Queens 2022

Question 1

Question 4:
Hurricane and severe storm preparedness are crucial for FDNY officers. In regard to storm preparation, all members shall be reminded of ‘reception areas’ each year on or about?

A: March 1st

B: August 1st

C: June 1st

D:May 1st

Answer 1

d

Question 2

Question 6:
According to the Citywide Incident Management System (CIMS), all of the following are considered “core competencies” of the FDNY except?

A: Pre-hospital emergency medical care

B: CBRN/Haz-Mat Life Safety Operations

C: Structural evacuation

D:Arson investigation (major case)

Answer 2

d

Explanation:
CIMS states that the core competencies of the FDNY are:
1. Fire suppression
2. Pre-hospital emergency medical care
3. Search and rescue
4. Structural evacuation
5. CBRN/Haz-Mat Life Safety Operations and mass decontamination
6. Arson investigation (cause and origin)
AUC 276 2.1

Question 3

Question 14:
Which of the following is not considered an “Incident” according to Safety Bulletin 3?

A: A tree limb falls on an apparatus causing damage

B: Apparatus fire

C: An apparatus strikes a fixed object

D: Damage to an apparatus discovered during routine inspection

E: A properly parked apparatus that was struck by another apparatus

Answer 3

c

Explanation:
This is considered a “Collision”.
SB 3 page 2

Question 4

At an incident with a Satellite unit on scene, the designated Water Resource Officer shall establish handi-talkie communications with the Incident Commander of the fire through established communication lines. Priority would be through?

A: Field Communications Unit, if on the scene.

B: Marine Unit, if on the scene.

C: Any Communications Unit, if on the scene.

D:The Resource Unit Leader if on the scene.

Answer 4

a

Question 5

Question 15:
When affixing the CO meter to the handie talkie on a company officer, it shall be affixed where?

A: To the HT Radio strap above the remote mic.

B: To the handie talkie strap below the remote mic

C: To the handie talkie strap near the radio

D: Do not affix the CO meter anywhere on the radio or strap

Answer 5

a

Explanation:
Haz Mat 4…. 2.6
It is recommended that Ladder Companies assign the second meter to the OV position. The Engine’s second meter shall be carried with the CFR equipment, attached to the O2 bag.

Question 6

Question 16:
Notification that a sprinkler system or fire alarm system is or will be out of service shall be made to the department under each of the following circumstances except in which choice?

A: The sprinkler system or fire alarm system is or will be out of service on more than one floor of a building

B: One or more other fire protection systems in the area in which a sprinkler of fire alarm system is out of service are or will also be out of service at the same time

C: Sprinkler system work or repairs cannot be completed, and the system restored to service, within 4 hours of the time the system was placed or went out of service

D: Fire alarm work or repairs will require the fire alarm system to be out of service for more than 8 hours in any 24-hour period

Answer 6

Explanation:
C) …within 8 hours of the time the system was placed or went out of service
AUC 5 ch 2 add 4 sec 3.3

c

Question 7

Question 26:
When replacement of a Fire Window Blanket is required during normal business hours, the company officer shall contact ________.

A: Administrative Battalion and request a replacement.

B: Administrative Division and request a replacement.

C: R&D and request a replacement.

D: Rope Unit at the Fire Academy and request a replacement.

Answer 7

Explanation:
TB Tools 3 4.3
During non-business hours the officer shall contact SOC at Roosevelt Island.
Recent update 12/2018

c

Question 8

Question 5:
The incorrect action for a first arriving Chemical Protection Clothing (CPC) unit officer can be found in which choice?

A: Report to the IC and recommend the entry point into the warm zone

B: Establish the CPC unit assembly area adjacent to the entry point

C: Any critical or pertinent information received from the operating teams must be immediately relayed up the chain of command

D: The CPC unit officer shall not don a chemical protective suit unless the situation indicates that a suit is required in order to properly supervise the unit’s operation

Answer 8

a

Question 9

At a private dwelling fire, which action below may the FAST Unit take?

A: Have the FAST unit assist in stretching the initial hoseline while still maintaining unit integrity, in front of the building.

B: Have the FAST unit split up and provide additional egress routes by placing portable ladders at exposures 2 and 4.

C: Have the FAST unit provide an additional egress route by removing window bars in front of the building, while maintaining unit integrity.

D: Have the FAST unit OV assist the 2nd Ladder OV in venting the rear windows.

Answer 9

Explanation:
Have the FAST unit provide additional egress routes while still maintaining unit integrity, e.g., remove window bars, place portable ladders.
MMID Ch 4 4.1

c

Question 10

Question 12:
Regarding FDNY-issued sound powered telephones, “amplifiers” are correctly described in which one choice below?

A: Amplifiers increase the volume of verbal transmissions, but are not required to be used.

B: Each amplifier has 2 cords; an 18” long cord with a male connector that attaches to the headset, and a 4” long cord has a female connector that attaches to the SPT system

C: There are 2 controls on the amplifier; a talk level knob that controls the volume and shall be placed at the lowest setting when in use, and a PTA (Push to Amplify) button.

D: The PTA (Push to Amplify) button should, if possible, be pressed and held whenever the user wants to transmit a message. Once the message is completed, the PTA button must be remain pressed, or the reply will not be heard.

Answer 10

Explanation:
B) Each amplifier has 2 cords; an 8” long cord with a female connector that attaches to the headset, and a 42” long cord has a male connector that attaches to the SPT system.
C) There are 2 controls on the amplifier; a talk level knob that controls the volume and shall be placed at the highest setting when in use, and a PTA (Push to Amplify) button.
The PTA (Push to Amplify) button must be pressed and held whenever the user wants to transmit a message. Once the message is completed, the PTA button must be released, or the reply will not be heard.
TB Tools 31 2.6

a

Question 11

Question 13:
When performing Mass Decon, the FDNY can use several options. Select the incorrect option

A: stretch a 1 ¾ handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle 50-80 psi

B: Stretch two handlines operating opposite each other, approximately 25 to 30 feet apart

C: Position two pumpers parallel to each other approximately 25 feet apart using the Aquastream fog nozzle, and with the control panels facing the outside

D: Position the TL with a Turbomaster fog nozzle or an Aerial ladder with a ladder pipe and Aquastream fog nozzle at the edge of the water spray formed from the pumpers

Answer 11

2 ½
B- 50-80 psi
C- Place Aquastream fog nozzle on inside DISCHARGE outlet at 50-80 psi
Haz-Mat 7 pages 3-5

a

Question 12

Question 17:
The operations for removing a victim or victims by Aerial Ladder are found in all of the following choices except?

A: The OV FF ascends the ladder followed by the LCC, climbs in window, assists victim feet first to the LCC, closes the door to the fire area, and then searches the area

B: The OV FF ascending first will keep the LCC closer to the controls

C: To descend with an ambulatory victim, place yourself one rung below the rung the victim is standing on

D: The Aerial Ladder shall never be moved while a FF is descending with a victim

Answer 12

d

Explanation:
*choice A is a conflict with the new ventilation bulletin. Ventilation sec 12.6.Note states “ If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, the member shall isolate the room and proceed with the rescue effort.”
Choice D- Only in an extreme emergency such as serious exposure to flame or high heat will the movement of the ladder with the FF and the victim on it be justified
Ladders 2 sec 5

Question 13

Question 39:
During company drill, the senior member of your company made all of the following correct statements about top floor fires in OLTs except?

A: Cockloft areas of OLTs are much smaller than those in NLTs and therefore are not as much of a problem

B: Utilizing a trench cut in the roof of an OLT is not necessary since the width of this type of building is approximately 25 feet

C: When fire has extended into the cockloft, the IC should be immediately notified

D: The entire top floor must be thoroughly searched and examined because of the lack of fire stopping in these buildings

Answer 13

Explanation:
It may be necessary to cut a trench in the roof of an OLT in order to prevent the spread of fire, but usually such fires are extinguished from below after an adequate ventilation hole is cut over the fire
MD ch 1 sec 3.6

b

Question 14

Question 40:
Which of the following is not fully accurate regarding accelerants and arson at vacant building fires? **1) Diesel fuel used as an accelerant will cause fires that begin and progress slowly. **2)Gasoline ignites rapidly and is consumed quicker than diesel, **3)At gasoline fed fires high heat will be present for a longer duration than at diesel fires. **4)Gasoline fires will ignite more of the combustible materials in the fire area that diesel fires will. **5) Both Gasoline and Diesel fuel will produce intense fire conditions.

A: 1,2,3,4&5

B: 1,3 & 5 only

C: 3 & 5 only

D: 1, 3, &4 only

Answer 14

Explanation:
Firefighting Procedures, Vacant Building Fires. Sec. 4.3
1- Diesel fuel used as an accelerant will cause fires that begin slowly and progress rapidly.
2-Correct
3- At diesel fed fires high heat will be present for a longer duration than at Gasoline fires.
4- Diesel fires will ignite more of the combustible materials in the fire area that Gasoline fires will.
5-Correct.

d

Question 15

Question 35:
At a Haz-Mat incident, if needed, the Safe Refuge Area (SRA) shall be located in which zone?

A: Exclusion Zone

B:Contaminated Reduction Zone

C:Support Zone

D: Cold Zone

Answer 15

wARM Zone

Question 16

Question 32:
Two officers discussing Iroquois Pipeline operations were incorrect in which statement made?

A: Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be performed by a Squad Company or SOC Support Ladder Company as designated by the Incident Commander. The designated units shall utilize their metering capabilities during their patrol duties.

B: In the event of a sub sea leak, a Marine Company will be assigned to patrol the sub sea pipeline.

C: When the leak is located, the Incident Commander will establish an Command Post at a location consistent with existing conditions.

D: The initial actions of units responding to pipeline boxes are to set up a perimeter and eliminate sources of ignition.

