bronx nov 22

Question 1

Question 25:
The deckpipe has 4 stacked tips (2 1⁄2”, 2 1⁄4”, 2”, 1 1⁄2”). When the 2” tip is used, it will flow roughly ___ GPM with ___ psi at the tip.
A: 840, 50

B: 720, 50

C: 840, 100

D: 720, 100

Answer 1

840, 50

Question 2

Question 4:
First alarm units are operating at a fully involved brownstone building with fire reported in exposure 2, a similar attached brownstone. Which of the following hoselines was deployed correctly?
A: The second line was stretched to exposure 2.

B: The third line was stretched to supply TL.

C: The third line was stretched to exposure 2.

D: The second hoseline was stretched through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building

Answer 2

Explanation:
First line: Advanced into fire building.
Second line: Advanced into fire building as back-up hoseline.
Third line may be:
1) Advanced into fire building.
2) IF FIRE REPORTED IN EXPOSURE, stretched to that exposure.
3) IF NO FIRE REPORTED IN THE EXPOSURES, stretched through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building.

Question 3

Question 7:
At a chemical attack in a subway station, the second arriving Ladder “team 1” is assigned which duty?
A: Back-Up

B: Evacuation and Hazard Assessment

C: Evacuation to Gross Decon

D: Site Access Control

Answer 3

c

Question 4

Question 9:
Your engine company is taking up from the scene of a CFR response where you treated an elderly male for shortness of breath. As you’re about to leave the scene, the patients daughter approaches you and states that $500 is missing from her dresser drawer. You then take the following actions. Which one is incorrect?
A: You immediately direct your members to search the premises from which the $500 is reported missing.

B: While your members are searching, you obtain from the complainant the information required on the form BF-26.

C: If it is alleged that the property was taken by a fire department employee, the Inspector General must be notified.

D: If the $500 is not found, but it is not alleged that it was taken by a fire department employee, you direct the complainant to notify the Police Department.

Answer 4

Explanation:
B. IF THE PROPERTY IS NOT FOUND, AND THE COMPLAINANT ALLEGES THAT THE PROPERTY WAS AT THE SCENE PRIOR TO THE ARRIVAL OF THE FIRE DEPARTMENT, the IC must obtain from the complainant, information required on form BF-26.

Regulations Ch 11: 11.3.10

Question 5

Question 28:
Which of the following statements provides correct information pertaining to the description of Queen Anne private dwellings?
A: Braced frame construction is most common and early attempts at built-in fire stopping are negated by poor workmanship, open holes for house service lines etc.

B: Large open stairs in the living room connect the 1st, 2nd and 3rd floors.

C: A narrow rear or side stair may lead directly to the 3rd floor from the 1st floor.

D: The fire escape will be attached to a non-combustible wall. Careful consideration should be given to its use due to age, or if that wall is exposed to or involved in fire.

Answer 5

Explanation:
A. BALLOON frame construction is most common…
B. …1st and 2nd floors.
D. The fire escape will be attached to a COMBUSTIBLE wall…

PD Chapter 1 3.3

Question 6

Question 21:
Which statement below is incorrect regarding fires in taxpayers?
A: When two handlines are operating on an advanced fire in a store, transmit a second alarm.

B: Transmit a second alarm for extension to the cockloft.

C: Transmit a second alarm for extension to an adjoining occupancy.

D: Transmit a second alarm for an advanced fire in the cellar.

Answer 6

Explanation: a
When two handlines are operating on an advanced fire in a store, special call an extra Engine and Ladder.
Txpyr 5.7.4

Question 7

Question 23:
Size-up begins with the receipt of the alarm and continues until the fire is under control. The following are factors that can be included in the size-up for engine and ladder companies operating at private dwellings. Which one is correct?
A: Inside ladder company operations are predicated on whether the roof is flat or peaked. This information must be transmitted with the signal 10-75, if this can be determined upon arrival.

B: Balloon frame construction lacks fire stopping between the floors on interior walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.

C: The lack of windows on the side of a PD combined with a secondary entrance on that side of the house with a stoop is indicative of a possible second floor apartment with the only entrance to the second floor from that side of the house.

D: Possible indications of attic occupancy may be: attic area with a dormer, adequate height (approximately six feet in the attic), air conditioner at attic level, and/or windows of fair size and normal appearance with curtains and drapes.

Answer 7

c Explanation:
A. OUTSIDE ladder company operations…
B. …on EXTERIOR WALLS…
D. …(approximately SEVEN FEET in the attic)…

PD Chapter 2: 2.4; 2.6; 2.7

Question 8

Question 28:
At a high rise office building fire, the first arriving Ladder Company shall obtain as much information as possible from the fire safety director or his/her surrogate as to all of the following except?
A: Location of the fire.

B: Evacuation procedures that have been implemented

C: Status of elevators.

D: Ventilation fan status.

Answer 8

d Explanation:
Access stairs serving the fire floor.
Acronym: LEASE
Location of fire
Evacuation implemented
Access stairs serving fire floor
Status of Elevators
HROB 8.3.1 A

Question 9

Question 13:
Engine 98 responded to a CFR run where CPR had to be performed. Which action taken by the officer at the conclusion of the run was CORRECT?
A: No shocks were indicated by the AED after application so it was not necessary for the company to exchange the AED module.

B: The original PCR (part 1) was turned in to the CFR depot along with the AED module upon completion of the assignment.

C: The AED was not applied during the cardiac arrest so the details of what prevented the application were indicated in the comments section of the PCR.

D: The AED was not applied so the officer immediately faxed and forwarded part 1 of the PCR to OMA upon return to quarters.

Answer 9

c Explanation:
CFRD – CHAPTER 5 – DOCUMENTATION
A – The AED will be exchanged for a blank one and the CFR depot will immediately forward the module and PCR copy directly to OMA. 2.1.2
B – A copy of the original PCR 2.1.1
C – 2.1.3
D – When the company applies and turns on their AED during a cardiac arrest resuscitation attempt, the original shall be immediately faxed and forwarded to OMA upon return to quarters. 2.1

Question 10

Question 19:
If you walk into the cellar of an industrial building, and the area contains 2000ppm of carbon monoxide, what would you expect your Drager 6500 CO meter to display, if operating correctly?
A: OL

B: 999ppm

C: rrr

D: 2000ppm

Answer 10

d Explanation:
PAC 6500 CO meters will display readings up to 2000 PPM. When readings exceed 2000 PPM, the CO meter will display “rrr”, indicating concentration too high to measure.
GasAlert Extreme CO meters will display readings up to 999ppm. If readings of 1000 ppm or more are detected, the CO meter will display “OL”, indicating an “over limit” condition.
HM 4 Add 1 2.5
HM 4 Add 2 2.7 Note

Question 11

Question 27:
The incorrect procedure, when resorting to outside streams, can be found in which choice?

A: The use of outside streams into a building can cause injuries to members operating inside the building. Except in extreme lifesaving instances, outside streams may be used without warning members and ensuring members are in a safe location

B: Outside streams should be used in one position only as long as necessary to extinguish visible fire

C: Only the IC may order the use of outside streams. This may be the first arriving officer

D: Some of the situations which may call for the use of outside streams include: protect life by putting a stream between the fire and the occupants, to protect exposures, to confine the fire, and to diminish heavy fire so that an interior attack can be made

Answer 11

Explanation: a
The use of outside streams into a building can cause injuries to members operating inside the building. Except in extreme lifesaving instances, members inside the building must be warned, and moved to safe location BEFORE outside streams are directed into the building. This safe location must be verified by radio or personal contact, by the IC
Multiple Dwellings p-13

Question 12

Question 37:
Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding the various types of loft buildings in NYC?
A: Fireproof lofts are the newest and most common type.

B: Mill Lofts are also known as Heavy Timber lofts.

C: Newer Cast Iron Lofts are a maximum of 7 to 8 stories in height having front and rear exterior walls of brick, stone or iron. Side exterior walls are of brick construction

D: All exterior walls of Newer Cast Iron Lofts have a minimum 3 hour fire resistive rating.

Answer 12

c Explanation:
OLDER Cast Iron Lofts are a maximum of 7 to 8 stories in height having front and rear exterior walls of brick, stone or iron. Side exterior walls are of brick construction.
Lofts 2.3, 4.1.1, 4.2.1, 4.3.1

Question 13

Question 13:
Which of the following choices is most correct regarding tool assignments for members going to the roof at a taxpayer fire operation?
1. When the member going to the roof is carrying the saw, a halligan must also be taken.
2. Members going to the roof subsequently should bring a hook with the saw if available.
A: Both choice 1 and 2

B: Neither choice 1 or 2

C: Only choice 1

D: Only choice 2

Answer 13

Explanation: b
When the member going to the roof is carrying the saw, a HOOK must also be taken.
Members going to the roof subsequently should bring an AX or IRON with the saw if available.
Tarred over scuttles and skylights can be removed, and a full complement of tools will be available for use.
Note: Engine company personnel may use these if truck company members are at a premium.

Question 14

Question 36:
Hoisting a portable ladder to the roof is an important evolution that should be continuously practiced. A newly promoted officer should know which point below to be incorrect?
A: A bowline knot is tied 9 feet (one and one-half full arm lengths) from the end of the hoisting rope, with one foot end tail.

B: Extension ladders shall be raised and lowered in the nested position.

C: the first rung above center of portable ladders (bed ladder of extension ladders) is to be marked with two inch tape at both ends, one inch from the beams.

D: The second rung above center of portable ladders (bed ladder of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape at the center of the rung.

