following. After inhalation, rinse the mouth with water without swallowing to reduce the risk of oral/esophageal candidiasis

A

Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair)

128
Q

A [. . .] involves the insertion of a largebore needle through an intercostal space to remove excess fluid.

A

thoracentesis

129
Q

If secretions are thick and difficult to remove, increasing [. . .] not suctioning time, is indicated.

A

hydration

130
Q

Aerosol therapy may induce [. . .] in certain individuals and can be relieved by use of a bronchodilator (albuterol).

A

bronchospasm

131
Q

Aerosols of sterile normal saline or mucolytics such as [. . .] (Mucomyst) administered by nebulizer can also be used to thin the thick secretions, but water should NOT be used.

A

acetylcysteine

132
Q

A [. . .] means that fluid has accumulated in the pleural space and is most often found in the bases.

A

pleural effusion

133
Q

The nurse uses auscultation to assess the movement of air through the [. . .] and detect absent or adventitious sounds.

A

tracheobronchial tree

134
Q

When auscultating the anterior chest of the client with a right basilar effusion, the stethoscope should be placed on the right side of the chest, near the [. . .] . That area corresponds to the base of the right lung.

A

fifth or sixth intercostal space

135
Q

The areas near the clavicle correspond to the [. . .] of the lungs.

A

apex or apices

136
Q

After a tonsillectomy, [. . .] from the surgical site is a potential complications.

A

bleeding

137
Q

Croup and epiglottitis are types of [. . .] inflammation that can lead to airway obstruction, requiring emergency treatment.

A

laryngeal

138
Q

[. . .] can be a cause of confusion and is an indicator that the client requires more oxygen.

A

Cerebral hypoxia

139
Q

The lower airway consists of the [. . .]

A

trachea, right and left main stem bronchi, five secondary bronchi and bronchioles.

140
Q

The lower airway’s primary function is to [. . .] .

A

facilitate gas exchange

141
Q

The nurse may observe a barrel chest (increased anteriorposterior diameter) and hear rhonchi breath sounds, which are associated with [. . .] .

A

chronic bronchitis

142
Q

A normal partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) level ranges from [. . .]

A

80 to 100 mm Hg

143
Q

Shortness of breath, tachypnea, absent breath sounds and hypoxemia indicate a recurrence of the [. . .] . This is a lifethreatening medical emergency that requires the nurse to prioritize.

A

pneumothorax

144
Q

is a sympathomimetic drug. Expected side effects mimic manifestations related to stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, and commonly include insomnia, nausea and vomiting, palpitations (from tachycardia), and mild tremor [. . .]

A

Albuterol

145
Q

The priority nursing action for clients with a new tracheostomy is to ensure the tube [. . .] .

A

is placed securely by checking the tightness of ties and allowing for 1 finger to fit under these ties

146
Q

Excess drainage of frank red blood is indicative of [. . .] .

A

hemorrhage and must be managed immediately

147
Q

To prevent hemorrhage post surgery, the client should avoid [. . .] .

A

clearing the throat, blowing the nose, and coughing

148
Q

Post operative bleeding manifests with [. . .]

A

frequent or continuous swallowing and/or cough from the trickling blood

149
Q

Bronchospasm leads to [. . .] .

A

CO2 trapping and retention

150
Q

is a highflow device that delivers a guaranteed oxygen concentration regardless of the client’s respiratory rate, depth, or tidal volume (TV) [. . .]

A

The Venturi mask

151
Q

In the presence of tachypnea, shallow breathing with decreased TV, hypercarbia(hypercapnia), and hypoxemia, it is the most appropriate oxygen delivery device for this client as rapid changes in inspired oxygen concentration can blunt the hypoxemic drive to breathe in clients with COPD [. . .]

A

Venturi Mask

152
Q

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device at night to keep the structures of the pharynx and tongue from [. . .]

A

collapsing backward

153
Q

include frequent periods of sleep disturbance, snoring, morning headache, daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, forgetfulness, mood changes, and depression [. . .]

A

Common symptoms for Obstructive Sleep Apnea

154
Q

It is not the best choice in an unstable COPD client with varying TVs because the inspired oxygen concentration is not guaranteed [. . .]

A

nasal canula

155
Q

the priority is clearing the airway after the client has been placed in a position that prevents further aspiration [. . .]

A

Perform oropharyngeal suctioning

156
Q

Administer 100% oxygen by nonrebreather mask [. . .] .