Answer 16

c Explanation:
Note the following point in this AUC which mentions “Rescue” and states: “If Rescue, Squad or SOC Support Ladder Company personnel are not available, the IC shall order available units to perform these duties.”
C) When the leak is located, the Incident Commander will establish an “Operations Post” at a location consistent with existing conditions.
AUC 150 7.1.1, 7.2.3-7.2.5

Question 17

Question 20:
Large Caliber Streams (LCS) are streams that deliver at least ____ GPM

A: 250

B: 350

C: 200

D: 300

Answer 17

b

Question 18

Question 16:
All units listed below carry search cameras that can extend through holes bored in floors and roofs to quickly identify and survey voids during collapse operations except in which choice?

A: Rescues

B: Squads

C: Collapse Rescue Units

D:SOC Support Ladder Companies

Answer 18

d

Question 19

Question 14:
Choose the incorrect procedure when marking portable ladders.

A: The numerical length of a ladder shall be marked on the side of the rails within 12 inches of the end of the ladder

B: The Unit designation shall be marked within 6 inches of each butt

C: The numerical length for straight ladders shall be marked on each end of each rail

D: The numerical length for extension ladders shall be marked at the butt end only of each rail of the bed ladder

Answer 19

Explanation:
The Unit designation shall be marked within 18 inches of each butt
Ladders 1 Portable Ladders sec 6.1

b

Question 20

Question 11:
Who shall ensure the sprinkler system is supplied for a lower floor fire in Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building?

A: 1st Engine Company

B: 2nd Engine Company

C: 3rd Engine Company

D: 4th Engine Company

Answer 20

c

Question 21

Question 9:
At a fire in a LRFPMD, FFs must be on their game especially when it comes to the LSR evolution. Choose the incorrect answer for the LSR evolution

A: Operate from the roof if practical

B: If it is determined that a LSR is not practical from the roof by the first Roof FF, then the first Roof FF shall direct the second Roof FF to the floor above the rescue if the second Roof FF has not already reached the roof

C: In buildings with two open interior stairs, the 2nd Roof FF may descend the evacuation stairway to the apartment directly above the fire apartment

D: In buildings with an open interior stairway, the IC may direct members or another unit to bring an available LSR to the apartment directly above the apartment

Answer 21

MDs (page 90) Two ENCLOSED STAIRS c

Question 22

Question 2:
A unit was incorrect in which action below upon arrival at a buckeye pipeline incident?

A: Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a second alarm and a 10-86 for the leak location

B: Upon completion of their duties, units shall contact the Incident Commander over the handie-talkie or through the Borough Dispatcher for further instructions.

C: Vapors of flammable liquids are lighter than air

D: The primary consideration is the evacuation of the area involved.

Answer 22

Explanation:
C) Vapors of flammable liquids are heavier than air and may drift into cellars, sewers, manholes, or subways with a potential for explosion and fire. Explosions in sewer lines may damage other underground utilities. Request response from utility companies.
AUC 149 sec 7

c

Question 23

Question 4:
When a rowframe fire is of a multiple alarm proportion, the strategy is correctly indicated in all choices below except?

A :Set up a perimeter of lines consisting usually of heavy caliber streams in the front and the rear, with 1 ¾” lines flanking the sides of the fire and moving toward the center of the fire.

B: As hand lines reach the center of the fire, the outside lines shall be directed into the buildings in which the companies are operating.

C: Once charged handlines are in position, ceilings must be pulled to expose and extinguish the fire in the common cockloft. When possible, this should take place after the cockloft is vented from above.

D: To cut off fire that is traveling in the cockloft toward the exposures, it may be necessary to skip a building in order to get ahead of the fire.

Answer 23

Explanation:
B) As hand lines reach the center of the fire, the outside lines must not be directed into the buildings in which the companies are operating.
RowFrames 7.7-7.9

c

Question 24

Question 6:
The severity of clutter shall be communicated at a fire operation. Of the following, which is the only acceptable term?

A: Collyer’s Mansion

B: Minimum Clutter

C: Maximum Clutter

D:Medium Clutter

Answer 24

Explanation:
Acceptable terms are “Light Clutter”, “Medium Clutter” and “Heavy Clutter”. The term “Collyer’s Mansion” shall no longer be used.
Safety Bulletin 92 2.3

d

Question 25

Question 11:
Gas emergencies can pose great risk to FDNY members and the civilians we protect. This is why members should know that all of the following gas emergency points are correct except?

A:Peck vents are normally found on low pressure systems

B:Service regulators are usually located before the gas meter on high and medium pressure systems to reduce incoming gas pressure to ¼ psi

C: Most natural gas shutoffs are of the 1⁄4 turn variety and can easily be shut off using the fork end of a Halligan tool, vice grips or pliers to turn the wing cock valve 1⁄4 turn counter-clockwise.

D: FDNY members shall not operate main valves

Answer 25

Explanation:
Medium and High pressure systems
EP Natural gas 4.4.2, page 22, 25

a

Question 26

A: Zone “B” channel 12 is designated as the TAC “U” Channel. This channel transmits at 5 watts.

B: When the TAC U channel is activated, all operating units shall remain on the Primary tactical channel unless specifically instructed to switch to another channel.

C: If an emergency alert tone is activated, only members of the FDNY will receive the alert over their HT’s and only on the channel on which the EA was activated.

Answer 26

all correct

Question 27

Question 13:
Which tactic/procedure is incorrect when operating at a Con-Ed Substation?

A: Sprinklers, if present, protect only transformers

B: Carbon dioxide extinguishers should not be used as an extinguishing agent at battery room fires

C: When raising Al or TL maintain an 18 foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line

D: Ask the Con-Ed White hat to retrieve the information from the FDNY lockbox located outside the substation

Answer 27

vExplanation:
AUC 338 add 2
A- A 3 1/2” supply line shall be stretched, but not charged to the sprinkler Siamese if present. if requested by Con-Ed white hat, supply the Siamese with water at the posted pressure. Sprinklers if present protect only the transformers…sec 5.2
B- Dry Chemical extinguishers are to be used…sec 5.5
C- sec 6
D- INSIDE the substation …sec 4.2

d

Question 28

Question 15:

Members may encounter difficulties when connecting hose to a Fire Department Connection (FDC.) This can include defective/damaged threads, frozen/stuck swivels and broken valves. Of the potential solutions described below, which is incorrect?

A: Tapping the swivel(s) on the FDC with a tool (spanner) may loosen paint, dirt, etc., and allow the swivel to operate.

B:Twist the supply hose 2-3 turns to the left, insert the male end, then twist the male end to the right (clockwise) into one of the female swivels of the FDC.

C: Insert a 3” x 3” x 3” Siamese into one of the female swivels of the FDC, which provides a female coupling for the male coupling of the 3 ½” supply hose to attach to.

D: Attach a 3” double male fitting to the malfunctioning female coupling of the FDC and then couple a 3” double female fitting to the double male to provide a female coupling for the male coupling of the 3 ½” supply hose to attach to.

Answer 28

Explanation:
B) Twist the supply hose 4-5 TURNS to the left, insert the male end, then twist the male end to the right (clockwise) into one of the female swivels of the FDC.
Eng Ch 5 4.3.4

b

Question 29

Question 19:

Rowframe fires can spread at a rapid pace and it’s beneficial to have the proper resources in place sooner rather than later. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy?

A:When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear, a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also mandatory to call for an additional engine and ladder.

B: When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, the need for a second alarm must be considered.

C: When two buildings are involved, we have a 2nd alarm situation.

D: Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when it extends beyond two buildings.

Answer 29

Explanation:
A) When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear, a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also ADVISABLE to call for an additional engine and ladder.
These statements should be memorized word-for-word. Past exams have had questions like these where changing a single word made a statement incorrect.
BS/RF 7.6

a

Question 30

Question 7:

When placing the aerial ladder to the roof of a building, extend the ladder so that the tip is?

A:At least 5 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.

B: At least 2 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.

C:At least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.

D: At least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.

Answer 30

a

Question 31

Question 17:
When operating at an aircraft incident, which side of the aircraft is referred to as the “rescue side” of the aircraft due to the layout of doors?

A: Nose side of aircraft

B:Tail side of aircraft

C: Right side of aircraft

D:Left side of aircraft

Answer 31

Explanation:
Port Authority will use this side as a reference point and the primary side for rescues
AUC 325 sec 6.2.4

d

Question 32

Question 24:
Which of the following building classifications is CORRECT?

A:A 150x150 Non-Fireproof MD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL3LW.

B: A 25x60 Wood Frame PD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL2LW.

C:A 80x80 15sty Fire Protected MD that was renovated using C joist is classified at CL2R.

D: A 200x200 Heavy Timber structure that was renovated using Mass Timber engineered products should be classified as CL6HT

Answer 32

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS – NEW MATERIAL 3/22
A IS CORRECT – 4.5.3 Ciii – A Non-Fireproof structure which is constructed, renovated, repaired, using any type of structural light-weight materials should be classified as CL3LW.
B – CL4LW
C – CL2LW
D – CL6MT – Constructed, renovated, repaired

READ COMM CH 4

Question 33

Question 26:
Ladder 300 has young firefighter working her first tour of the one year rotation. After roll call, members are going over the operation of the power saw and make the following comments. They were incorrect in which one?

A:During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of the saw in operation shall observe as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot radius circle of danger.

B:Use of the power saw from a ladder (except a tower ladder) is not permitted.

C: Only the officer, the operator, and the member designated as the guide may enter the circle of danger.

D: The saw shall always be shut down when unattended.

Answer 33

Explanation:
B. Use of the power saw from a ladder (except a tower ladder) IS NOT RECOMMENDED.

NOTE “A”: THE CHAIN SAW IS 10 FEET

NOTE “C”: THE CHAIN SAW IS ONLY THE CONTROL PERSON AND OPERATOR ALLOWED IN CIRCLE OF DANGER

TB Tools 9 4.7, 4.7.1, 4.8.3, 4.14.2 Note

Question 34

Question 33:
The incorrect tactic when operating at a vehicle involving Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), can be found in which choice?