Answer 14

Explanation:c
The first rung above center of portable ladders (bed ladder of extension ladders) is to be marked with ONE INCH tape at both ends, TWO INCHES from the beams.
C an D Note: It is between these marked rungs that the rope is inserted. Additionally, the triangular configuration of the marks indicates the tip of the ladder.
Evol 18 Note 3, 5, 6

Question 15

Question 21:
If a building’s duplex UHF radio repeater system fails, consider utilizing the “Reverse Channels” of the Post Radio or FDNY mobile UHF radio to transmit an emergency message. Which Reverse Channel description is correct?
A: On the UHF mobile radio Tactical zone Channel 14 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 11

B: On the UHF mobile radio Tactical zone Channel 22 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 12

C: On the Post Radio Channel 18 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 14

D: On the Post Radio Channel 20 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 15

Answer 15

Explanation: d post 56
Comm 13 5.2 On the Post Radio:
Channel 17 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 11
Channel 18 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 12
Channel 19 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 14
Channel 20 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 15
On the UHF mobile radio Tactical zone:
Channel 12 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 11
Channel 14 is the Reverse Channel for (Building Radio Repeater) Channel 12
Channel 17 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 14
Channel 19 is the Reverse Channel for (Subway Radio Repeater) Channel 15

Question 16

Question 32:
Which of the following chemical agents would cause skin blistering?
A: Organophosphates

B: Pulmonary agents

C: Vesicants and choking agents

D: VX

Answer 16

Explanation:
Nerve Agents (Organophosphates) - respiratory distress, convulsions, S-L-U-D-G-E-M
Blister Agents (Vesicants) - signs and symptoms do not appear for several hours - skin blistering. Chocking agents also cause blisters.
Blood (Pulmonary) Agents - victims gasping for air, convulsions
VX is a nerve agent
ERP Add 2 2.2

Question 17

Question 6:
Ladder 99 responds to a verbal in front of quarters for an accident that results in an extrication. Members of the truck company assist in vehicle extrication. Four of the members working are CFRD qualified. What is the appropriate action for the officer to take at the completion of the response? (CORRECT)
A: All of the members of the truck company were given CFRD marks at the conclusion of the response.

B: Only the CFR qualified members of the truck company were given CFRD marks at the conclusion of the response.

C: Because the verbal extended beyond the end of the tour, the officer gave the members CFRD marks for the time beyond the end of the tour.

D: No CFRD marks were given for the response.

Answer 17

d Explanation:
PA/ID 3-98 CFRD PAY DIFFERENTIAL
A – Only CFR certified members shall receive the differential when they respond to any of the eligible categories. 2.2.4
B – Responses to perform duties traditionally performed by these companies shall not be compensated. 2.2.5
C – The differential shall only be for the scheduled tour and not beyond. 2.3
D – Responses to perform duties traditionally performed by these companies shall not be compensated (vehicle extrication, forcible entry for EMS or CFR engines) 2.2.5
There aren’t many PA/ID type questions that’ll appear on a LT’s test, but this CFR-D & a couple of others are fair game…

Question 18

Question 20:
You’re the officer of the first arriving ladder company at a fire on the first floor of peaked roof private dwelling. There are reports of someone trapped in the rear of the second floor. Your units takes the following actions. Which one is incorrect?

A: If manpower and conditions permit, have members conduct an examination of the cellar to determine if the fire started at this location.

B: Members proceeding to the side or rear must visually examine cellar windows to determine interior fire conditions. They shall not vent the windows unless orders by the ladder company officer.

C: There was no visible life hazard, so the roof/OV team performed VEIS of the rear of the first floor.

D: The first ladder company officer is the only one who can initiate the request for additional ventilation on the first floor.

Answer 18

c Explanation:
C. If there is no visible life hazard, perform VEIS of an area on an UPPER FLOOR that is most likely to be occupied.

THIS WOULD BE THE SECOND FLOOR REAR GIVEN THE INFORMATION IN THE SCENARIO

Question 19

Question 21:
The incorrect tactic, when operating at an old law tenement (OLT), can be found in which choice?
A: At least the first length of hose should be brought up to the fire floor and the hose strap attached to prevent hose from slipping back down the well hole of the stairway

B: If there is fire in two apartments on a floor or fire involves an apartment from front to rear, two lines may be needed on that floor

C: The absence of a fire escape on the front of an OLT will usually indicate 3-4 apartments per floor. .

D: For fires in rooms in the vicinity of a shaft, after the fire in the room has been knocked down, the line should be operated into the shaft in order to knock down the shaft fire before continuing through the apartment for knockdown and final extinguishment.

Answer 19

Explanation:
The absence of a fire escape on the front of an OLT will usually indicate that the apartments are railroad flats.
Multiple Dwelling Ch 1 secs 3.1.2, 3.1.3, 3.1.4, 3.7.6

Question 20

Question 30:
A search is an orderly and systematic examination of a building or area for the purpose of locating a person, or locating fire and extension of fire. Which of the following remarks about conducting searches in an old law tenement is incorrect?
A: Upon completion of the primary searches, the secondary searches shall be conducted as soon as conditions permit and shall be conducted by units other than those who conducted the primary search of these areas.

B: Prior to proceeding above the fire, the second arriving ladder officer should ensure that the officers on the fire floor are made aware of his/her intentions so that those operating above can be warned of any situation necessitating withdrawal.

C: If you cannot gain entry into safe area on the floor above and the attack line is in position and ready to advance, you must immediately return to the fire floor, before the door to the fire area is opened.

D: On the fire floor, after opening the door, the inside team may find conditions too severe before the engine company has their line charged and are prepared to advance. In this instance they should immediately close the door.

Answer 20

d Explanation:
D. …in this instance they should PROBE THE AREA WITH A HAND OR TOOL, THEN CLOSE THE DOOR, being careful the door does not lock.

Question 21

The incorrect tool assignment/position for the second arriving Ladder Company when operating at a Brownstone type Rowframe can be found in which choice?

A: 2nd due Extinguisher FF shall consider taking two 6’ hooks in lieu of the pressurized water extinguisher to the top floor of the fire building at a top floor fire

B: 2nd arriving LCC when no longer needed at Aerial, goes into an exposure as directed by their officer

C: For a top floor fire, the 2nd OV FF shall team up with the 1st OV FF for VEIS of top floor

D: 2nd arriving Roof FF when examining returns of exposures, the returns remote from the fire should be avoided, as this action could spread the fire in the cockloft

Answer 21

a Rowframes
A-Initially, the top floor of the most severely threatened exposure (for a top floor fire)….5.8.1
B- p-42
C- p-43

Question 22

Question 17:
The incident commander can special call a communications unit anytime they deem necessary. You are working in Engine 100 and discussing the dispatch policy with the members over roll call. Which choice below is INCORRECT about the response matrix for these units?
A: 10-60 transmitted for the collapse of an exterior wall of a private dwelling.

B: 10-66 transmitted for an unconscious member trapped in the cellar of an MD.

C: 10-75 transmitted for fire in the sub-cellar of a commercial building

D: 10-76 transmitted for fire on the 40th floor of a 60 story Commercial Building.

Answer 22

c Explanation:
ICS CHAPTER 2 ADDENDUM 3 – COMMUNICATIONS UNIT
A – All 1060’s – 3.1
B – All 1066’s – 3.1
C – 1075’s for below grade incidents in facilities other than buildings. 3.1
D – All 1076’s – 3.1

Question 23

Question 23:
Tower Ladder 200 arrived second due to a fire on the first floor of a peaked roof private dwelling. Ladder 100 is already on-scene and operating as per department SOP’s. Members of TL200 took the following actions. Which one was incorrect?
A: The Roof/OV team took a 6’ halligan hook and a halligan for each member.

B: The Roof/OV team vented the roof as directed by their officer.

C: With the Roof/OV team utilizing the bucket for VEIS, the LCC remained on the turntable until the fire was controlled and members inside were not in immediate danger.

D: After determining that the second arriving apparatus would not be used, the LCC contacted the first arriving LCC to determine if assistance was required.

Answer 23

Explanation:
B. Vent the roof as directed by THE FIRST ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY OFFICER OPERATING INSIDE THE FIRE AREA.

Question 24

Question 24:
All units are 10-84 and in position for a fire in apartment 12C on the 12th floor of a 18 story 100X100 High-Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwelling (HRFPMD). Choose the unit/member in the incorrect position.

A: The FAST Unit and CFR Engine staged on the 11th floor

B: With the door to the fire apartment left open, the first arriving engine charged the hoseline before exiting the attack stairway

C: The 2nd arriving engine obtained the Post Radio from the 2nd arriving BC and brought it to the standpipe outlet where the first hoseline is being connected and established a communications link on the Command Channel 2 if necessary

D: The 1st and 3rd arriving Roof FFs brought the K.O. Curtain to the apartment directly above the fire

Answer 24

Explanation: c
Multiple Dwellings
A- 6.6.3 staged on the floor below ready for rapid deployment when the fire is above the 6th floor
B- 6.7.3.B
C- Obtain Post Radio from 1st arriving BC …..6.8.2

Question 25

Question 26:
Members of your unit are drilling on ladder company tactics at peaked roof private dwellings. They are discussing the tactical use of both tower ladders and aerial ladders. They are also instructing the junior firefighter about proper positioning of portable ladders. Which one of the comments made by your members was correct?

A: The preferred position of the tower ladder is parallel to the front of the building, so the basket can be placed to the “valley” area where a hook ladder can be used to reach the peak.

B: The aerial ladder shall be positioned to facilitate raising and extending the ladder over the corner of the building. Extend the ladder at least 2 feet above and to one side of the peak.

C: The aerial ladder is the most versatile, efficient and safest method to ventilate the roof.

D: A portable extension ladder may be used from the porch roof to the main peak.

Answer 25

Explanation: d
A. …so the basket can be placed OVER THE CORNER OF THE BUILDING NEAR THE PEAK OF THE ROOF.
B. …AT LEAST 5 FEET ABOVE AND TO ONE SIDE OF THE PEAK.
C. THE TOWER LADDER…

Question 26

Question 36:
When relocating in the quarters of another unit, Officers shall notify the Borough dispatcher at each of the following times except?
A: When in the response district of the unit they are covering.

B: When returning to their own quarters.

C: When back in their own response district.

D: When leaving their own quarters to proceed to the relocation.

Answer 26

d Explanation:
Acronym: RRR
Response district of relocated quarters
Returning to quarters
Response district of own quarters
Comm 8.11.6

Question 27

Question 6:
Regarding BISP, officers shall make a journal entry when ___________.
A: leaving quarters for BISP only

B: returning to quarter’s from BISP only

C: Leaving quarters and upon returning to quarter’s from BISP.

D: returning to quarter’s from BISP only if after 1800 hours.

Answer 27

c
Regulations Ch 12: 12.2.3

Question 28

Question 13:
From the choices listed below, which Units carry the Window Blanket?
A: All Rescues and Squads

B: Rescues only

C: Squads only

D: All Squads and Divisions

Answer 28

a Explanation:
Any Unit or Units may be used to deploy the blanket
The Blanket is large enough to cover at least two windows if necessary
Training Bulletins Tools 3 page 1

Question 29

Question 36:
Prior to a tunnel task force drill, the members were discussing the capabilities of the Draeger EDSCBA. Which of the following regarding the use/capabilities of this mask is INCORRECT?
A: The Draeger BG-4 will provide the user up to 4 hours of useable air.

B: The Draeger BG-4 requires an ICE block at ambient temperatures above 32 degrees Fahrenheit.