A

corrects hypoxemia/hypoxia once the airway has been cleared to allow passage of oxygen. The nurse has already gathered focused assessment data and determined the need for emergent oxygen delivery (eg, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypoxia, cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness)

157
Q

determines air movement and presence of adventitious sounds (eg, crackles, wheezing, stridor) that can indicate obstruction, secretions, atelectasis, or fluid. This assessment is performed once emergency measures are in place (eg, oxygen) and the client has been stabilized [. . .]

A

Assess lung sounds

158
Q

common site of allergen exposure [. . .]

A

bed

159
Q

Dust mite allergen exposure can be greatly reduced by washing bed linens every [. . .]

A

12 weeks with hot water

160
Q

are common overthecounter antiinflammatory drugs that can cause bronchospasm in some clients with asthma [. . .]

A

Ibuprofen and aspirin

161
Q

Two groups of commonly used drugs have the potential to cause problems for clients with asthma. [. . .]

A

NSAIDS and Beta Blockers

162
Q

Risks associated with suctioning include [. . .]

A

hypoxemia, microatelectasis, and cardiac dysrhythmias

163
Q

is an inflammation of the mucous membrane of the nose marked by rhinorrhea (runny nose), nasal congestion, itching and sneezing [. . .]

A

rhinitis definition

164
Q

when air enters the pleural space through a hole in the chest wall, e.g., a gunshot wound [. . .]

A

An open pneumothorax is

165
Q

when air enters the pleural space through a hole in the lung tissue (after a lung resection) [. . .]

A

A closed pneumothorax

166
Q

a closed pneumothorax with rapid accumulation of air in the pleural space, which increases pressure [. . .]

A

A tension pneumothorax

167
Q

Most types of pneumothorax are treated with [. . .]

A

chest tube insertion

168
Q

when purulent drainage is found in the pleural space. It is usually a complication of pneumonia, and is treated with a chest tube and antibiotics [. . .]

A

Empyema

169
Q

when fluid (transudate or exudate) is found in the pleural space. It is treated with a thoracentesis or a chest tube [. . .]

A

a pleural effusion

170
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) [. . .]

A

fluticasone, beclomethasone

171
Q

Longacting beta agonists (LABA) [. . .]

A

salmeterol

172
Q

Leukotriene antagonist [. . .]

A

montelukast

173
Q

Anticholinergic inhaler [. . .]

A

tiotropium

174
Q

Mast cell stabilizers [. . .]

A

cromolyn sodium inhaler

175
Q

Shortacting beta agonists (SABA) [. . .]

A

albuterol, inhaler or nebulizer

176
Q

Asthma Exacerbation is treated with [. . .]

A

oral (prednisone) or intravenous corticosteroids (methylprednisolone) with tapering of dose as exacerbation resolves

177
Q

Longacting beta2 agonists (LABA) will take this medication [. . .] .

A

every day for best effect

178
Q

Sarcoidosis defines as [. . .] .

A

an intrapulmonary disorder characterized by the formation of granulomas in the lungs, as well as the heart, lymph nodes, bones and skin

179
Q

A condition in which the pleural space is abnormally occupied by air or fluid, resulting in reduced lung capacity [. . .]

A

Pneumothorax

180
Q

Dobutamine, methyldopa, tetracycline antibiotics, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in addition to some diuretics, can lead to what [. . .]

A

lithium toxicity

181
Q

Used to treat bronchospasm that commonly causes tachycardia and tremor? [. . .]

A

Albuterol

182
Q

During your assessment of a patient taking Albuterol (Proventil) which of the following side effects is most likely to be seen? [. . .]

A

Tremor

183
Q

In some patients, [. . .] has been reported to cause or worsen angina.

A

albuterol

184
Q

A notable cardiac symptom seen withmetabolic acidosis is [. . .]

A

hypotension

185
Q

Can lead to CNS depression due to the buildup of carbonic acid and CO2 in patients? [. . .]

A

Metabolic acidosis

186
Q

Patients with metabolic acidosis display generalized [. . .] as a result of alterations in muscle metabolism.

A

muscle weakness

187
Q

A symptom often associated withmetabolic acidosis is the complaint of [. . .]

A

abdominal pain

188
Q

If metabolic acidosis is untreated and becomes more severe, it can lead to [. . .] in patients.

A

coma

189
Q

In later stages of metabolic acidemia, breathing that can be seen. This pathologic breathing pattern is described by rapid, deep breaths, which are labored. [. . .]

A

Kussmaul Respirations

190
Q

The key disturbance in metabolicacidosis is loss of [. . .] in the body.

A

bicarbonate

191
Q

In an attempt to compensate for bloodacidemia, patients show [. . .] initially.