A: Extinguish a fire by stopping the flow of gas

B: If the flow of gas cannot be stopped do not extinguish the fire- let it burn

C:If the CNG cylinders are exposed to fire, apply water directly to the cylinders to cool them

D:Establish a minimum safe perimeter of 100’ around the vehicle

Answer 34

Explanation:
DO NOT apply water to CNG cylinders exposed to fire because this may cool the pressure relief device (PRD) resulting in it not activating. This can result in a catastrophic cylinder failure
Haz-Mat 1 sec 4.5.2

C

Question 35

Question 12:
The air supply of a member in distress needs to be assessed whether the member is conscious or unconscious. Removing the member from the IDLH is critical for survival and assuring that the distressed member has an adequate supply of air is the next priority. A member will suffer brain damage without air in?

A: one to two minutes

B: two to three minutes

C: four to six minutes

D: six to ten minutes

Answer 35

Explanation:
In six to ten minutes a member will move towards clinical death
MMID Ch 3 7.1

C

Question 36

Question 20:
A separate DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority shall be prepared for each of the following except?

A: For a condition requiring a joint inspection

B: For each high priority referral condition for the same address

C: For each address or premise

D: When both a normal priority referral item and a high priority referral item exist at the same address or premise

Answer 36

A

Explanation:
A) False; this does not require a separate document. A joint inspection can be requested for both normal and high priority referrals. All you have to do is check off the “joint inspection” box.
AUC 5 ch 3 add 5 sec 2.1.1

Question 37

Question 25:
The ability of the fans to produce positive pressure relies on proper fan placement to create a seal and push air into the stairwell. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the officer’s placement of the fans at a recent fire?

A: Placing the fan in the stairwell does not create any pressure in the stairwell.

B: The optimum placement of the PPF is 6 to 8 feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor.

C: The fan should be directly facing the door to the stairwell at an angle tilt of 75 degrees.

D: While less effective, the fan can be placed inside the stairwell. It may create higher CO levels and negative stack effect by pulling smoke and heat down the stairwell.

Answer 37

Explanation:
AUC 349 – POSITIVE PRESSURE FANS 7.2
B – Optimum placement is 4-6 feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor. 7.2
C – Angle tilt is 80 degrees. 7.2
D – The fan should be positioned to blow into the stairwell. IT SHOULD NOT BE PLACED IN THE STAIRWELL. 7.2

A

Question 38

Question 26:
Which Brush fire tactic is incorrectly stated?

A: Attack the fire from the rear and attempt to narrow its spread

B: Avoid chasing the fire, running out of hose, and exhausting operating forces

C: Streams should be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above the brush

D: Extinguish the perimeter from the flanks first, and then move to interior burning areas

Answer 38

Explanation:
AUC 151
A- Attack the fire from the flanks and attempt to narrow its spread, eventually heading it off…sec 5.4.9
B- sec 5.4.8
C- sec 5.4.13
D- sec 5.4.10

A

Question 39

Question 1:
There are several procedures when it comes to monitoring the EFAS system. Choose the incorrect procedure

A:It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion FF, before performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST unit

B: Upon arrival of the FAST unit, the EFAS trained member designated at roll call to monitor EFAS shall report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS. This FAST unit member will then monitor both EFAS and Battalion’s FAST unit HT

C: When the Division is on-scene, it shall be the responsibility of the division Back-up FF, if available, to report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS to either: Assist the EFAS trained member of the FAST unit or relieve the Battalion FF if the Battalion FF has not been relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST unit

D:When the Division responds to an incident from quarters, the Division Back-up FF will respond with the Division. If the Division responds while out of quarters, the Division Back-up FF shall proceed to the location of the fire if possible

Answer 39

Explanation:
AFTER performing primary duties
Comm ch 9 add 3 sec 2

A

Question 40

Question 2:
At an FDNY operation, when a danger area has been identified the IC shall have “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape put in place to mark the danger zone. All of the following are appropriate actions to take in this case except?

A: The IC shall make a transmission via handie-talkie alerting units that a danger zone has been established.

B:The danger zone may be entered to save life.

C: The danger zone may be entered as authorized by the IC.

D:The danger zone may be entered as authorized by the Operations Section Chief.

Answer 40

D

Question 41

Question 21:
When EFAS starts, it is programmed to automatically download the latest version of the Spare Radio Database. This will be indicated in the bottom of the task bar in what color letters?

A:Green

B: Yellow

C: Red

D: Black

Answer 41

A

Question 42

Question 27:
The classic ventilation profile of a wind impacted fire can be found in which choice?

A:Fire or smoke visible inside the fire apartment that is not venting out of an open or failed window

B: Fire or smoke visible inside the fire apartment that is pulsing outward from an open or failed window

C: Fire or smoke visible inside the fire apartment that is venting straight (horizontal) out from open or failed window

D:Fire or smoke visible inside the fire apartment that is venting out and upward from an open or failed window

Answer 42

A

Question 43

Question 33:
During multi-unit drill, Lt Manning discussed the general features of a Tower Ladder. She was incorrect in which one?

A: Loss of hydraulic fluid from the main reservoir due to a broken line is rapid and the boom will lock in position.

B: All stabilizing components are equipped with locks (pins) that should be inserted manually in case of hydraulic failure.

C: When operating with a 75’ Tower Ladder, a 6’ hook may be utilized as a gauge to determine if the outriggers will clear all obstructions.

D: When operating with a 95’ Tower Ladder, the clearance needed for the outrigger to an obstruction is 6’8”.

Answer 43

B

Explanation:
All stabilizing components are equipped with locks (pins) that MUST be inserted manually in case of hydraulic failure.
TL Ch 1 page 2

Question 44

Question 34:
At an under river rail operation, all of the following assignments would require SOC units and/or SOC Support Ladder Companies except?

A: Atmospheric monitoring

B:Structural assessment

C:Removal of Red and Yellow tag victims from a IDLH environment

D: Shoring

Answer 44

Explanation:
C) This is not limited to SOC or SSLs
Also “Rebreather Operations” and use of “Special Tools and Equipment” require SOC or SSLs
Under River Rail 8.3

C

Question 45

Question 39:
What will be displayed on the EFAS screen when a member activates their EAB?

A: Their company and position only in red in both the “Radio” and Mayday” areas

B: Their company, position, and name in red in the “Mayday” area only

C: Their company, position, and name in red in the “Radio Status” area only

D:Their company, position, and name in red in both the “Radio” and Mayday” areas

Answer 45

Explanation:
Comm Ch 9 add 3 sec 5.1.4
KNOW EFAS

D

Question 46

Question 40:
Two firefighters discussing fire operations in buildings with photovoltaic systems were incorrect in which comment?

A: PV systems do not produce electricity at night, and lightning flashes occurring at night will not energize the PV System.

B: On buildings with sloped roofs, PV arrays will generally be installed on the South and West facing sides.

C: Combiner boxes should not be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shut down the PV array.

D: Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are not powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array.

Answer 46

Explanation:
A) PV systems do not produce electricity at night. However, lightning flashes occurring at night can energize the PV System.
AUC 351 7

A

Question 47

Question 1:
Upon arrival for a class 3 alarm, you determine after a thorough investigation that the alarm was transmitted unnecessarily because of construction activities inside the building. You would be most correct to transmit what code?

A: 10-35 no code

B: 10-35-1

C: 10-35-2

D: 10-35-3

E: 10-35-4

Answer 47

Explanation:
Comm ch 8 page 10

C

Question 48

Question 4:
Mezzanine areas may be found in some taxpayers and their location, area and use can differ. All of the following statements are accurate regarding mezzanine areas except in which choice?

A: Since these areas have probably been added to the premises after the original construction date, the load bearing components can be of light construction. These supports may be loaded beyond their safe load bearing capabilities.

B: In the majority of the mezzanines this area will be enclosed and there will be a railing at the edge.

C: Access may be via small wooden stairs or just a ladder. Very seldom will there be another means of access.

D: The mezzanine area is in most cases used for storage of goods, but it can contain offices (predominant in supermarkets and factories) and also sales areas to which the public will have access.

Answer 48

Explanation:
B) In the majority of the mezzanines this area will not be enclosed and there will be a railing at the edge.
Taxpayer 2.4

B

Question 49

Question 12:
At _____ alarms or when deemed necessary in addition to the Incident Command Post, the Incident Commander, shall also establish a Staging Area (SA) and determine from the dispatcher which Chief Officer has been designated as the Staging Area Manager

A: 2nd or greater alarms

B: 3rd or greater alarms

C: All Hands or greater alarms

D: 4th and 5th alarms only

Answer 49

B

Question 50

Question 20:
When utilizing negative pressure at an operation, the electric box fan is operated in the exhaust mode to remove the contaminated air from the involved structure. Which action below would not support a negative pressure operation?

A: The box fan should be hung in a window or doorway as high as possible.

B: Salvage tarps should be used to create a seal around the operating fan, allowing the exhaust fan to create an area of negative pressure.

C: An alternate method, when tarps are not available or the box fan can not be hung, is to position the fan outside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening 4 to 6 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 80 degrees.

D: A fresh air inlet shall be established opposite the operating fan, thereby allowing clean exterior air to enter the structure and replace the contaminated air.

Answer 50

Explanation:
C) An alternate method, when tarps are not available or the box fan can not be hung, is to position the fan inside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening 6 to 8 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degrees.
AUC 349 10

C

Question 51

Question 27:
When assigned on a response, the Communications Unit will normally report to the Communications Unit Leader (COML), if staffed. If the COML is not staffed, or has not arrived, they would be most correct to report to?

A: the Resources Unit Leader (RESL)

B: the Operations Section Chief

C: the Incident Commander (IC)

D: the Logistics Section Chief

Answer 51

Explanation:
If neither the COML nor the RESL is on scene, they will report to the Incident Commander (IC). The officer of the Communications Unit will not be designated as the COML.
ICS Ch 2 Add 3 3.2

A

Question 52

Question 46:
At a structural fire, prior to venting windows for access, the member must determine if the ventilation profile indicates that the area is tenable for search and does not pose a high risk to the member. Once a decision has been made and approval has been granted to enter, each of the following actions would be considered correct except?