C: The Draeger BG-4 has no warning alarm to notify the operator when limited operational time remains.

D: The Draeger BG-4 shall not be used in an operational plan that exceeds 3 hours & 30 minutes.

Answer 29

Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS SCBA ADDENDUM 4
C IS INCORRECT – Warning alarm operates when approximately 60 minutes of operational time remains. 6.1.4.
A – Correct 2.1
B – Correct 2.3
D – Correct 6.1.3

Question 30

Question 17:
Members of your unit are conducting MUD at a two family private dwelling. They are discussing operational variations as compared to single family private dwellings. Which comment below is correct regarding ladder company operations at two family private dwellings?
A: Access to the second floor is via an unenclosed stairway.

B: At two family PD’s, there will not be the initial rapid buildup of smoke on the second floor.

C: For a 1st floor fire, if there’s no visible life hazard discovered by the first arriving ladder’s Roof/OV team, they shall VEIS the second floor windows and assist in searches.

D: There are some private dwellings designed with a separate small apartment located at the ground floor or below grade level. These apartments will always have a secondary means of egress.

Answer 30

b Explanation:
A. Access to the second floor is via an ENCLOSED stairway.
C. …VEIS the FIRST FLOOR windows…
D. These apartments may have a separate and distinct entrance AS THE ONLY MEANS OF EGRESS.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 9.1; 9.2; 9.3

Question 31

Question 19:
At lithium ion energy storage system incidents where members must establish an initial Danger Zone (to reduce explosion exposure risks), members should observe?
A: A minimum of 50 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.

B: A minimum of 50 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Containers may not have exhaust systems.

C: A minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.

D: A minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Containers may not have exhaust systems.

Answer 31

c Explanation:
Members should observe:
Minimum of 50 ft radius from container(s)/cabinet(s).
Minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.

Question 32

Question 16:
Certain components of the tower ladder require inspection by the members to ensure serviceability. Which of the following regarding inspection times is CORRECT?
A: Condition of the safety belts installed in the bucket is conducted each tour.

B: A visual check of the condition or presence of the clip/nut at the end of each boom section is done daily.

C: A visual check of the compression and tension bolts at the turntable 5th wheel shall be made monthly.

D: A test of the electrical outlets at the bucket and lights is conducted each tour.

Answer 32

Explanation:b
TOWER LADDERS CHAPTER 7 – INSPECTION
A – Incorrect – Safety belt inspection is DAILY
B – Correct –Clip/nut at the end of the boom sections is inspected DAILY
C – Incorrect – Turntable 5th Wheel is inspected during MUD at operations or in quarters Pg 2.
D – Incorrect – Electrical outlets at the bucket and lights is conducted daily.\

Question 33

Question 18:
Tower Ladder 99 is assigned to a box where they are tasked with removing an injured construction worker via stokes basket from the upper floors of a building. TL positioning is as important as the manner in which the stokes is secured to the bucket. Which of the choices below CORRECTLY indicates the preferred positioning of the stokes basket along with the proper placement of the apparatus in relation to the building?
A: The preferred positioning of the stokes is in a horizontal position and the apparatus should be positioned so that the center line of the turntable is at least 25-30’ from the building.

B: The preferred positioning of the stokes is in an upright position and the apparatus should be positioned so that the center of the turntable is at least 25-35’ from the building.

C: The preferred positioning of the stokes is in a downward position and the apparatus should be positioned so that the center of the turntable is at least 25-35’ from the building.

D: The preferred positioning of the stokes is in a diagonal position and the apparatus should be positioned so that the center of the turntable is at least 25-30’ from the building.

Answer 33

d Explanation:
D is Correct – Diagonal positioning is the preferred as it is the easiest and safest of the three options. The apparatus should be positioned so that the center line of the turntable is at least 25-30 feet from the building. Chapter 3 3.3

Question 34

Question 22:
Tower Ladder 99 is responding first due to a working fire on the fourth floor of a six story H type Multiple Dwelling. The building is 200x200, has two large wings with wing stairs separated by a throat and there are two fire escapes present on the front of both wings. The first arriving engine reports fire out two windows off the far end fire escape near the exposure 2 wall in the A wing. Based on this information, which choice is CORRECT regarding the recommended initial positioning Ladder 99 should take on arrival?

A: Position at the front of the building with the bucket positioned to cover the throat.

B: Position to cover the fire apartment/floor above for VEIS and secondary egress.

C: Position to allow the aerial access to the roof of the fire building.

D: Position to provide roof access for the 1st & 2nd arriving roof firefighters.

Answer 34

b Explanation:
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 2
B is Correct – Additional Tower Ladders shall be positioned to cover the throat. 2.1.4
A – Incorrect – Initial Throat positioning for top floor fires 2.1.4
C – Incorrect – Not stated
D – Incorrect – Not stated – TL not primary means to access the roof in H-type MD’s

Question 35

Question 23:
Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding the use of the Tower Ladder Bucket?
A: The controls at the pedestal allow for smoother positioning than the joystick controls. The pedestal firefighter should always perform delicate movements.

B: All jacks and outriggers must be fully lowered whenever the Tower Ladder Bucket is to be used.

C: Detailed members should not operate on the turntable unless they are assigned to a truck company, are a qualified Chauffeur, or Company trained FF assigned to a TL.

D: The pedestal firefighter should relay operational and safety concerns received from the bucket to the company officer.

Answer 35

Explanation:
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 1 – PG 6
A – Incorrect – Exception is when pedestal firefighter’s view is obstructed.
B - Correct 1.2 PG 6 Bottom
C – Incorrect – Tower Ladder Company firefighter and NOT Company trained.
D – Incorrect – Incident Commander should be notified

Question 36

Question 3:
High speed roadways can pose as much danger to firefighters as burning buildings. Which of the following is a correct action to take at one of these incidents?

A: Never take a partial lane.

B: Flares burn for 30 minutes, members shall prepare to replace them immediately, after they burn out.

C: Only in rare instances should members allow traffic to come around both sides of an accident scene.

D: At an accident involving a hybrid vehicle, members removed the FOB key to a location at least 15 feet away form the vehicle, and ensured the batteries were disconnected prior to cutting a blue cable. They did not attempt to cut the red or orange cables because those may carry a high voltage

Answer 36

Explanation:a
Training Bulletins, Fires 8
A- sec. 10, 2nd bullet
B-top of pg 7 replenish before burnout
C-sec. 10 NEVER
D-11.6 sec. C, high voltage cables may be orange or blue, do not cut them

Question 37

Question 5:
Which of the following is not listed as a major defect or fault in the construction of places of worship?
A: Early collapse potential.

B: Numerous concealed voids.

C: The vast quantity of combustible material used in the wood joist roof construction.

D: Lack of fire suppression & detection systems.

Answer 37

Explanation:
Firefighting procedures, Places of Worship Fires
A- sec. 1.3.11
B- sec. 1.3.11
C- sec. 1.3.11 truss roof construction.
D-sec. 1.3.11
Note: another defect is the large open areas with limited or no fire stopping

Question 38

Question 8:
The FDNY has recently acquired new Handie-Talkies. The Motorola APX8000XE is a unique device with many capabilities. Which of the following is an accurate description of this device and what it can do?
A: With its Recent/Mayday retention, it will hold the IDs of the last 20 transmissions.

B: An arrow displayed on the top of the screen indicates that the device is on a Trunked or Repeated channel.

C: An H on the screen indicates 5 watt power level.

D: If a member hits their Emergency Alert Button (EAB), all screens on HTs that are in range will display “Emergency” in an orange stripe.

Answer 38

Explanation:c
Communication manual, Chapter 11
A- Sec. 1.2.3 will hold last 15
B-Sec. 2.2.2 C-arrow shows it is on a Direct/Simplex channel, Blank indicates a repeater channel.
C-Sec. 2.2.2 H is 5 watt, L is 2 watt.
D-Sec. 3.5.1 picture, it only mentions that happening on the HT of the member who pressed the EAB.

Question 39

Question 11:
Which of the following is a correct statement about the FDNY’s HT Batteries and Chargers?

A: When the charger displays a green/amber alternating light that is flashing, the battery is fully charged.

B: Wet batteries shall be allowed to air dry prior to placing them in the charge receptacle. Wiping them dry may cause damage to the terminal ends.

C: A flashing red light on the charger indicates that the battery is too hot or cold to charge.

D: a Flashing green light displayed on the charger indicates the battery is charged 80% or better.

Answer 39

a Explanation:
Communication Chapter 11, Addendum 1
A-sec. 2.3 solid green=fully charged, but green/amber alternating indicates fully charged too. This indicator is for radio shop info only.
B-sec. 1.3 if wet, wipe dry prior to charging
C-sec. 2.3 flashing red=not charging/reinsert
D-sec. 2.3 flashing green=trickle mode charge is at 90% or better
Note: steady red=rapid charge
flashing amber=battery is too hot or cold to charge/reinsert.

Question 40

Question 23:
As Certified First Responders, Firefighters may record and transmit a patients personal health information. Which choice below is in violation of the FDNY policy regarding the proper handling of this data?

A: FDNY members shall comply with requests for a patient’s personal health information, from FD legal affairs, BITS, Bureau of ops. Office of medical Affairs, and from the FD IG.

B: The number of injured patients but not the types of injuries may be included in fire-incident reports or other routine memoranda.

C: Patients wishing to file a complaint concerning a breach of confidentiality of their protected health info with the fire department should be advised to put their complaint into writing or to call the confidential reporting hotline.

D: Requests received for ePCRs from the public or a government agency should be referred to the HIPPA privacy officer.

Answer 40

Explanation: b
All Unit Circulars 355-use and disclosure of patient info
A-sec. 2.5
B-sec. 7.5, can include # of patients and types of injuries, but not their names, or other info that would identify them.
C-sec. 19.1
D-sec. 7.6

Question 41

Question 31:
What is an inaccurate action taken by an officer who was requesting the HT recording of a recent fire that he and his members extinguished?
A: He emailed the request via his FDNY Email address.

B: He requested a recording of both the primary and secondary tactical channels but not the command channel.

C: He faxed the request to the Handie-Talkie recording unit and forwarded the original request through the chain of command.

D: The recording was delivered electronically, and he kept it in a designated secure location in the company office when not in use.

Answer 41

c Explanation:
Communications Chapter 9, ADD 1
A-sec. 8.1 email from an FDNY address.
B-sec. 8.2, co. officer may request on primary and secondary tactical but not command channel
C-sec.8.1 no longer faxed, changed 10/01/2019
D-sec. 8.1 & 8.7, correct as written.