A

increasedrespiratory rate

192
Q

In extreme acidemia patients with severe metabolic acidosis can lead to [. . .]

A

cardiac arrhythmias

193
Q

Theophyline toxicity can serious symptoms ? [. . .]

A

ventricular fibrillation and convulsions

194
Q

Theophyline with symptoms indicating a mild reaction (i.e., nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, insomnia, and restlessness [. . .]

A

the medication should be stopped immediately

195
Q

This impaired expansion of the alveoli leads to the accumulation of secretions mucus plug decreased surfactant as well as the obstruction of airway and collapse of alveoli. When this happens we have

A

atelectasis which can then progress to PneumoniaCoughing and deep breathing exercises are essential to enhance lung expansion and mobilize secretions thereby preventing atelectasis (collapse of the alveoli) and pneumonia

196
Q

If atelectasis is not addressed it may progress to

A

pneuomonia

197
Q

the collapse of a lung or part of it due to improper function of the alveoli

A

atelectasis

198
Q

where gaseous exchange takes place

A

atelectasis

199
Q

Its defined as the total or partial collapse of the alveoli

A

atelectasis

200
Q

In atelectasis the percussion sound is

A

dull as a result of consolidation

201
Q

An area of hyperresonance on one side of the chest may indicate a

A

pneumothorax

202
Q

Encouraging the client to cough at least ten times per hour helps prevent

A

atelectasis along with changing position at least every 2 hours

203
Q

what does the collapse of the alveoli lead to

A

atelectasis

204
Q

In atelectasis when the lung tissue is consolidated tactile fremitus is

A

decreased

205
Q

Name to longterm corticosteroid inhalers

A

fluticasone and budesonide

206
Q

They are not immediately useful as rescue medications but are useful in long

A

term management of persistent asthma Corticosteroids

207
Q

these corticosteroid inhalers are used to provide longterm asthma control

A

fluticasone and budesonide When used regularly every day inhaled budesonide decreases the number and severity of asthma attacks

208
Q

are rescue medications used for bronchodilation in an acute asthma attack

A

Short-acting beta-2 agonists

209
Q

long term control medications used to prevent bronchospasm and inflammatory cell

A

infiltration leukotriene modifiers

210
Q

Can I drink water after using my corticosteroid inhaler

A

No gargle and rinse out your mouth with water after use and Do not swallow the water

211
Q

Useful in long term management of persistent asthma

A

Corticosteroids

212
Q

Besides SABA (Short-acting beta-2 agonists) what is another rescue medication

A

used in the treatment of acute asthma attacks Anticholinergics examples include ipratropium and tiotropium

213
Q

Are leukotriene modifiers (Montelukast) used in the short term or long term

A

treatment of asthma? long term

214
Q

before using metered-dose inhalers you need to

A

shake it and inhale one spray with one breath and activate the device while continuing to inhale

215
Q

These meds are often used as prophylactic agents before a triggering event eg -

A

in exercise-induced asthma. They are not useful as a rescue once bronchospasm occurs. Leukotriene Modifiers (Montelukast)

216
Q

Anticholinergic used to help control the symptoms of lung diseases such as

A

asthma or chronic bronchitis and emphysema Ipratropium

217
Q

A dwelling risk for asthma death

A

living in the inner-city residence

218
Q

Never given alone to treat asthma

A

its always given with other medications Ipatropium

219
Q

position that facilitates the breathing process for children during an asthma attack

A

high fowler

220
Q

rhythmic breathing with periods of apnea usually caused by a metabolic issue or

A

neurological problem Cheyne-Stokes

221
Q

Name two examples of Short-acting beta-2 agonists drugs

A

albuterol and salbutamol

222
Q

Name a commonly used leukotriene modifier?

A

Montelukast

223
Q

in respiratory what is a rescue medication

A

one that can provide relief even after bronchospasm is triggered

224
Q

which is one of the most common methods of mechanical ventilation in the ICU

A

Assist-control (AC) mode

225
Q

How does Assist-Control (AC) mode work in a ventilator?

A

It works by setting a fixed tidal volume (VT) that the ventilator will deliver at set intervals of time or when the patient initiates a breath

226
Q

this ventilator works by adding pressure at exhalation to keep the alveoli open

A

Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

227
Q

This ventilation mode is used in clients with ARDS because of its ability to improve lung compliance and oxygenation

A

Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

228
Q

In ventilators what is Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)?

A

the ventilator will deliver a mandatory (set) number of breaths with a set volume while at the same time allowing spontaneous breaths.