A: The member should clear out the window for access and be cognizant that a new flow path has been created.

B: Upon completion of clearing the window and before entering, reassess the smoke and heat condition to determine if the area is still tenable.

C: After venting, and reassessing an area which shows it to be tenable, the priority action for the member is to isolate the area by closing a door before conducting the search (VEIS).

D:If conditions prevent access after reassessing smoke and heat conditions, reach in and probe the immediate area for potential victims. In addition, enter to isolate the area by closing the interior door to the room.

Answer 52

D

Explanation:
If conditions prevent access after reassessing smoke and heat conditions, IMMEDIATELY NOTIFY THE LADDER COMPANY OFFICER of this situation.
If conditions are tenable after reassessing smoke and heat conditions, the member should reach in and probe the immediate area for potential victims.
After closing the door….search the room and locate any victims. If a victim is found immediately transmit radio code 10-45, include your location and planned exit route. The Company Officer and Incident Commander shall take necessary action to support your rescue effort.

Question 53

Question 56:
When there is only one 4-FF Ladder Company on scene at a fire, who is the Safety Team composed of?

A: the LCC firefighter and Irons firefighter.

B: take a defensive position based on conditions encountered.

C: the LCC firefighter and OV firefighter.

D: the LCC firefighter and outside firefighter designated by the officer.

Answer 53

Explanation:
C) This is for a 5-FF Ladder. When 4-FFs only, there may not be an OV position staffed.
MMID Ch 1 2.1.1

D

Question 54

Question 58:
All firehouses shall prepare for severe weather conditions; especially hurricanes and tropical storms. Depending on a storm’s severity, some quarters may need to be evacuated. Which choice below is not in accord with Department policy?

A: In quarters where flooding is a problem, the Company Commander shall determine special needs for storm preparation and obtain such supplies and equipment in advance of the start of hurricane season (June 1st).

B: Requisitioning of supplies shall commence March 1st to permit sufficient time for the various bureaus to obtain and deliver materials.

C: Items on requisition not received by June 1st shall be called to the attention of the Division Storm Operations Coordinator.

D: Evacuated companies will be relocated to Host Companies or dispersal sites. Company Commanders of designated Host Companies are to ensure that necessary preparations are made to accommodate relocated companies. Battalions are to ensure preparations are made at dispersal sites.

Answer 54

C

Explanation:
C) Items on requisition not received by May 1st shall be called to the attention of the Division Storm Operations Coordinator.
AUC 159 4.7

Question 55

Question 1:
During a High-Rise fire, the second arriving Engine officer provides the communications link between the lobby (Command Post) and the fire area pending the establishment of the Fire Sector/Branch on a floor below the fire with the Post radio. In regards to establishing the communications link, what channel should the Engine officer use via the Post Radio to create this link?

A: Tactical channel

B: Command channel

C: Ucall/Utac channel

D: Tac-U channel

Answer 55

Explanation:
Comm ch 12 sec 6.2.4
The second engine officer will then use their HT radio on the tactical channel to announce to units in the fire area that a communication link with the ICP has been established

B

Question 56

Question 2:
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) when properly used and maintained will afford a limited period of protection to exit an area which has become or is to become untenable. Choose the incorrect statement made in regards to PPE.

A: The wearing of the suspenders is mandatory

B: The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp, or saturated with moisture

C: If the hood is not available, instruct the member to have his/her coat collar up, helmet flaps down before entering the fire area.

D: The proper order to don Bunker Gear: 1) Pants and Boots 2) HT 3) Protective Hood completely over your head 4) Bunker Coat

Answer 56

C

Explanation:
AUC 310…NEW as of 3/29/2019
A- Correct…. 6.6
B- Correct….. 6.7
C- Hood use is mandated by the Department. Leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, unless the area can be immediately cooled by a hoseline………6.7 and 6.8
D- Correct…..Know the order to don Bunker Gear….7.1

Question 57

Question 3:
Upon arrival of a report of a manhole fire, you discover that there is a popping noise coming from the reported manhole. As you exit the apparatus to investigate, the Battalion Chief requests a 10-12. You tape off the area, check surrounding properties, and determine that Chief does not have to continue in. What code do you transmit?

A :10-25

B: 10-25-1

C: 10-25-2

D: 10-25-3

E: 10-25-4

Answer 57

Explanation:
Comm ch 8 page 8
Withcode: Situation other than as described in Codes 1,2,3,or 4

A

Question 58

Question 9:
Which of the following is an incorrect statement made about the FDNY Foam Delivery System?

A: Each Engine company has been issued a handline foam eductor, which flows 125 GPM, and an aerating foam nozzle; both carried in a pelican case

B: A first alarm assignment of three Engines and two Ladders should provide 13 five-gallon containers of foam which is a total of 65 gallons of Alcohol Resistant - Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AR-AFFF) foam solution

C: The first alarm assignment will be able to provide approximately 17 minutes of finished firefighting foam at a 3% setting on the educator with the aerating foam nozzle

D: When responding with the Foam Tanker, a maximum of two members, inclusive of the chauffeur, shall be permitted to ride in the Foam Tanker

Answer 58

Explanation:
Foam CONCENTRATE
Read question and answers carefully. They changed this EXACT word on the 2005 Lts test
TB Foam pages 7-8

B

Question 59

Question 15:
All of the following points made about the Inflatable Soft Landing Mat are correct except?

A: If the landing mat is to be used in front of quarters, the apparatus must be removed and parked in a safe position outside

B: When the landing mat is positioned properly, the exhaust port may face directly away from the building or to either side. The exhaust port shall never be placed directly against the building wall

C: The landing mat and blower unit (two separate parts) are to be maintained as one complete unit

D: Due to the weight of the landing mat when folded, two members shall drag the landing mat into the area of intended use

Answer 59

Explanation:
The landing mat must not be dragged to the intended area. Two members are required to lift and carry the mat to the area of intended use
TB Rope 1 Data Sheet 4 page 2

D

Question 60

Question 35:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding depressed rear courtyards which may be found in older cast iron loft buildings?

A: Loft buildings 100 feet in depth will have limited rear access and maneuverability for firefighting. This is partially due to their close proximity to adjoining buildings in the rear.

B: Rear courtyards, some with fire escapes, may access 3 stories below grade and add to the operational complexity and limitations.

C: Lightweight sheds were built to enclose depressed courtyards and provide natural light below grade. Sheds may have had their wire glass roofs tarred or planked over for security reasons.

D: Lightweight shed roofs may be mistaken as weight-bearing and do not provide effective ventilation for sub-level or first floor fires.

Answer 60

D

Explanation:
Shed roofs, once removed, may provide effective ventilation points for sub-level and first floor fires.
Lofts 5.1.12

Question 61

Question 10:
In the event multiple incidents have transpired simultaneously in NYC’s under river rail system, FDNY’s “Rebreather” unit response may be greatly compromised. For extended operations into a tunnel with a distance of up to ______ from the point of entry, consider using SOC units with their supplied air cart and hose.

A: 100 feet

B: 200 feet

C: 300 feet

D: 400 feet

Answer 61

C

Question 62

Question 17:
Who designates the attack stair when two staircases are present in a LRFPMD?

A: First Ladder in consultation with the First engine

B: First arriving Engine

C: First Engine in consultation with the Second Engine

D: First Ladder only

Answer 62

D

Question 63

Question 22:
Two Captains discussing apparatus collisions and discipline were correct when they agreed that a Supervisory Conference between the ”unit commander” and a chief officer from the unit commander’s assigned battalion will take place when an assigned lieutenant is involved in?

A: a second preventable collision in a 12 month period.

B: a third collision in an 18 month period.

C:a third preventable collision in an 18 month period.

D: a third collision in a 24 month period.

Answer 63

C

Explanation:
A) A second preventable collision in a 12 month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a chief officer from the officer’s assigned battalion (in this case, between the Lieutenant and the Chief).
B) Remember, it must be a “preventable” collision.
C) Also, a report shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations with recommendations for reassignment of the officer for a 60 day period.
SB 3 Add 3 3.2, 3.3

Question 64

Question 26:
When assigned at an incident, the FAST Group Supervisor should be advised of all units under their command. If a Chief Officer is not available initially, who may temporarily be designated the FAST Group Supervisor?

A: any available Officer

B: the FAST Unit Officer

C :any available Captain

D: a SOC Unit Officer

Answer 64

D

Question 65

Question 30:
To maintain stability when used in the portable base, the Akron New Yorker Multiversal is designed with a safety stop where?

A: 35 degrees below horizontal

B: 35 degrees above horizontal

C: 15 degrees above horizontal

D: 90 degrees below horizontal

Answer 65

B

Explanation:
The New Yorker Multiversal is designed with a safety stop at 35 degrees above horizontal to maintain stability when used in the portable base. Do not release the elevation stop and operate below that point unless the unit is secured in the truck mount fixture, or is securely restrained by ropes. No operation below the horizontal shall be attempted unless the unit is secured in the truck mount.
TB Tools 17 2.1 Note

Question 66

Question 34:
All of the following are indicative of a Class “E” High Rise office building built before 1945 except?

A: Structural steel components are encased in concrete.

B: Exterior walls are substantially tied to all floors.

C: Normally steam heated.

D: Exterior windows are usually not openable.

Answer 66

Explanation:
Exterior windows are openable.
HROB 2.2.3, 2.2.5, 2.2.7, 2.2.9

D

Question 67

Question 36:
During a recent drill on Brownstone buildings, a covering Queens Lieutenant corrected one of her members who made which incorrect comment?

A:In many buildings converted to Multiple Dwellings, fire escapes were added or sprinklers installed in the interior halls in lieu of secondary means of egress. In this case, most brownstones will have fire escapes.

B:The need for 10-foot hooks, to pull ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor), may exist in some Brownstone buildings.