Question 42

Question 9:
Portable ladders may be used in many ways and with different tools to perform a variety of functions at fires and emergencies. The most innovative uses of ladders have resulted from quick responses to unusual situations. When using portable ladders to bridge a fence which statement is incorrect?

A: One ladder is placed against the fence and one member ascends the ladder to the point where the top of the fence is at waist level.

B: The butt end of the second ladder is passed to the member on the first ladder.

C: He/she then places both beams of the second ladder on top of the fence, slides it out a sufficient distance, pivots the ladder down from the fence, and lowers it to the ground.

D: The adjacent beams of the two ladders are tied together securely where they intersect, to prevent ladder movement during use.

Answer 42

a C. He/she places ONE BEAM of the second ladder on top of the fence…

Question 43

Question 13:
According to communications chapter 8, which choice below includes the most correct answers on when a unit may transmit a 10-91?
1. Fire Unit is canceled enroute to a medical emergency due to EMS on scene.
2. Medical assignment where the Fire Unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
3. EMS downgrades the job to a segment that does not require a Fire Unit response, prior to the unit going 10-84 at a medical emergency.
4. Fire Unit arrives at a stuck elevator response where NYPD has already safely removed passengers.

A: Only 1 and 3

B: All of the above

C: Only 1, 2 and 3

D: Only 2 and 3

Answer 43

a Explanation:
2. 10-37 Code 4 - medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
4. This signal shall be used only for medical emergency incidents.
Comm 8 10-91
***CFR ch 2 sec 3.8.2 is in conflict with Comm ch 8.
CFR states… If the Company is not required, they shall clear the scene (using signal 10-91) and go 10-8 via MDT

Question 44

Question 17:
In some cases, HTs receiving transmissions from spare radios may display only numeric IDs due to programming limitations. Which of the “first” numerical digits below indicates a “spare radio”?

A: 3

B: 4

C: 6

D: 9

Answer 44

3 - EMS
4 - ARCS
6 - Spare & Communications
9 - Special Units
Comm 11 Add 4 p4 chart
c

Question 45

Question 19:
Due to their large size, elaborate construction features (especially the attic and roof area) and unique internal features, Queen Anne type private dwellings present a more complex fire problem than the average private dwelling. Due to the number of firefighters that may be needed for portable ladder rescue and the number of sleeping areas that may have to be entered and searched, it is good practice for the IC to _____ at fires in Queen Anne PDs.
A: Special call an additional engine and ladder company

B: Special call an additional engine company

C: Special call an additional ladder company

D: Transmit a second alarm

Answer 45

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 8.4
c

Question 46

Question 35:
At a cellar fire in a private dwelling where the quickest access to the cellar is through the main entrance, the first arriving ladder company inside team shall enter through the main dwelling entrance on the first floor to initiate searches and locate the top of the interior cellar stairs. Which additional tactic mentioned below is incorrect?

A: The first ladder company shall maintain door control of the main entrance door until a charged hoseline advances via the main entrance.

B: The first arriving ladder company inside team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar to perform the primary search of the cellar.

C: If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, the ladder company officer and one member of the interior team will provide assistance.

D: The second ladder company will report to the IC and augment search operations and ventilation efforts on all floors above the cellar.

Answer 46

c Explanation:
C. If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, ONE MEMBER OF THE INTERIOR TEAM SHALL BE SENT TO PROVIDE ASSISTANCE, WHILE THE LADDER COMPANY OFFICER AND THE OTHER MEMBER COMPLETE THE PRIMARY SEARCH OF THE FIRST FLOOR.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 10.4

Question 47

Question 20:
New York City Transit has made a number of things available to us for use during underground operations. Which choice below regarding provided firefighting equipment is INCORRECT?
A: All under river tubes of the NYC Transit System are equipped with wet standpipe systems.

B: Gate valves with Fire Department threads are located at approximately 200’ intervals.

C: The standpipes are equipped with 2½ hose and adjustable fog and straight stream nozzles.

D: Dry Chemical extinguishers at the power removal boxes are approximately 600’ apart.

Answer 47

c Explanation:
AUC 207
C is Incorrect – The standpipes are equipped with 1½ hose and adjustable fog and straight stream nozzles.
A,B,D are correct as written. Just note the difference in terminology between the AUC and Under River Rail Operations for choice B – AUC 207 says APPROXIMATELY 200’ intervals, while Under River says EVERY 200’ feet. – Gate Valves are standpipe connections, not to be confused with section valves which are 600’ apart.

Question 48

Question 20:
New York City Transit has made a number of things available to us for use during underground operations. Which choice below regarding provided firefighting equipment is INCORRECT?
A: All under river tubes of the NYC Transit System are equipped with wet standpipe systems.

B: Gate valves with Fire Department threads are located at approximately 200’ intervals.

C: The standpipes are equipped with 2½ hose and adjustable fog and straight stream nozzles.

D: Dry Chemical extinguishers at the power removal boxes are approximately 600’ apart.

Answer 48

c

Question 49

Question 34:
The ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, E400, L99, TL500, L600F, B150, B200, D2…..All units are 10-84 and in position for a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story OLT type rowframe. From the following choices, which unit/position carried out their duties correctly?
A: After Roof FF has reached the roof, L99’s LCC teamed up with TL500’s LCC to VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using portable ladders

B: After VEIS of the fire apartment, L99’s LCC used the Aerial ladder to VEIS the adjoining apartment

C: Even though rescues were being conducted in front of the building, L99’s OV FF ensured horizontal ventilation was conducted of the fire area since she was 1st due

D: After TL500’s OV FF dropped the Roof FF off on the roof, she waited for completion of roof size-up before re-positioning the basket.

Answer 49

Explanation: b
Rowframes
A- Re-positioned the Aerial for this. When the fire is on the 1st or 2nd floor, VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using portable ladders when teamed up with the 2nd LCC (or another available member)…p-36
B- p-36
C- Except for assisting the LCC in front of the fire building when aerial or portable ladders are needed for rescue or removal, assignment is to ventilate the fire area from the exterior providing horizontal ventilation…..p-36
D- This is done when your first due. p-47

Question 50

Question 7:
Engine 99 is dispatched to an EMS response for a reported man down at the intersection of East Street & West Avenue. Upon arrival, there is no obvious patient. Which choice below is CORRECT as the next action taken by the company?

A: Verify the response information with the dispatcher

B: Conduct a complete search of the area for the patient

C: Review the response printout for additional information as to the incident location

D: Attempt to contact neighbors, building superintendents, and/or security personnel

Answer 50

Explanation:v b
CFRD CHAPTER 2
B IS CORRECT – 4.7 – Conduct a complete search of the area. Followed by - Review the response printout for additional information, Verify the information with the dispatcher, attempt to contact neighbors, building superintendent and security personnel. 4.7.1-4.7.3

Question 51

Question 10:
Portable ladders may be used for a variety of reasons other than climbing. Some of those uses include: **1. A portable ladder secured across a doorway in an area where operations are in progress will indicate that section or room of the building has already been searched. **2. Portable ladders placed on one beam, elevated to knee level on supports and properly secured, can act as a barrier to civilian pedestrian traffic near a hazardous condition or fire operation. **3. Short ladders may be placed over holes in floors of buildings to prevent members from falling through during operations. **4. Portable ladders may be used to support overhead doors and other instances where it is necessary to supply support. Which of the above mentioned uses are correct?

A: 1,2,3,4

B: 1,3,4

C: 2,3,4

D: 3,4

Answer 51

d Explanation:
1. …will indicate THAT THE ENTRANCE TO THAT SECTION OR ROOM OF THE BUILDING IS RESTRICTED.
2. Portable ladders placed on one beam and elevated to WAIST LEVEL…

Portable Ladders 9.2.2

Question 52

Question 29:
You arrive at Box 7182 for a report of “popping sounds” from an outdoor Li-ion-ESS Container. After transmitting a 10-80 code 1, Haz Mat units arrive and determine there is no rise in temperature of the battery or module. Which action below would be considered correct?

A: Shut down the ESS.

B: The initial Danger Zone is no longer required to be enforced and maintained.

C: Do not charge the FDC water extinguishing system.

D: Do not exhaust the containe

Answer 52

c Explanation:
In this case (NO rise in temperature of the battery or module):
DO NOT charge the FDC water extinguishing system.
DO NOT shut down ESS.
Ensure the initial Danger Zone is enforced and maintained.
Exhaust the container/cabinet (exhaust override switch at the FDC). FYI…”Cabinets”may not have exhaust systems. If the FDC is located closer than 50 feet from the nearest container/cabinet then personnel shall only enter this area under the order of the IC.
Ask for SME for guidance via telephone.
HM 19 p5

Question 53

Question 30:
A water safety unit must follow certain procedures when operating at the scene of an ice rescue. Which procedure below is incorrect?

A: Generally there are two methods Water Safety Units have available to them for an ice rescue: the reach method and the throw method.

B: Rescuer shall consider the use of FDNY ladders. NYC parks department ladders placed near bodies of water are unreliable and shall not be used.

C: The reach method should not be abandoned even after the Water Rescue Unit is on scene and a rescuer is making their way out to the victim.

D: The throw method does not necessarily follow the reach method, in fact, they should be employed simultaneously when conditions allow or when the victim is beyond reach.

Answer 53

Explanation: b
B. Rescuers shall consider the use of the ladders (FDNY LADDERS OR LADDERS WHICH HAVE BEEN PLACED BY NYC PARKS DEPARTMENT AROUND BODIES OF WATER FOR THIS PURPOSE)

KNOW THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN WATER SAFETY UNITS AND WATER RESCUE UNITS

Water Rescue 3: 3.3.2; 3.3.3; 3.3.4

Question 54

Question 33:
Of the following choices, which one correctly identifies the unit’s designation?

A: E023C - Communications Unit

B: E007N - Cockloft Nozzle

C: E229F - FireIce Unit

D: E040W - Water-Ice Rescue Unit

Answer 54

d Explanation:
E023C - CFRD Engine. “S” = Communications Unit
E007N - High Rise Nozzle
E229I - FireIce Unit
Comm 2 p18

Question 55

Question 56:
Choose the tactic that was carried out correctly at a HRFPMD fire.