C: Ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor) have much ornamental plasterwork; often in the center and around the perimeter of the room.

D: There is normally a rear entrance from the yard to the first floor.

Answer 67

A

Explanation:
In many buildings, when they were converted to Multiple Dwellings, fire escapes were added or sprinklers were installed in the interior halls in lieu of secondary means of egress. Sprinkler lines were further extended into individual rooms when buildings were converted to Rooming Houses. The presence of these sprinklers may indicate the absence of a fire escape. Most brownstones, however, do not have fire escapes.

Question 68

Question 40:
According to FDNY’s taxpayer procedures, the inverted roof may be pitched in each of the following ways except?

A: from the front to the rear

B: from the front and rear to the center

C:from the rear and sides to the front

D: from the front, rear, and sides to the center

Answer 68

C

Explanation:
How the roof is pitched is usually determined by the configuration of the building and the position of the drainage facilities. In most cases the HIGH portion of the cockloft is at the FRONT of the building.
Txpyr 5.3.4 A

Question 69

Question 6:
In which of the following circumstances is a “potential blast zone” established at a major gas emergency: 1) Subsurface leak; 2) 80% of LEL or higher (leak found); 3) gas leaking for considerable time and trapped in a voids space; 4) 10% LEL or greater (leak cannot be found); 5) 10% LEL or greater and there are indications the leak is coming from an outside, subsurface source?

A: 1, 2, 4, 5

B: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C: 1, 2, 4

D: 2, 3 ,4, 5

Answer 69

b Explanation:
THE POTENTIAL BLAST ZONE IS MARKED WITH DANGER DO NOT ENTER TAPE

Question 70

Question 11:

Occupancies equipped with Lexan panels instead of conventional glass windows can present significant challenges to operating members. These windows may be forced with a portable ladder if at ground level. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Remove the exterior screen, if present.

B: Place the tip of the ladder on the Lexan window in the corner adjacent to the window frame.

C: Three or four members apply a gradual leaning pressure against the window until it is forced inward.

D: If a section of window snaps off, continue forcing around the window perimeter until a sufficient opening has been made.

Answer 70

b

Explanation:
B) Place the BUTT of the ladder on the Lexan window in the corner adjacent to the window frame.
Lad 1 10.3.1

Question 71

Question 12:
Firefighter Walker comes into your office to request bereavement leave. You offer your condolences and begin to explain the parameters. Which statement was the only CORRECT one you made during the conversation?

A: Members not working the two-platoon chart will be granted 5 calendar days for bereavement leave.

B: Bereavement Leave of not more than two 15-hour tours and two 9-hour tours may be granted by the Deputy Chief to a member.

C: Bereavement Leave will always begin at 0900 hrs. following the time of death.

D: A member receiving a death notification when on duty will be promptly excused by the immediate superior officer on duty.

Answer 71

Explanation: d
BEREAVEMENT LEAVE – PA/ID 1 – CHAPTER 3
D IS CORRECT – 2.6
A – Members not working the two-platoon system will be granted 4 calendar days. 2.1.3 NOTE
B – Not more than two 15-hour tours and ONE 9-hour tour by the Deputy Chief. 2.1
C – Bereavement Leave will normally begin at 0900 hours following the time of death In circumstances where there will be a delay in the services of the deceased, members may with the approval of the Battalion and Division begin their leave at 0900 hrs on a later date. 2.7

Question 72

Question 14:
A newly promoted lieutenant has just conducted her first roll call and is in the office preparing for the tour. A firefighter approaches the officer and informs her that the voicemitter on a facepiece was discovered damaged during inspection. The officer was correct to take which of the following actions?

A: The officer forwarded a letterhead report to the Chief of Department via the chain of command stating full particulars.

B: The facepiece was placed out of service and forwarded to Tech Services for repair.

C: The officer interviewed all members involved in order to ascertain how the voicemitter became damaged.

D: The report did not include the name of the member discovering the damaged facepiece.

Answer 72

c

Explanation:
A. The officer forwarded a letterhead report to the CHIEF OF OPERATIONS via the chain of command stating full particulars.

B. The facepiece was placed out of service and forwarded to THE MASK SERVICE UNIT for repair.

D. The report INCLUDED the name of the member discovering the damaged facepiece AND THE NAME OF THE MEMBER WHO LAST USED AND/OR INSPECTED THE FACEPIECE.

TB SCBA 4.2.3 Note

Question 73

Question 16:

You would be most correct to know that the size of an area enclosed by fire walls is 3,000 square feet in which type of nonfireproof multiple dwelling?

A: Old Law Tenements (built before 4/12/1901)

B: New Law Tenements (built on or after 4/12/1901 and before 1916)

C: H-types (built between 1916 and 1929)

D: Apartment Houses (built on or after 4/18/1929)

Answer 73

d

Question 74

Question 18:
When locating a member in distress our main concern is the timely removal of the member from the IDLH. Which packaging technique described below is incorrect?

A: If the member is unconscious or unable to assist in their own removal, the member(s) who first found the firefighter must start the packaging process.

B: Packaging a conscious member is always required for removal.

C: If possible, position the member so that their back is facing toward the direction of removal prior to starting the packaging process.

D: Turning the operation over to the dedicated FAST Unit upon their arrival will facilitate the timely removal of the distressed member.

Answer 74

b

Explanation:
B. Packaging a conscious member IS NOT ALWAYS required for removal. IN MOST SITUATIONS, PACKAGING AN UNCONSCIOUS MEMBER WILL BE REQUIRED FOR REMOVAL

Question 75

Question 32:
Members of an intense study group were debating the rules surrounding emergency leave and the following statements were made. Which one was CORRECT?

A: Birth of a child is covered under Emergency Leave.

B: Serious injury to the brother of a spouse is covered under emergency leave.

C: The first 24 hours of emergency leave is not deducted from a member’s vacation.

D: When a member pays back an emergency leave extension, a report must be forwarded by the officer on duty to the Chief of Uniformed Personnel.

Answer 75

a

Explanation:
PA/ID 1 – CHAPTER 6 EMERGENCY LEAVE (NEW INFO)
A IS CORRECT – 1.1 – Birth of a child is covered under the emergency leave policy. 4/28/22
B – In laws and siblings of Spouse/domestic partner are not covered by Emergency Leave policy. 1.1
C – The first scheduled tour of emergency leave shall not be deducted from annual leave allowances. 1.3
D – When a member pays back an emergency leave extension, it is a MEMBER REPORT to the Chief of Personnel. 1.5.

Question 76

Question 10:
In the event multiple incidents have transpired simultaneously in NYC’s under river rail system, FDNY’s “Rebreather” unit response may be greatly compromised. For extended operations into a tunnel with a distance of up to ______ from the point of entry, consider using SOC units with their supplied air cart and hose.

A: 100 feet

B: 200 feet

C: 300 feet

D: 400 feet

Answer 76

c

Question 77

Question 17:
Who designates the attack stair when two staircases are present in a LRFPMD?

A: First Ladder in consultation with the First engine

B: First arriving Engine

C: First Engine in consultation with the Second Engine

D: First Ladder only

Answer 77

d

Question 78

Question 22:
Two Captains discussing apparatus collisions and discipline were correct when they agreed that a Supervisory Conference between the ”unit commander” and a chief officer from the unit commander’s assigned battalion will take place when an assigned lieutenant is involved in?

A: a second preventable collision in a 12 month period.

B: a third collision in an 18 month period.

C:a third preventable collision in an 18 month period.

D: a third collision in a 24 month period.

Answer 78

c

Explanation:
A) A second preventable collision in a 12 month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a chief officer from the officer’s assigned battalion (in this case, between the Lieutenant and the Chief).
B) Remember, it must be a “preventable” collision.
C) Also, a report shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations with recommendations for reassignment of the officer for a 60 day period.

Question 79

Question 26:
When assigned at an incident, the FAST Group Supervisor should be advised of all units under their command. If a Chief Officer is not available initially, who may temporarily be designated the FAST Group Supervisor?

A: any available Officer

B: the FAST Unit Officer

C: any available Captain

D: a SOC Unit Officer

Answer 79

d

Question 80

Question 30:
To maintain stability when used in the portable base, the Akron New Yorker Multiversal is designed with a safety stop where?

A:35 degrees below horizontal

B:35 degrees above horizontal

C: 15 degrees above horizontal

D: 90 degrees below horizontal

Answer 80

b

Question 81

Question 34:
All of the following are indicative of a Class “E” High Rise office building built before 1945 except?

A: Structural steel components are encased in concrete.

B:Exterior walls are substantially tied to all floors.

C: Normally steam heated.

D:Exterior windows are usually not openable.

Answer 81

d

Question 82

Question 36:
During a recent drill on Brownstone buildings, a covering Queens Lieutenant corrected one of her members who made which incorrect comment?

A: In many buildings converted to Multiple Dwellings, fire escapes were added or sprinklers installed in the interior halls in lieu of secondary means of egress. In this case, most brownstones will have fire escapes.

B: The need for 10-foot hooks, to pull ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor), may exist in some Brownstone buildings.

C: Ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor) have much ornamental plasterwork; often in the center and around the perimeter of the room.

D: There is normally a rear entrance from the yard to the first floor.

Answer 82

b

xplanation:
In many buildings, when they were converted to Multiple Dwellings, fire escapes were added or sprinklers were installed in the interior halls in lieu of secondary means of egress. Sprinkler lines were further extended into individual rooms when buildings were converted to Rooming Houses. The presence of these sprinklers may indicate the absence of a fire escape. Most brownstones, however, do not have fire escapes.

Question 83

Question 40:
According to FDNY’s taxpayer procedures, the inverted roof may be pitched in each of the following ways except?

A: from the front to the rear

B: from the front and rear to the center

C:from the rear and sides to the front

D: from the front, rear, and sides to the center

Answer 83

c

Question 84

Question 2:
A proficient Lieutenant should know which point below to be incorrect regarding the Iroquois Pipeline?

A: The pipeline consists primarily of a single 24” high strength steel pipeline, various valves and a meter/regulating station interconnection with Con Edison.

B: All valves should be closed in accordance with Unit Alarm Assignment Cards, unless there is an immediate threat to life.

C: The pipeline has a maximum allowable operating pressure of 1,440 psig, however it typically will operate in the 400 psig to 1,100-psig range.

D: The pipeline carries natural gas that is under pressure in a gaseous state.

Answer 84

Explanation: b
Except in the event of immediate threat to life or property, no valves should be opened or closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in consultation with Con Edison/Iroquois personnel.
AUC 150 1.1, 1.2, 4.5

Question 85

Question 21:
At a 1st floor fire in a 2 story PD, the second arriving LCC, after completing his initial duties should go where?

A: Team up with first LCC for VEIS of upper floors

B: Team up with Roof and OV FFs

C: Team up with first LCC and enter an exposure

D: Team up with first LCC for VEIS of cellar

Answer 85

Private Dwellings Ch 4 sec 5.6.B1

a

Question 86

Question 32:
During secondary removal procedures at an elevator emergency, if the elevator has a two speed system (commonly found in buildings over 10 stories) all of the following procedures may help facilitate the safe removal of passengers with the exception of which choice?

A: If the Emergency Stop Button has been activated have passengers deactivate it.

B: Have members in the elevator machinery room shut power to the stuck car and turn it on again.

C: If the car is to restart it will do so within 15 seconds.

D: Communications must be maintained when attempting this procedure. Passengers and members must be prepared for the sudden movement of the car or car door.

Answer 86

Explanation:
If the car is to restart it will do so within 10 seconds.
If this procedure fails, power must be shut off and members are not to restore power after completion of operations.
TB Emerg 1 3.6.3 c

Question 87

Question 40:
At a fire in a high rise office building, if Engine 100 was assigned as the Systems Control Unit, this unit would be designated on the ticket as?

A: E100T

B:E100S

C:E100Y

D: E100P

Answer 87

Explanation:
P - High Pressure Engine
S - Communications Unit
T - Transport Backup Unit
Comm 2 p37

Question 88

Question 15:
When a CFR-D Company applies the AED pads to a patient and turns on the AED during a cardiac arrest resuscitation attempt, they should do all of the following except?

A: The original PCR (Part one) shall be immediately faxed and forwarded to the Office of Medical Affairs (OMA) on return to quarters

B: A copy of the original PCR (Part one) shall be turned in to the CFR-D Depot along with the AED module upon completion of the assignment

C: The AED module will be exchanged for a blank one and the CFR-D Depot will immediately forward the module and PCR directly to OMA. The serial number of the module shall be documented on a letterhead and sent to the Chief of Operation via the chain of command

D: If the CFR-D Company’s AED is not applied to a patient during a response to a cardiac arrest, the details of the incident and what prevented the application of the Company’s AED shall be indicated in the PCR Comments section

Answer 88

c

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 5
A. 2.1
B. 2.1.1
C. The AED module will be exchanged for a blank one and the CFR-D Depot will immediately forward the module and PCR copy directly to OMA. The SERIAL number of the module shall be documented on the PCR 2.1.2
D. 2.1.3

Question 89

Question 16:
If an EEO complaint involves sexual harassment, the complainant may also choose to file directly with?

A: The IG

B: BITS

C: The Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator

D: The Borough Commander

Answer 89

b

Question 90

Question 19:
All of the following units carry the Dewalt Remote Area Lighting except?

A: The Safety Battalion

B: Each Fire Division Vehicle

C: Each Fire Battalion Vehicle

D: Each EMS Logistic Support Unit (LSU)

Answer 90

Explanation:
Each EMS Logistic Support Unit (LSU) carries 2
TB Tools 33 5.1

c

Question 91

Question 25:
The foam plastic insulation layer should be considered combustible and it’s typically __-__ thick.

A: 4”-8”

B: 1”-4”

C: 1/4”-8”

D: 1/4”-4”

Answer 91

c

Question 92

Question 31:
After complete size up and when conditions dictate, a handline should be dedicated to exterior extinguishment. Which statement is incorrect regarding this operation?

A: If possible, the number of lengths stretched should be enough to cover the front and both sides of the building.

B: The size of the handline stretched is dependent on the size of the building and the extent of fire.

C: A building 3 stories or higher, may require the use of a 2 1/2” line.

D: At a smaller privater dwelling, a 1 3/4”line may be sufficient.

Answer 92

a

all sides

Question 93

Question 37:
A 2 1/2” handline with a 15/16” tip and 50 psi nozzle pressure with a solid stream will have a vertical reach of ___ feet from the tip of the nozzle.

A:75

B: 90

C: 100

D: 110

Answer 93

a

Explanation:
A 2 1/2” handline with a 1 1/8” tip and 40 psi nozzle pressure with a solid stream will have a vertical reach of 40 feet from the tip of the nozzle.

Question 94

Question 38:
A 1 3/4” handline with a 15/16” tip and 50 psi nozzle pressure with a solid stream will have a vertical reach of ___ feet from the tip of the nozzle.

A: 50

B: 70

C: 75

D: 80

Answer 94

b

Question 95

Question 1:
The most correct signal to give for an alarm system activation resulting from a utility power fluctuation can be found in which choice?

A: 10-35-1

B: 10-35-2

C: 10-35-3

D: 10-35-4

E: 10-40-2

Answer 95

e

Explanation:
A-alarm testing or servicing
B- Construction activities
C- Ordinary household activities
D- other known cause
Also, use 10-35 no code for an alarm activation WITHOUT a known cause or when no condition warranting an emergency response
Communications ch 8 page 8-10

Question 96

Question 2:
All of the following can be found near each “blue light” in the NYC Transit System with the exception of which choice?

A: A fire extinguisher

B: A power removal box

C:An Emergency Evacuation Device

D:A telephone

Answer 96

c

Question 97

Question 3:
You are a Company officer in charge of the FAST Unit that just went 10-84 for a fire on the 3rd floor in the “A” wing of a 6 sty H-type multiple dwelling. There are 4 Engines, 2 Ladders, and the Battalion on scene and the fire is spreading rapidly to the floor above. As you exit the apparatus, the Can FF who is designated to monitor EFAS asks you where she should go. You tell her to go where?

A:To relieve the Battalion FF who is monitoring EFAS

B: To relieve the Division FF who is monitoring EFAS

C: To relieve the backup Division FF who is monitoring EFAS

D: To the front of the building with the rest of the FAST Unit members

Answer 97

Explanation:
Also, The member monitoring EFAS shall be identified by radio designation “EFAS” when communicating by HT, e.g., “EFAS to Command” “Command to EFAS”
Communications ch 9 add 3 page 3

a

Question 98

here are several possible removal options for ambulatory victims at an under river rail emergency. Which is not listed correctly?

A: Direct passengers to walk along the track to the nearest station. The decision to move passengers along the track to nearest station will be based on travel distance, patient condition, and the status of 3rd rail power.

B: Evacuating passengers via emergency exit stairs may be a viable choice, depending on depth of the shaft, stairway configuration, and smoke condition. However, emergency exit stairs may be difficult to climb and if a person stops climbing the stairs due to injury or fatigue, the evacuation may be delayed or brought to a standstill.

C: FD members attempting to descend a stairway must first allow civilians to evacuate. When two staircases are present, both shall always be used for evacuation.

D: A Rescue Train would take some time to put in operation. It would be useful to remove victims who are non-ambulatory, or too weak to evacuate on foot. CFR units and/or EMS personnel should initiate treatment onboard the rescue train, conditions permitting.

Answer 98

Explanation:
When two staircases are present, designate an Evacuation Stairway and an Attack Stairway. In some cases, there is another set of emergency exits between the tube and the nearest station. These exits should be evaluated as an alternate or supplemental means of egress.

c

Question 99

Question 5:
It is recommended that Ladder Companies assign the second CO meter to the OV position. The Engine’s second meter __________.

A:shall be carried with the CFR equipment, attached to the O2 bag.

B: shall be carried by the control FF

C: shall be carried by the back up FF

D: shall be carried by the ECC

Answer 99

a

Question 100

Question 7:
The isolation zone surrounding a suspicious explosive device according to the FDNY would generally exceed how many feet?

A:300

B: 400

C: 500

D:1000

Answer 100

a

Explanation:
Remember, HT and cell phones shall not be used within 150’ of a suspected device, and Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 300’ of a suspected device
ERP add 3 se 4.1

Question 101

Question 11:
The most correct procedure can be found in which choice when notified of an out of service fire protection system for a HRFPMD in your administrative area?

A:Immediately notify the administrative Battalion

B: Immediately notify the administrative Division

C: Immediately notify Fire Prevention

D:Immediately investigate with members and apparatus

Answer 101

d

Explanation:
BISP Ch 5 Ref# 1.1 sec 4
There are exceptions under certain conditions; I.e. If it is a routine shut down for scheduled inspection, testing, or maintenance, then an investigation is not necessary, unless the officer feels it is required.
Read this bulletin carefully.

Question 102

Question 19:
Your the company officer of E-100 and just went 10-84 for a fire on the first floor of a 2 1/2 story 20X60 class 4 private dwelling. You transmit the 10-75 for a working fire. In addition to the 10-75, you would be most correct to transmit what information?

A: How many windows

B: Side entrances

C:Exposures

D:Flat or peaked roof

Answer 102

Explanation:
Outside ladder company positions are predicated on whether the roof is flat or peaked. This information must be transmitted with the signal 10-75, if this can be determined upon arrival
Private Dwellings ch 2 sec 2.8

d

Question 103

All of the following choices contain correct information regarding the use and care of the Multiversal Nozzle except?

A: The use of two hoselines to supply the Multiversal Nozzle is recommended, but one can be used. In either case, bring the hose straight back a distance of 15 feet from the siamese, before making any sharp bends or turns.