A: 1st arriving Ladder Company officer will select the attack stair and notify the 1st/2nd due Engine officers, and the IC

B: 2nd arriving Engine shall ensure the Siamese is supplied. Obtain the Post Radio from 1st arriving BC and bring it to the standpipe outlet where the first hoseline is being connected and establish a communications link on channel 2 between the fire sector and the IC if necessary

C: After all units are in position, and two elevators are available and serviceable, maintain one elevator on standby in the lobby and the other one floor below the fire

D: A service/freight elevator shall not be used until it has been evaluated and declared safe for use by the IC

Answer 55

b Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings
A- The 1st arriving Engine officer will COMMUNICATE with the Ladder Company officer to select the attack stair. The attack stairway need not be the stairway with a standpipe outlet…sec 6.7.2
B- sec 6.8.2
C- One in the lobby, and one TWO floors below the fire…..sec 6.4.8
D- A service/freight elevator shall not be used until it has been evaluated and declared safe for use by the COMPANY OFFICER…..sec 6.4.7

Question 56

Question 57:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the newest type of taxpayer construction?
A: It is much better than the traditional or older type from a fire protection viewpoint.

B: Many of the newer type taxpayers are built with large, uncompartmented cellars, which pose a major problem at cellar fires.

C: The partition walls are usually better constructed due to the use of the steel and aluminum stud system which employs gypsum blocks and sheathing as a bearing or nonbearing wall system.

D: The roof system will remain a major fire fighting factor because, for the most part, the roofs are constructed of “bar joists,” lightweight steel or flat wood trusses.

Answer 56

b Explanation:
Many of the newer type taxpayers are built on a concrete slab foundation, which REMOVES a major problem of cellar and basement fires.
Txpyr 3.13

Question 57

Question 58:
In an OLT, the search for fire extension on the fire floor is started as soon as possible. Many fires do not initially ignite the structure. The contents of a building are ignited and burn first, then the flames spread to the structure. Which of the comments regarding fire extension in an OLT is incorrect?

A: The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements are often fire stopped between the ceiling of one floor and the underside of the floor above. This will prevent lateral extension across the building.

B: The search for fire extension is often done by sense of touch alone. All places where fire might have extended and display no immediate signs of burning such as discoloration, blistering, smoke, etc. should be examined by touch.

C: When checking for extension, there are six sides to examine in the fire area.

D: In Old Law Tenements, the floor beams are laid parallel to the front of the building thus forming horizontal channels for fire travel as far as both side walls (bearing walls) of the building.

Answer 57

Explanation:
A. The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements are NOT fire stopped between the ceiling of one floor and the underside of the floor above. This MAY PERMIT lateral extension across the building and could be first discovered by the unit working on the floor above the fire floor when they encounter extension and/or an unusually heavy smoke condition in the apartment which is not directly over the fire apartment.

Question 58

Question 24:
The following is a list of valves that may be shut by FDNY members in order to control a gas leak. What is the priority order of valves closure for the listed valves? **1. Appliance valve **2. Individual meter valve **3. Interior gas riser valve **4. Master meter valve **5. Head of service Valve **6. Curb/Service valve.
A: 1,2,3,4,5,6

B: 1,3,2,4,5,6

C: 1,2,3,5,4,6

D: 1,3,2,5,4,6

Answer 58

b Explanation:
ACRONYMN: “Any Interior Individual Might Have Closed”

1. Appliance valve
2. Interior gas riser valve
3. Individual meter valve
4. Master meter valve
5. Head of service Valve
6. Curb/Service valve

Natural Gas Pgs 22-24

Question 59

Question 31:
When operating at a fire in a LPG-fueled vehicle, it is important to be aware of, and stay clear of, the discharge point of the relief valve on passenger cars which is positioned within 45 degrees of vertical. This could be located at each of the following locations except?

A: Under the hood

B: Rear quarter panel

C: Off the rear bumper

D: Top of the trunk

Answer 59

Explanation:
Acronym: ROT
Rear quarter panel
Off the rear bumper
Top of the trunk
HM 1 2.6.4 C

Question 60

Question 16:
The placement of the aerial ladder apparatus is key to utilizing it effectively at a fire operation. Which of the following comments is incorrect regarding the general placement of the aerial apparatus?

A: Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the placement of the apparatus is based on the size of the frontage of the building to be covered in case of future need.

B: The roof firefighter shall assist the chauffer in proper placement of the apparatus before carrying out their other assigned duties.

C: While operating at a fire or emergency, the apparatus shall not be backed up unless the chauffer has the assistance of at least one guide person.

D: The placement of the aerial apparatus is dependent on whether immediate rescue is apparent.

Answer 60

b Explanation:
B. The OUTSIDE VENTILATION FIREFIGHTER shall assist the chauffer in proper placement of the apparatus before carrying out their other assigned duties.

Question 61

Question 19:
While working in L100, you receive a ticket to respond as L100H. You would be most correct to anticipate operating under which BC?

A: BC01D

B: BC02F

C: BC03R

D: BC04H

Answer 61

d Explanation:
L100H indicates you are responding as a High-Rise Roof Team.
BC01D - Tech Decon Task Force Leader
BC02F - Foam Coordinator
BC03R - Resources Unit Leader
BC04H - High Rise Roof Chief
Comm 2 p37

Question 62

Question 22:
The officers and members of Engine 296 and Ladder 196 were looking to get their hands on the audio recordings from a recent multiple alarm fatal fire. Which statement below regarding HT recordings is CORRECT?

A: Officers or units requesting handie-talkie audio must send an email from an FDNY email address to the HT Recorder unit at HT_Recorderunit@fdny.nyc.gov.

B: Incidents Involving serious injuries, fatalities, and high profile incidents will be made available only at the direction of the Chief of Department.

C: Company officers can only request recordings from incidents at which they operated.

D: Company and Chief Officers can request recordings of the primary tactical and command channels.

Answer 62

a Explanation:
A IS CORRECT 8.1
B – Chief of Operations. 8.7
C – Unusual to request recordings for an incident at which an officer’s unit did not operate. Any such request considered by Operations and only granted if there are valid reasons justifying such request. 8.3.
D – Company officers – primary and secondary tactical. Chief officers can request any available channel. 8.

Question 63

Question 29:
Ladder 199 just boarded a light train to proceed to a track fire in between stations. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding light train procedures?

A: Delayed communications are expected, therefore, progress reports from the Ladder company officer shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least every 10 minutes.

B: FD Units shall not enter the track area from the light train unless the fire is minor.

C: The Officer on the light train will be notified directly from the TA when the power has been removed.

D: The train operator and conductor carry hand-held radios in addition to the train operator’s radio, which shall be used as the only reliable means of communications for the FD unit on the train.

Answer 63

Explanation: c
AUC 207 – LIGHT TRAIN PROCEDURES
C IS CORRECT – The Transit Authority will notify the FD Unit on the “Light Train” directly and the CIC through the FD Dispatcher when the above (POWER REMOVAL) has been accomplished. 2.3
A – At least every 15 minutes. 2.5
B - FD Units should not enter the track area from the “Light Train” unless power has been removed. 2.3
D – The train conductor carries a hand-held radio with capabilities similar to the train operator’s radio 2.2C

Question 64

Question 32:
You’re the second arriving ladder company overhauling on the floor above the fire in an old law tenement. Which action below is correct?

A: When a wall or partition is too hot to keep your hand on, it should be opened at the hot spot to cutoff extension.

B: If fire is found in a bay, it and one adjoining bay should be opened for examination.

C: If fire is found extending to the floor above, the ceiling or walls should not be opened until a charged line has been called for, because of the possibility of intensifying the fire.

D: The officer assigned the task of overhauling the floors above the fire should make an examination of the room or floor where the fire originated.

Answer 64

d Explanation:
A. When a wall or partition is too hot to keep your hand on, it should be opened ABOVE the hot spot to cut off extension.

B. If fire is found in a bay, it AND BOTH adjoining bays should be opened for examination.

C. If fire is found extending to the floor above, the ceiling or walls should not be opened UNTIL A CHARGED LINE is in position because of the possibility of intensifying the fire.

Ladders 3: 7.3.2; 7.3.4; 7.3.5

Question 65

Question 1:
Which one of the following choices is not in accord with FDNY policy for fires in class 2 high-rise multiple dwellings?

A: The 3rd ladder will search apartments above and below the fire as necessary.

B: The 3rd ladder will search all hallways and stairs above the fire on a continual basis.

C: The 4th ladder roof FF will proceed to the apartment directly above the fire with the KO curtain.

D: If the 3rd ladder is operating in the apartment above the fire, the 4th ladder will search all hallways and stairs above the fire on a continual basis.

Answer 65

C
Explanation:
Firefighting Procedures, Multiple Dwelling Fires
A-8.8.11
B-8.8.11
C-8.8.11 references sec 6.16.4, 3rd ladder roof firefighter.
The Roof Firefighter shall proceed to the apartment directly above the fire with a KO Curtain, in addition to his/her normal complement of tools, to assist members operating on that floor.
D-8.8.12

Question 66

Question 3:
While conducting a drill at a class 2 high-rise residential building, the captain of Engine Company 99 would be right to correct her members on all except which point below?

A: If 4 lengths of hose are required, that particular information, need not be included in the building’s CIDS message. However, if more than 4 lengths of hose is required, that should be identified in CIDS.

B: The fifth assigned/arriving engine is responsible for placing the high rise nozzle into operation.

C: The 3rd engine may need to assist in getting the first line into operation. In this case, the 3rd engine officer must notify the IC and 2nd due engine officer.

D: If the 3rd engine is assisting with the first line, the 4th engine should relieve them, in order to allow the 3rd engine to stretch the second line.

Answer 66

B Firefighting Procedures, Multiple Dwelling Fires A-8.7 top pg 99, More than 3 lengths should be identified in CIDS, NOTE: More than 4 lengths may be required. B-6.11, NOTE: The bulletin indicates the 5th engine to arrive and the 5th assigned engine. The assumption is they are 1 in the same. C-8.7.3, Notify IC and 4th engine officer. D-8.7.4, In this case, 4th engine should stretch a second line.

Question 67

Question 12:
At 3 AM, Ladder 99 receives a response for an automatic-alarm activation in a commercial premises. Upon arrival they soon realize the building is void of people, sealed up and no access is available. They would be incorrect to perform which action below?

A: For an alarm system activation, they conducted an exterior investigation. There were no indications of a fire condition and they had the dispatcher notify the alarm company.

B: For a water flow alarm caused by a defective sprinkler system that required to be shut down, they notified the fire marshals for potential notification to the responsible party.

C: For a water flow alarm activation they conducted an exterior investigation. Then they asked the dispatcher if the alarm system has reset. After the alarm was reset, they took no further action.

D: If the water flow alarm did not reset, they considered forcible entry.