B: The maximum pressure to which any part of this appliance should be subjected is 100 psi.

C: After each use, the spikes in the portable ground base shall be inspected. If the flats on the end of the spikes exceed 1/16” in diameter, the spikes must be sharpened or replaced in accordance with the instructions contained in the Manufacturer’s Manual.

D: Routine maintenance shall be conducted quarterly, following the maintenance instructions in the Manufacturer’s Manual.

Answer 103

b

200 psi

Question 104

Question 3:
Upon arrival at a hazardous materials incident, the Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) officer shall report to whom?

A:IC

B:Haz-Mat Chief

C: Safety Battalion Chief

D: Rescue Battalion Chief

Answer 104

a

Explanation:
Report to IC for a briefing. The first arriving CPC Unit Officer will RECOMMEND to the IC the entry point into the Hot Zone, and then establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area adjacent to the entry point
Hazardous Materials 5 sec 5

Question 105

Question 7:
E-100 and L-200 arrive 1st due for a fire on the 20th floor in a 30 sty 100x100 HRFPMD. As the companies enter the lobby area, the superintendent tells the officers that there is only one non-fireman service elevator working. Who should enter the elevator?

A: All members of L-200 only

B: L-200 Officer, inside team and E-100 Officer, Nozzle and Backup FFs

C: L-200 Officer, inside team and E-100 Officer, Nozzle and Control FFs

D: L-200 Officer and F.E. FF and E-100 Officer, Nozzle, Backup, and Control FFs

E: All Members of E-100 only

Answer 105

c

xplanation:
When both the engine and ladder companies arrive together and only one elevator is available (non fire service), the ladder officer with the forcible entry team and the engine officer with two firefighters (nozzle & control) with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit shall go up first.
MD ch 2 sec 5.6

Question 106

Question 17:
Choose the incorrect tactic for extinguishing a cellar fire at an Old Law Tenement.

A: If no exterior entrance, the first hoseline should be stretched through the front door, then to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire. If the first hoseline is stretched to the interior and cannot be advanced down to the cellar due to the intensity of the fire, it shall be used to protect the public hall, interior stairs, and the first floor.

B: When an exterior entrance exists, especially in the front of the building, that entrance should be utilized if it provides the quickest access to the cellar to extinguish the fire. The use of an exterior cellar entrance at an advanced cellar fire is frequently safer and more efficient to initially attack the fire.

C :Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the IC. All horizontal ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the Ladder Company Officer operating in the area to be vented (fire floor, floor above, etc.).

D: When the first hoseline advances down the interior stairs, the second hoseline will be stretched to back-up the first hoseline and will be positioned at the top of the interior stairs. If the first hoseline does not advance down the interior stairs, the second hoseline will be stretched into the cellar via an exterior cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.

E: Ventilation must be provided at the roof over the stairway, at the top of the dumbwaiter shaft and other shafts and vertical openings. Ventilation shall also be provided via the cellar windows, doors, trap doors, and by intermittently opening and closing the door at the top of the interior cellar stairs after all of the occupants have been evacuated.

Answer 106

c

Explanation:
***MD’s has been updated in March 2022
C. Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the Ladder Company Officer operating in the fire area (fire floor).
MD Ch 1 sec 3.2

Question 107

Question 24:
When necessary repairs to the apparatus have been reported and not made within a reasonable time, the company commander shall forward a written report to the?

A: Assistant Commissioner of Support Services

B: Fire Commissioner

C:Division Commander

D:Chief of Operations

Answer 107

c

Question 108

Question 28:
All Truck Officers should be aware that FAST Radio Forms can be acquired through?

A: The Battalion

B: The Division

C: The Stationary Stockroom

D: The Handie-Talkie Recording Unit

Answer 108

b

Question 109

Question 39:
When fully functioning, the EFAS screen will download the latest version of the Spare Radio Database in the bottom center of the task bar in what color?

A: Red

B: White

C: Blue

D: Green

E: Yellow

Answer 109

d

Question 110

Question 4:
Units scheduled for morning training activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members, no later than ___ hours.

A: 0900 hrs

B: 0915 hrs

C :0930 hrs

D: 0945 hrs

Answer 110

b

Question 111

Reserve Engine 506 has been activated for a large area brush fire in the borough of Staten Island. Upon conclusion of operations and return to quarters where this apparatus is stored, the officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored compares the outstanding RT-2 with the tools and equipment returned with the reserve apparatus. The officer finds some equipment missing and would be correct to take all of the actions below except?

A: Immediately notify the administrative battalion chief.

B: Record particulars in the company journal.

C :Immediately notify the officer who was in charge of the reserve apparatus to forward a Lost Property Report and to make appropriate notifications.

D: Prepare and forward a report to the Chief of Department, documenting the missing items and explaining the circumstances of the loss.

Answer 111

c

A. AUC 259 7.5.3
B. AUC 259 7.5.3
C. The administrative battalion is responsible to notify the officer who was in charge and have him/her do the report. (AUC 259 7.5.4)
D. This report is forwarded by the officer on duty where the apparatus is stored (AUC 259 7.5.3C)
The “lost property report” is the responsibility of the officer in charge of the reserve apparatus. (AUC 259 7.5.4)

Question 112

Question 6:
Ladder 51’s OV FF radio is malfunctioning so the officer prepares to replace it with a spare HT. The officer was correct in all actions below except in which choice?

A: Immediately notify the administrative Division to obtain a spare.

B: Prepared a RT-2 with a complete description of the defect as well as unit and position.

C: An Unusual Occurrence Report is required for any damage to the radio.

D: Forward defective radio, with battery, antenna and remote speaker mic to Division.

Answer 112

c

C. excessive damage (Comm Ch 11 Add 4 2.1)

Question 113

Question 9:
To facilitate stretching hose, the lead lengths of hose in a hosebed may be maintained in a horseshoe arrangement. Which is incorrect regarding this arrangement?

A: Both 1 3⁄4” hose and 2 1⁄2” hose can be arranged in a horseshoe.

B: Each horseshoe should be comprised of at least one 50’ length of hose.

C: Horseshoes can be stacked on top of each other on the hosebed, with the lead length on top.

D: Completed horseshoes should be roughly 3 feet long.

Answer 113

Explanation:
Completed horseshoes should be roughly 4 feet long.
Eng Ops Ch 3 add 3 sec 3.3.1 D
Eng Ops Ch 2

d

Question 114

Question 12:
Which smell corresponds to Cyanogen Chloride?

A:Burnt Almonds

B:Fruity Odor

C: Musty Hay

D: Garlic Odor

Answer 114

a

Question 115

Question 19:
A Bronx Ladder company is discussing operations such as trenching and cockloft fires. Which choice is correct when operating at a large 6 story H type?

A: Trench shall be at least 2 feet wide and at least 20 feet from the main vent hole

B: Trenching is an offensive operation

C: These cocklofts can be as much as 6 feet deep

D: Ceilings must be opened to get ahead of the fire and work back to the original fire area

Answer 115

d

Explanation:
MD ch 1 sec 4.9.5, 4.9.9
A. At least 3 Feet wide and about 20 Feet from initial vent hole
B. Defensive operation
C. 4 Feet deep

Question 116

Question 22:
The maximum service pressure on the terminal piping and the delivery lines to shippers from the Long Island City terminal is ___ psig.

A: 100

B:200

C: 300

D: 400

Answer 116

b

Question 117

Question 25:
Your unit arrives on the 2nd alarm for a heavy fire in a vacant row frame building located in the middle of a row of occupied frames. None of the hose lines needed to be backed up. Which hoseline was positioned correctly at this fire?

A: The first hoseline was stretched into the fire building

B: The second hosline was stretched into an exposure

C: The third hoseline was stretched through an exposure into the rear yard of the fire building

D: The fourth hosline was stretched immediately into an exposure

Answer 117

b

Explanation:
A) Most severe exposure
B) Correct. OR to the fire building
C) To the fire building or opposite exposure depending on where the second line was stretched
D) As ordered by the IC
FFP RowFrame 6.7

Question 118

Question 29:
Units respond to an accident involving a SUV and a car on a major highway on February 26 @0430 hours. Multiple injuries are reported with 1 person ejected from the SUV and 2 people pinned in the car. Remarkably, neither vehicle is leaking fluids. The speed limit is 50 MPH, but cars are speeding by the accident scene at 70 MPH. First due units correctly operated in which choice?

A: Flares shall be used at night or periods of reduced visibility while cones shall be used only during the day

B: Flares and cones should be placed to block one or two lanes and even to completely block a roadway

C: Before leaving apparatus, light one flare and carry it at least 310 feet from the accident scene

D: Flares burn for approximately 60 minutes

Answer 118

b

Explanation:
A. Cones- used day and night.
C. 550
D. 30 minutes
Training Bulletins Fires 8 8.1E

Question 119

Question 34:
The FDNY has equipped some ladder and engine companies, as well as all special units, with ice/cold water and surf rescue equipment. As the officer working in a water rescue company, you would know which is incorrect?

A: You should remove a victim to a warm shelter to prevent further body cooling and do not massage or rub the victim because rough handling could cause cardiac arrest.

B: Any entry into the water or onto ice should be considered as a last resort.

C: Members wearing Bunker Gear with or without an SCBA will sink instantaneously.

D: An alarming fact is that 20% of all drowning victims started out as would be rescuers

Answer 119

d

Explanation:
Water Rescue 1
A. sec 3.5.2
B. sec 2.1
C. sec 2.4
D. 10% sec 2.1.

Question 120

Question 38:
In the event that a CFR-D Unit needs medical advice during a CFR-D response, the Unit may telephone the FDNY/EMS telemetry physician if a telephone is available. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A:CFR-D Units shall follow the advice given by the telemetry physician, noting all instructions on the PCR.

B: Telemetry may be utilized for medical consultation and as access to the International Language Bank.

C: Before calling telemetry the Unit shall have completed the primary survey and C.U.P.S. status determination, and should identify themselves as a CFR-D Unit and be prepared to give a concise report to the physician.