Answer 67

b Explanation:
AUC 5, CH 2, ADD 4
A-4.6
B-4.6-Notify the fire marshals if the system is NOT MONITORED BY AN ALARM and it is defective and/or needs to be shut down. In this case it was monitored by an alarm.
C-4.6
D-4.6
NOTE: If forcible entry was required, notify NYPD for security

Question 68

Question 16:
If members respond to a reported fire in building under construction that is ________ in height, they should know the structure is required to have a hoist or elevator in readiness at all times for FDNY use.

A: 75 feet.

B: Greater than 75 feet.

C: 70 feet.

D: Greater than 70 feet.

Answer 68

b Explanation:
AUC 5, CH2, ADD 2
A,B,C,D-Pg. 4, Greater than 75 feet.

Question 69

Question 29:
A salty engine lieutenant would know that which of the following points regarding standpipe operations at a class 2 high-rise residential building fire is least correct?
A: Standpipes may be found in unusual locations, including half landings, in wall recesses and with outlets that are higher than normal.

B: If encountering difficulty in removing the house line from the outlet, members must communicate this to the ladder officer.

C: In buildings without a public hall or small landings, engines may need access to adjacent apartments to flake out the hoseline.

D: If a second apt entrance is present and the 1st line may be endangered by fire from this door, the second line may need to be stretched to this location to protect the advance of the first line.

Answer 69

Explanation:c
Firefighting Procedures, Multiple Dwelling Fires
A-8.7
B-8.7 tell both the engine and ladder officers
C-8.7, top pg 99, Apartment on the floor below, not adjacent.
D-8.7.4 top pg 100

Question 70

Question 2:
Engine 3 arrives 3rd due for a fire in a store on the first floor of an old law tenement building. The first line is advancing into the store fire. The officer of Engine 3 would be correct to stretch the second hoseline to which location?
A: Immediately to the second floor of the fire building.

B: Into the store as a backup line.

C: to the entrance hallway.

D: To the top floor of the fire building.

Answer 70

Explanation: c
1st line: Stretched to the involved store (2 ½” for large volume fires) 2nd line: Stretched to the entrance hallway. WHEN ASSURED THAT THE SECOND LINE IS NOT NEEDED ON THE FIRST FLOOR, IT MAY BE ADVANCED TO THE FLOOR ABOVE.

Multiple Dwellings 4.3.1

Question 71

Question 11:
Just prior to Roll Call, the Officer of Engine 99 asked the junior firefighter where the MetroCard was located on the apparatus. A discussion ensued among the students about the accounting and procedures for lost or damaged cards. Which choice below is INCORRECT?
A: After each roll call, the officer shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the card is accounted for and on the apparatus.

B: If a MetroCard is lost or stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify PTSU via telephone advising of the particulars.

C: If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall file a police report

D: If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall complete a lost property report

Answer 71

b Explanation:
AUC 207 – ADDENDUM 3
B IS INCORRECT – Notification is made to the FDNY Resource Center advising of the particulars. 3.6.3
A – 3.6.1
C – 3.6.4
D – 3.6.4

Question 72

Question 1:
Please read all the explanations. They have lots of really good info. This is new material and tends to be highly testable… Question 1…While operating at an odor of gas in an occupied place of assembly, members of Engine 101 encounter the following: A licensed plumber using a 16.4 ounce cylinder of propane with a torch. They would be correct to believe which one of the following?

A: t he use is lawful, only if the LPG is being used for emergency repairs.

B: The use is lawful, if being used for minor or emergency repairs.

C: The use is unlawful.

D: The use is lawful, if being used for emergency repairs and provided that the cylinder is never left unattended, and it is removed at the end of the work day.

Answer 72

c Explanation:
AUC 5, CH 2, ADD 3 P 12
FORMER CAPT TEST QUESTION.
Key word is OCCUPIED, for an occupied place of assembly it is never lawful to use LPG for indoor repairs.

Question 73

Question 12:
The first due engine captain arrives at a scaffold emergency and he is the initial-on-scene IC for a few minutes. The incident will dictate which resources are necessary. Which of the following are listed in the FDNY’s new and improved Suspended Scaffold Emergencies bulletin as resources that may be needed? **1)-Rescue & Squad, **2)-Medical Assistance, **3)-NYPD, **4)-DOB, **5)-A scaffold mechanic, **6)-Glassier contractors.

A: 1,2,3 &4 but not 5&6

B: 1,2,4,5 &6, but not 3

C: 1,2,3,4,5 &6

D: 1,2,3,4 &6, but not 5

Answer 73

c
Explanation:
Emergency Procedures, Suspended Scaffold Emergencies A,B,C,D,-sec. 2.2
Recent additions to the list 1/2020: 1-Rescue and Squad for their high angle rigging and glass removal equipment. 2-Scaffold mechanic, 3-Building or glassier contractors.
NOTE: NYPD for crowd and traffic control NOT ESU for help & DOB for their Derricks and Crane Unit.

Question 74

Question 17:
When operating at a private dwelling constructed of lightweight materials it is critical that all firefighting units are made aware that a lightweight support system is present. Which general operating procedure at these types of buildings is incorrect?
A: When lightweight construction is suspected, an immediate examination of the ceiling voids shall be conducted as soon as conditions permit.

B: Once lightweight construction is discovered, this information shall be transmitted to IC for relay to the borough dispatcher.

C: When fire enters a confined space containing lightweight trusses or joists, it can rapidly travel to remote locations especially when dealing with metal c-joists and laminated wood I-beams.

D: When heated gases build up in the concealed spaces of a trussloft and attic/cockloft, there is a much greater potential for backdraft to occur.

Answer 74

c Explanation:
C. When fire enters a confined space containing lightweight trusses or joists, it can rapidly travel to remote locations especially when dealing with THE OPEN-WEB DESIGN OF LIGHTWEIGHT PARALLEL CHORD WOOD AND COMPOSITE TRUSSES.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 4.1.2, 4.1.3, 4.1.4
***Wording is a bit different for 4.1.2 and 4.3.1. One says as soon as conditions permit and the other says immediately upon arrival.
When lightweight construction is suspected, the first arriving ladder company shall make an inspection hole in the ceiling from a safe area in order to determine the type of support system present. This critical task shall be done immediately upon arrival.

Question 75

Question 4:
At a critique following the collapse of an occupied multiple dwelling, company officers described their operation. Which officer operated INCORRECTLY according to the Collapse Bulletin?
A: As a result of an involved operation, the 3rd ladder company assisted with control of the utilities.

B: The 2nd arriving ladder officer ensured the dispatcher notified the utility company emergency crews.

C: The 1st arriving ladder company performed preliminary void searches and removed surface victims.

D: The 4th arriving ladder company assisted with supervising apparatus placement.

Answer 75

d Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
D IS INCORRECT – 1ST and 2nd arriving ladder company officers supervise apparatus placement. 7.5 & 7.6
A – 7.7
B – 7.6

Question 76

Question 5:
Under Phase 2 (Water Pressure Emergency) each unit starting at 1000 hours shall take and record the pressure on the hydrant nearest to quarters, every hour until 2200 hours. Units shall patrol their district as per schedules established by DCs. Upon completing their assigned patrol duties, officers shall fax to the Battalion all of the following information except?

A: The number of hydrants OOS

B: Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could adversely affect firefighting operations

C: The number of illegally opened hydrants

D: The number of spray caps placed

Answer 76

axplanation:a
The number of hydrants shut down
AUC 205 sec 8.2

Question 77

Question 6:
When a rowframe building is fully involved and fire is in the exposures, engine companies shall conduct a “holding operation.” Which line placement described below is correct for this operation?

A: The first arriving engine company dropped two handlines in front of the fire building.

B: The first two lines were stretched into the fire building, because the first line needed back up.

C: The first line was stretched to the most severe exposure.

D: The third line must be stretched to the exposure opposite the most severe exposure.

Answer 77

b Explanation:
A. The first arriving engine company STRETCHED ONE 3 ½” SUPPLY LINE FOR A TOWER LADDER, AND A HOSELINE FOR ENTERING THE BUILDING.

C. The first line was stretched INTO THE FIRE BUILDING THROUGH THE FRONT DOOR.

D. IF THE SECOND HOSELINE IS NEEDED TO BACK UP THE FIRST HOSELINE, THE THIRD HOSELINE IS STRETCHED TO THE TOP FLOOR OF THE MOST SEVERE EXPOSURE. IF THE SECOND HOSELINE WAS STRETCHED TO THE TOP FLOOR OF THE MOST SEVERE EXPOSURE, THE THIRD HOSELINE IS STRETCHED TO THE TOP FLOOR OF THE OPPOSITE EXPOSURE.

Question 78

Question 4:
At collapse operations it is critical for first responding units to address street management and fire control. Apparatus shall be parked in such a manner that special equipment, ambulances, etc., can make their way to and from the scene when ordered by the IC. Which apparatus positioning below is incorrect for collapse operations?

A: If possible, both the first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream.

B: Two of the second alarm ladder companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street.

C: Initially, the first arriving tower ladder should be the only unit in front of the collapsed building, unless there is specific need for additional units.

D: Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and protect a different exposure.

Answer 78

b Explanation:
B. Two of the second alarm ENGINE COMPANIES should be used to seal off the ends of the street.

Collapse 5.3, 5.4

Question 79

Question 9:
Prefixes of units on a response ticket help to identify what resources are responding to a particular incident. Which prefix is correct?

A: HR - High Rise Unit

B: RC - Recuperation and Care Unit

C: F - Foam Tender

D: RV - Rapid Response

Answer 79

a Explanation:
Comm 2 p36
RA - Recuperation and Care Unit
FT - Foam Tender
RR - Rapid Response
***AUC 159 add 8 sec 3.2.1 states…These units will be identified in the CADS system as follows: R and ladder company number associated with the S.S.L. (R025 is Ladder 25 second piece)

Question 80

Question 18:
You are the officer on duty in Ladder 199 when a firefighter calls and advises you that he lost his ID while at a club the night before. Which choice below contains INCORRECT information regarding the loss of a badge or ID?

A: The officer receiving notification must record relevant facts in the office record journal.

B: The member must report the loss to the police department, Transit Authority etc. make a diligent search and immediately advise of its recovery or, after seven days, the failure of a search to produce the item.

C: The officer shall forward a report forthwith to Personnel containing the member’s information, date & time of loss, date & time reported, to whom reported, and circumstances relating to the loss.