D:The telemetry phone number shall be kept posted on the the dashboard of the apparatus, in front of the chauffers seat.

Answer 120

d

Explanation:
The telemetry phone number shall be kept posted on the CHART HOLDING THE UNIT’S PCR FORMS.
CFR Ch 2 5.3

Question 121

Question 54:
At the end of each month, Probationary Firefighters must complete a 20 question quiz to be in compliance with the Probationary FF Development Program (AUC 323). Probationary Firefighters get three attempts to pass each quiz. If a passing mark is not attained after the third attempt, the program will be temporary locked out and will require the company officer to contact who?

A: Administrative Battalion

B: Administrative Division via chain of command

C:Computer unit via Email

D:Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via Email

Answer 121

d Explanation:
AUC 323 2.1
If a passing mark is not attained after the third attempt, the program will be temporary locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email to 323PDPGrp@fdny.nyc.gov to re-activate

Question 122

Question 57:
The Pressure Reducer Assembly (PRA) on all SCBAs are labeled with both unit identification and sequential numbering within the unit for quick identification as well as individual assignment at the start of the tour. Which choice below contains a correctly labeled PRA?

A: Squad: Orange background

B: Battalion spare: Yellow background

C: Marine: Blue background

D: MSU Spare: Black background

Answer 122

d

Explanation:
A) yellow
B) orange
C) green
TB SCBA 10.3

Question 123

Question 61:
You are working a day tour in Engine 322 and respond to a CFR-D run for a “pedestrian struck.” After arriving, you find a patient with life-threatening injuries and EMS is not on scene yet. When requesting an ambulance to the scene, you must provide all but which one of the following to the dispatcher for relay to the EMS Dispatcher?

A: CUPS Status

B: Mechanism of injury

C: Pulse and respiratory rate

D: Patient’s age

Answer 123

b

Explanation:
Required information is CUPS Status, Age, Chief Complaint, Pulse and Respiratory Rate and whether or not CPR is initiated. Two choices examiners try to bait you on are Gender and mechanism of injury.
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2 (3.1)

Question 124

Question 62:
Ladder 113 and Ladder 132 respond to a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4 story Brownstone. The Roof FFs of the 1st and 2nd due trucks performed the following actions. In which action was a mistake made?

A: After arriving on the roof, the 1st due Roof FF noticed the roof level skylight was tarred over. He notified the incident commander and called for a saw

B: The 2nd due Roof FF, after hearing a call for a saw on the roof, ascended the 2nd artiving aerial ladder to the roof with a saw

C: After completing roof duties and realizing there was no rear fire escape, the 1st due Roof FF descended his aerial ladder then teamed up with the chauffeur for top floor VEIS

D: After completing roof duties, the 2nd due Roof FF checked for extension in a similar attached exposure, through the common cockloft

Answer 124

d

Explanation:
A. Brownstones/ Rowframes p 17 note
B. Page 21 #7
C. Page 17 # 6
D. No common cockloft in a Brownstone. When there is no apparent need for presence on the roof, reports to officer, via HT, for further duties. Page 21 #5

Question 125

Question 67:
Engine companies are required to maintain the amount of hose listed below. This amount includes hose kept on the apparatus and hose maintained in quarters. Minimum requirements are as follows: ___ lengths of 1 3⁄4” hose, ___ lengths of 2 1⁄2” hose, ___lengths of 3 1⁄2” hose.

A: 10, 20, 30

B: 20, 30, 10

C: 30, 20, 10

D: 30, 30, 10

Answer 125

b

Question 126

Question 68:
Lt Garcia is drilling with his members on the FAST Unit and Unconscious Firefighter Removal. In which statement was the Lt incorrect?

A:Packaging a conscious member is not always required for removal

B: If possible, position an unconscious member with their back facing toward the direction of removal prior to starting the packaging process

C:The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with any commercial or complex buildings

D: The member assigned to monitor the EFAS shall remain in the Battalion vehicle, even if the FAST Unit is given an assignment

Answer 126

c

Explanation:
A. MMID Chapter 3 (11.2)
B. MMID Chapter 3 (11.4)
C. They shall remain together and not split up when dealing with LARGE commercial or complex buildings. MMID Chapter 2 (7.4)
D. MMID Chapter 2 (5.1)

Question 127

Question 76:
Units are operating at a 3rd alarm taxpayer fire which has extended into multiple occupancies. Members are now using plain speak because it will benefit fire operations. Which choice below is incorrect when using plain speak terminology?

A: It should only be used when it enhances our ability to properly identify exposures.

B: The intent of plain speak is to replace the standard exposure identification system.

C: Plain speak shall only be used for fireground communications.

D: Plain speak is the process of identifying occupancies by name, occupancy type, address or any other distinctive characteristic

Answer 127

b

Explanation:
B. The intent of plain speak is NOT to replace the standard exposure identification system.
Communications Ch 10 Add 2 10.1

Question 128

Question 78:
On arrival at a 2nd alarm, you notice a number of victims that have been triaged. As an experienced Lt you know which choice below contains correct information regarding civilian casualties/injuries?

A: A black tag indicates a life-threatening injury

B: A red tag indicates a non-life threatening injury

C:A yellow tag indicates a non-life threatening injury

D:A green tag indicates a non-life threatening injury

Answer 128

c

xplanation:
A) Deceased
B) Life threatening
D) Non-serious/ambulatory
Comm 8 pg 8-13

Question 129

Question 86:
You are the 1st due chauffeur of Ladder 32, an aerial ladder, arriving at a top floor fire in an H-Type Multiple Dwelling. You would be correct to ______.

A: Place your aerial ladder to the roof, then use it for venting windows. After window ventilation is complete you return it to the roof

B: Place your aerial to the roof. You knew that it could not be moved except for life

C: Place the aerial ladder to the roof, then reposition it to the top floor and team up with the 2nd due chauffeur for VEIS

D: Always place your apparatus away from the building to leave room for a tower ladder

Answer 129

Explanation:
A. Multiple Dwellings ch 1 sec 4.4.3 D. When possible, this position should be taken by a tower ladder. If rescue operations must be performed, the aerial shall, of course, be positioned to carry out this function.

a

Question 130

Question 90:
The FDNY has many different methods of forcible entry. As the Lt of your busy truck company, you shall know which of the following locks is not described correctly?

A: Mortise lock - designed to fit into a cavity in the edge of a door

B: Rim lock - fits on the inside surface of the door with the cylinder visible from the outside

C: Fox locks - The lock is not necessarily centered in the door but easily recognizable by the large plate covering the lock

D :Police locks - aka vertical bar locks are also rim locks and are usually found in tenement areas on wooden or kalamein doors

Answer 130

c

Question 131

Question 91:
While investigating a complaint in a building where approximately 80 people have gathered for a Communiy Board meeting, the Officer of L139 discovers four abandoned LPG cylinders in the cellar. From the choices listed below, choose the only FDNY vehicle approved for removal and transportation of contraband material/cylinders when a vendor is unable to do so.

A: HazMat Company 1

B: Fleet Services

C: The HazMat Battalion

D: The HazMat Operation Logistics Vehicle

Answer 131

d

Question 132

Question 93:
Lt Sipowiz has just received a telephone call from FF Hill who is assigned to her company and is currently on non-service connected medical leave. FF Hill states he has just been arrested for DWI. Lt Sipowiz would be most correct if she took which one of the following actions?

A: Inform FF Hill that he shall complete the Arrest of Member Report (Form BP-66) on his next return date to BHS.

B: During normal business hours Lt Sipowiz shall immediately notify the Borough Commander. During non-business hours, the Command Chief should be notified via the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC).

C: Prepare a written report with full particulars of the incident and forward the report to the Inspector General.

D: Inform FF Hill that he could have notified his union trustee or attorney instead of notifying the officer on duty in his assigned unit.

Answer 132

a

Explanation:
A. Regulations Chapter 25 (25.4.2)
B. An arrest requires an immediate notification to BITS. Regulations 25 (25.4.2)
C. An Arrest of Member Report will be completed by the member and forwarded to the Bureau of Personnel. Regulations Chapter 25 (25.4.2)
D. A member who is arrested shall immediately notify the officer on duty in the member’s assigned unit. This obligation is not fulfilled by informing a union trustee or attorney. Regulations 25 (25.4.2)

Question 133

Question 94:
You, as the newly assigned Captain of Ladder 99, were approached by Probationary Firefighter Green who was inquiring how many RSOT tours he is eligible for this year. Probationary Firefighter Green was appointed 2/17/2018. You would be correct to tell this member he is eligible for how many scheduled RSOT tours in calendar year 2018?

A: four (4) day 9x6 and three (3) night 6x9 tours

B :one (1) day 9x6 and two (2) night 6x9 tours

C: two (2) day 9x6 and one (1) night 6x9 tours

D: one (1) day 9x6 and one (1) night 6x9 tour

Answer 133

c

Explanation:
Upon completion of the first six (6) month period, the Probationary Firefighter will be eligible for scheduled RSOT depending on the “remaining months” in the calendar year. The definition of a month in this case is based on the appointment date of the Firefighter. A full month will be counted only if the appointment date was on or before the l6th of a month. Since February doesn’t count (appointed on the 17th) this leaves March through August making up the six months. Thus, he has 4 months left (September through December) resulting in TWO 9X6 days and ONE 6X9 night as per the chart in PAID 1-90 Add 5
PAID 1-90 Add 5

Question 134

Question 100:
The BISP Unit will contact a unit by telephone when addresses on the monthly Structural Integrity Report are found in that unit’s administrative district. The BISP Unit will schedule structural integrity inspections in RBIS after a phone conference. BISP will also follow up with a unit to ensure the inspections were completed and if CIDS was necessary. Officers should know that all structural integrity inspections need to be completed within?

A: 14 business days from the date of notification.

B: 14 days from the date of notification.

C: 14 days from the start of construction.

D: 5 days from the date of notification.

Answer 134

b