D: If the badge or ID is not recovered in seven days, an additional report shall be forwarded with recommendations, if any, for disciplinary action as per PA/ID 3/75 (Command Discipline

Answer 80

Explanation:a
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 16 – UNIT PERSONNEL PROCEDURE
A IS INCORRECT – Relevant facts are recorded in the company journal. 16.2.6A
B – 16.2.6B
C – 16.2.6C
D – 16.2.6

Question 81

Question 19:
Currently, there are three types of Anti-Chaffing devices that may be encountered in the field. All devices serve the same function and will afford protection when used with the LSR. The description of the Anti-Chaffing device is incorrectly stated in which choice?

A: After the LSR has been packed in the carrying case, remove 3 feet of rope and pass the rope through the canvas sleeve from either end of the device

B: After the rope has been passed through the canvas sleeve, grasp the hook of the LSR and pull 1 1/2 arms length of rope through the anti-chafing device. Tie a bowline on a bight on this section of the rope, and place the rope and anti-chafing device in the carrying case

C: When used in a lowering or single slide operation, the anti-chafing device is placed so that the flexible end overlaps the roof or the parapet wall toward the street

D: Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify Tech Services by telephone and have it immediately replaced

Answer 81

d Explanation:
Training Bulletins Rope 1 Data sheet 2
A- 2.1
B- 2.2
C- 3.1
D- Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify the administrative division by telephone and fax. Have it immediately replaced 4.4

Question 82

Question 30:
Prior to opening the door to the fire area for advancement of the hoseline, the _______ officer must assure that no firefighters will be exposed in the hallway or on the stairs above as the fire attack is initiated. This can be done _____________

A: ladder, via handie-talkie or in person.

B: engine, via handie-talkie or in person.

C: ladder, in person only.

D: engine, in person only

Answer 82

b

Question 83

Question 36:
Which feature of high-rise office buildings is correctly indicated below?

A: High Rise Office Buildings built after 1968 were constructed with a lack of compartmentation.

B: High Rise Office Buildings built before 1945 used construction techniques that resulted in buildings usually between 10 and 20 pounds per cubic foot.

C: High Rise Office Buildings built after 1968 had exterior walls substantially tied to all floors.

D: High Rise Office Buildings built between 1945 and 1968 had ceiling plenums that were extensive and lacked fire stopping.

Answer 83

a Explanation:
B) High Rise Office Buildings built BETWEEN 1945 and 1968 used construction techniques that resulted in buildings usually between 10 and 20 pounds per cubic foot.
C) High Rise Office Buildings built BEFORE 1945 had exterior walls substantially tied to all floors.
D) High Rise Office Buildings built AFTER 1968 had ceiling plenums that were extensive and lacked fire stopping.
HROB 2

Question 84

Question 17:
Alternate strategies are now applied at HRFPMD fires to decrease the likelihood of members suffering serious injuries during wind impacted events where the apartment door is left open. Which of the following is the CORRECT use of an alternate strategy?

A: Only the IC can approve of members entering the public hallway.

B: Only the Ladder Company Officer and inside team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door.

C: The Engine Officer will remain on the hallway side of the stairwell door for control and coordination

D: Once the Ladder Officer gains control of the fire apartment door, have the Engine Company advance the charged hoseline to the fire apartment door.

Answer 84

d Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES
D IS CORRECT – 5.1E 4TH Bullet
A – IC, Operations Section Chief, Fire Sector Supervisor – 5.1E 1st Bullet
B – Only the Ladder Company Officer and ONE MEMBER OF THE INSIDE TEAM shall enter the public hall to locate the fire apartment door. The other member will remain at the attack stair door on the hallway side to ensure the hallway door remains closed. 5.1E 2nd Bullet. The entire inside team does not enter to locate the and gain control of the fire apartment door
C – The Engine Officer shall be responsible for control and coordination on the stairwell side of the door. 5.1E 3rd Bullet

Question 85

Question 20:
Engine company officer’s that need to exchange the data card for the AED must follow certain steps. Which step below is described incorrectly?

A: The data card shall be placed in envelope with a copy of the PCR.

B: The engine company exchanging the card shall forward the data card to the Office of Medical Affairs.

C: Any time the AED is applied to the patient and turns the unit on, the engine company must exchange the data card for a blank one.

D: The identity of the CFR depot shall be written on the envelope.

Answer 85

b Explanation:
B. The engine company exchanging the card WILL BRING THE DATA CARD TO THE CFR DEPOT. THE CFR DEPOT shall forward the data card to the Office of Medical Affairs.

CFR Chapter 4 2.2.1

Question 86

Question 33:
Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding Older Cast-Iron Lofts built from the 1840s to the 1870s?
A: Larger dimensional buildings can be irregularly (L-shaped) constructed with frontage on two adjacent streets, or 200 feet deep with frontage on 2 parallel streets. Buildings with larger frontages (up to 50 feet) have wider windows and entranceways with cast-iron columns and arches to support heavy timber or iron girders.

B: Interior support columns can be composed of cast-iron, wrought-iron, brick or wood. Wooden floor joists run from side wall to side wall, while girders and columns run front to rear.

C: Interior walls, flooring, and trim are of wooden construction and the height between the floor and ceiling is a minimum of 8 feet. The roof is built flat using wood rafters and some top floors have dropped-ceilings below the roof, creating cockloft areas.

D: These structures have two enclosed, fireproof stairs. Interior stairs leading to the cellar may be remote from the main interior stairway and of open, wooden construction.

Answer 86

d Explanation:
These structures have ONE UNENCLOSED WOODEN STAIR, often winding around the elevator shaft, OR ONE STRAIGHT RUN STAIR. Interior stairs leading to the cellar may be remote from the main interior stairway and of open, wooden construction.
Note: Fire escapes can be found on the front, rear, as well as the sides (corner buildings).
A Note: These girders may be supported by the rear wall and on flanges at the back of the cast-iron front wall. Ornamental cast-iron plating may also be found bolted into front facade masonry.
Loft 4.1.2-4.1.4

Question 87

Question 3:
Units operated at a cellar fire in a 4 story row frame. Hoselines were deployed in the following fashion. Which one is incorrect?

A: The first line was stretched to the first floor and remained there to protect the public hall due to the intensity of the fire.

B: The first line was advanced through the front door and, then to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire.

C: When needed, the second hoseline was stretched to backup the first line on the first floor.

D: When not needed as a backup line for the first line on the first floor, the second line was stretched to the cellar via the interior stairs.

Answer 87

d Explanation:
D. When not needed as a backup line for the first line on the first floor, the second line was stretched to the cellar via the OUTSIDE CELLAR ENTRANCE.

Rowframes 6.2

Question 88

Question 4:
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding elevator operations at a High-Rise MD fire on the 8th floor where the elevators are equipped with Firefighter service and Outside operations are indicated?

A: Members of the 1st arriving ladder company recalled the elevators and searched them upon reaching the ground floor.

B: The first available elevator was placed in firefighter service and members of the first due engine and truck took the elevator to the 6th floor.

C: The Engine Officer, Nozzle, and Control firefighters rode along with the inside team of the first arriving ladder company.

D: The IC designated a member from the 2nd arriving ladder company to operate the firefighter service elevators.

Answer 88

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
A IS INCORRECT – 6.4.2 – The first arriving ladder company recalls the elevators whether or not they will be used. The 2nd arriving ladder ensures all elevators are RECALLED & SEARCHED.
B – Correct – Stairs shall be used when the FIRE is on the SEVENTH FLOOR OR BELOW.
C – Correct – Outside operations were indicated therefore the Engine Officer, Nozzle and Control make up the first elevator team 6.4.6
D – Correct – If the OV is involved in an outside operation and the fire is above the 7th floor, the elevator will be operated by a member from the second ladder and/or other members designated by the IC 6.4.6B

Question 89

Question 8:
Engine 199 and Ladder 99 arrive on the fire floor in a High Rise MD where the apartment door is closed, window failure has not occurred yet there is a very heavy wind condition outside. Which operations decision was INCORRECT based on the scenario?

A: The Engine officer had the line advanced to the apartment door and charged.

B: Prior to opening the door of the fire apartment, the Ladder Officer shall get a report on exterior conditions from members operating outside the building and the Roof firefighter operating on the floor above.

C: The Ladder officer and one member of the forcible entry team shall enter the fire apartment to perform search while the other member stays at the apartment door on the hallway side of the door making sure the door remains controlled in the closed position.

D: Once the hose line advances towards the interior fire area as directed by the Ladder Officer, the door shall be chocked open.

Answer 89

Explanation: c
MD ch 5 sec 5.3
The other member stays inside the apartment door making sure the door remains controlled in the closed position thereby limiting the flow path.

Question 90

Question 9:
What code should be transmitted when your Engine Company performs CPR on a patient on a CFRD response?

A: 10-37 Code 1

B: 10-37 Code 2

C: 10-37 Code 3

D: 10-37 Code 4

Answer 90

b Explanation:
10-37 - Medical Assignment Not Associated with Fire Operations
Code 1: Victim deceased.
Code 2: Victim/Patient is NOT breathing and requires resuscitation or may be suffering from a serious, apparently life threatening injury or illness.
Code 3: Victim/Patient IS breathing and suffering from a non-serious, apparently not life threatening injury or illness.
Code 4: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS

Question 91

Question 12:
While relocated, the members of Tower Ladder 99 were discussing Air Train Operations along the Van Wyck Expressway. Which statement made below was INCORRECT?

A: When no guardrail is visible above the parapet wall, it usually indicates that the third rail is on the outside of the tracks and that the walkway is located between the tracks.

B: If there is an imminent life hazard requiring members to access the track area immediately, the IC must ensure that the blue light station power removal box is activated, and power confirmed off before operations commence.

C: Members must not enter the track area until power has been confirmed off and the grounding straps are in place, except when the IC has determined that an imminent life hazard exists and time doesn’t allow for the grounding straps.

D: The placing of an apparatus alongside the high-speed roadway for access to the guideway will always require the complete closing of the roadway.

Answer 91

b Explanation:
AUC 207 – AIRTRAIN SYSTEM
B IS INCORRECT – For an imminent life hazard, confirmation of power off is not required. – Section 9 - Pg 5 top.
A – PG 4 top.
C – Section 8 and 9 #2 – Pg 5 top.
D – Section 11 – Pg 6 Bottom.

Question 92

Question 26:
Units are operating at a private dwelling fire constructed of lightweight materials. There is an occupant unaccounted for in the fire building. Due to this potential life hazard, the following tactics are implemented. Which one is incorrect?

A: The second hoseline was directed by the IC to a location remote from the first hoseline.

B: The IC special called an additional engine company to this operation.

C: A 2nd hoseline must backup the first hoseline.

D: If the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with the first hoseline, then an exterior attack must be considered.

Answer 92

d Explanation:
D. If the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with the THE TWO HOSELINES, then an exterior attack must be considered.

Question 93

Question 30:
While responding to the scene of a surf rescue, the IC shall consider the following points. Which one is incorrect?

A: Request from the marine unit if the tide is incoming or outgoing.

B: Verify ETA of the marine unit.

C: Use of the 800 MHz radio.

D: Monitoring of the TAC-U Channel

Answer 93

d Explanation:
D. Monitoring of the NYPD SOD CHANNEL

CODE: “MUTE”

MONITOR NYPD SOD CHANNEL
USE OF 800 MHZ
TIDE
ETA OF MARINE UNIT

Water Rescue 4: 4.1

Question 94

Question 9:
Upon receipt of a recall signal, all affected units out of quarters, other than units operating at a fire or emergency, shall ___________. Relocated units shall be guided by instructions received from dispatchers.

A: return to quarters after immediately, unless on BISP or Hydrant inspection

B: return to quarters immediately

C: return to quarters as soon as practical

D: return to quarters within the hour

Answer 94

b

Question 95

Question 16:
At a fire on the top floor and cockloft of a 4-story Brownstone type row frame without a rear fire escape, and the first arriving ladder company is a tower ladder, the second arriving ladder responsibilities are many. Which member of this 2nd arriving ladder company operated INCORRECTLY?

A: The inside team operated on the top floor of the most severely threatened exposure.

B: When no longer needed at the aerial, the LCC operated in the opposite exposure for VEIS of the top floor and examination of the cockloft.

C: After checking the rear, the OV teamed up with the LCC for exposure examination or proceeded to the roof.

D: The Roof firefighter operated on the roof of the most severe exposure for examination and ventilation.

Answer 95

d Explanation:
BROWNSTONES AND ROWFRAMES
D IS INCORRECT – The 2nd roof position is on the roof of the fire building for Assist in ventilation of fire building and necessary exposures. When the fire is on the top floor and in the cockloft, both roof firefighters work together to vent roof with the saw. 5.8.1 pg 43
A – 5.8.1 pg 42
B – 5.8.1 pg 42
C – 5.8.1 pg 43 & 2.7 #1 pg 20

Question 96

Question 17:
Ladder companies in Battalion 99 are 1084 at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 6-story multiple dwelling. Several laddering decisions were made during the early stages of this fire. Which one was CORRECT?
A: The 1st arriving LCC placed the aerial to the roof at an extreme angle so that it barely touched the building. It was extended 4 feet above the roof.

B: The 2nd arriving OV placed the first portable ladder to the first fire escape balcony alongside the drop ladder to assist with the number of people coming down the fire escape.

C: The 2nd arriving LCC positioned the Tower Ladder top basket railing level with the fire escape so members could load an unconscious 1045 victim in the bucket.

D: The 1st arriving LCC placed the aerial on the 3rd floor fire escape balcony, less than 6” above the railing.

Answer 96

c Explanation:
LADDERS BULLETINS – PORTABLES – AERIALS – TOWER LADDERS
C IS CORRECT – Tower Ladders 3.3
A - When placing the ladder to the roof, extend the ladder so that the tip is at least 5 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building. Lad 2 - 7.13
B - A portable ladder should be raised to the first balcony at a point opposite the drop ladder. Portable Ladders 10.1
D – Aerial Ladders are not placed on Fire escapes. 3.3.1 Place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from face of building and about one to three feet above the balcony railing.

Question 97

Question 19:
Firefighter Jones was discussing sexual harassment and the EEO Complaint Process with several of her fellow firefighters and the filing process came up. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding the filing process for sexual harassment complaints?

A: Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly through BITS at HQ.

B: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated to the officer who will forward the complaint to the EEO Office.

C: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated through the chain of command to the EEO Officer.

D: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated my mailing a letter to the EEO Office.

Answer 97

Explanation:c
PA/ID 1/77 – EEO
C IS INCORRECT – The chain of command from the member to the EEO officer is bypassed when the member utilizes the complaint process 10.1
A – 5.4
B – 5.2.5
D – 5.2.2

Question 98

Question 33:
A “Taxpayer” is improperly defined in which choice below?

A: The term “Taxpayer” is not defined or recognized in the building code; the term originally referred to the practice of real estate investors who, while holding land for speculation, resorted to minimal investment in construction to produce income to offset the cost of taxes. These structures were usually of cheap and flimsy construction with little or no fire retarding features.

B: A taxpayer building is commonly taken to mean a business structure one or two stories in height of Class 3 construction (exterior firewalls with wooden interior structural members).

C: Taxpayer areas vary from 20’ x 50’ to areas of whole city blocks, the most common size being approximately 100’ x 100’. They can be built on one or more lots with adjoining structures of greater heights on three sides.

D: Taxpayers are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as 15 different businesses with reliant, fire resistive partitions and multiple fire stops in the cocklofts.

Answer 98

d Explanation:
Taxpayers are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as 15 different businesses with WEAK, NON-FIRE RESISTIVE PARTITIONS and NO FIRE STOPS in the cocklofts.
Taxpayer 2.1, 2.2

Question 99

Question 39:
Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding communications between Fire and EMS?

A: When a CFR unit arrives at a CFR response and an EMS unit is on-scene, the Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 1 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 200 to EMS”).

B: If the CFR unit is on-scene first, EMS will initiate contact with the CFR unit (e.g. “EMS 15 Adam to Engine 200”).

C: When Fire units are unable to contact EMS via HT Channel 1, information may be relayed through the FD dispatcher to the EMS unit assigned.

D: A fire is classified as an MCI by EMS, and the assigned medical resources will typically switch to Ch 10 and respond on that channel

Answer 99

d Explanation:
A fire is classified as an MCI by EMS, and the assigned medical resources will typically switch to EMS-CW1 and respond on that channel
Comm 14 Add 1 2.1-2.6

Question 100

Question 38:
In order to give an adequate drill on the new Motorola APX8000XE HT, all company officers should be well versed in its use. From the list below, choose the most correct statement made in regards to the APX8000XE radio.

A: When making a long transmission on the APX8000XE HT, a short audible warning tone at approximately 20 seconds and a continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds will be heard

B: To activate the Emergency Alert Button (EAB), depress the orange button approximately one second

C: To reset the EAB, depress EAB for 1/2 second or by turning HT off and then back on

D: The 7 digit numeric ID for Squad 288 BU is 8288004

Answer 100

Explanation:b
Communications ch 11 new as of 7/17/2019
A- 26, 30….sec 3.3
B- sec 3.5
C- 2 seconds or by turning HT off and then back on…sec 3.5.1.1
D- 8288004 is Hook/Control….. Squad 288 FE/BU- 8288005….sec 4.1….also see Communications ch 11 add 4 p-4

Question 101

Question 55:
When operating at a Hazardous Material incident, scene security and control involves preventing or reducing the exposure to any civilian or responder, as well as preventing the transfer of hazardous substances by civilians, members and equipment from the Exclusion Zone to the Support Zone. Choose the most correct procedure when operating within these zones.

A: Contamination Reduction Corridor is established in the Exclusion Zone

B: Yellow barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Exclusion Zone

C: Red barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Contamination Reduction Zone

D: Safe Refuge Area is established in the Contamination Reduction Zone

Answer 101

d Explanation:
A- Contamination Reduction Zone
B- Red tape
C- Yellow tape

ERP Hazardous Materials sec 4

Question 102

Question 58:
Ladder 80 has just taken up from a challenging brush fire operation. The company officer gathers her members for an informal critique of the fire. She makes the following points. Which one is incorrect?

A: In all circumstances, units responding to a brush fire shall never self-commit to operations.

B: If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place capable of protecting operating forces.

C: Fires burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. Have units positioned on streets at the top of the hill to protect exposures but attack the fire from the bottom of the hill.

D: Use extreme caution when brush fires burn near utility transmission lines. Never operate hoselines beneath high voltage lines.

Answer 102

a
Explanation:
A. Units responding to a brush fire ARE NOT TO self-commit to operations UNLESS STRUCTURES ARE EXPOSED.

AUC 151: 5.1.2, 5.4.6, 5.4.16, 5.11.11

Question 103

Question 60:
Ladder Company operations can vary based on first and second due arrival as well as the type of apparatus and where the fire is. Which choice CORRECTLY describes the first option for ladder company operations in tenement buildings? (Another available member is always available as a second option)

A: At a fire on the 3rd floor front of a 5 story OLT w front and rear fire escapes, where the 1st arriving ladder is an aerial, the 1st and 2nd OV’s teamed up to VEIS the fire apartment off the front fire escape.

B: At a fire on the top floor of a 5 story OLT with a rear fire escape, where the first ladder is an aerial, the 1st roof and OV teamed up to VEIS the fire apartment off of the rear fire escape.

C: At a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5 story OLT with a rear fire escape, where the 1st ladder was a tower ladder, the 1st and 2nd roof firefighters teamed up to VEIS the floors above the fire apartment from the rear.

D: At a fire on the 4th floor front of a 5 story OLT with front and rear fire escapes where the 1st arriving ladder was a tower ladder, the 2nd OV and Chauffeur teamed up to VEIS the floor above via the front fire escape.

Answer 103

Explanation:
LADDERS 3
D IS CORRECT – 3.4.6 #4 PG 27 TOP
A – 1st OV & LCC team up to enter the fire apartment from the front fire escape. 3.2.5 #4 pg 12
B – 1st & 2nd OV’s team up to VEIS the fire apartment from the fire escape 3.2.5 #2 pg 12 top
C – 1st & 2nd roof FF’s team up to VEIS the fire apartment from the rear fire escape when 1st truck is TL. 3.3.5

Question 104

Question 91:
Which of the following tactical decisions was CORRECT according to ladder company operations for a fire on the top floor of a 5-story old law tenement with fire escapes on the front and rear?

A: The 2nd arriving ladder company inside team assisted the first Ladder Company in entry and search of all top floor apartments.

B: The 1st arriving OV proceeded to the roof and unable to descend, assisted with roof ventilation operations prior to attempted ventilation of the fire apartment.

C: The 2nd arriving LCC was not needed in front of the building so he assisted with searches of the apartments on the fire floor.

D: The 1st arriving ladder company inside team forced entry into the fire apartment and immediately began their search for fire victims.

Answer 104

a