meat and potatoes

Question 1

Which 10 code was given correctly?

A: 10-35-2 for unnecessary alarm caused by alarm system testing or servicing

B: 10-42 for a tree down

C: 10-40-3 for a steam emergency

D: 10-43 for standing by at a suspicious package

Answer 1

b

Explanation:
A- 10-35-1 is for alarm system testing or servicing….10-35-2 is for Construction activities
C- 10-40-3 is for a Water condition…..10-40-4 is for steam
D- 10-39 is for standing by at a suspicious package…….10-43 is for any non-fire related rescue
Communications Ch 8

Question 2

Question 14:

During company drill on private dwelling fire operations, your members made a number of statements, one of which was incorrect. Indicate the incorrect statement.

A: Units should be cognizant of the status of surrounding units; depending on conditions found units should be proactive in calling for additional units early.

B:Outside ladder company positions are predicated on whether the roof is flat or peaked. This information must be transmitted with the signal 10-75, if this can be determined upon arrival.

C: Porch and garage roofs of normal wood frame construction will not provide a suitable platform from which to work. Members shall not use these porch and garage roofs to conduct operations.

D: Modern three family MDs are often built with three separate entrances that have no common area. These structures require private dwelling tactics due to their PD style design.

Answer 2

c

Porch and garage roofs of normal wood frame construction MAY provide a suitable platform from which to work. Windows at these locations will allow quick access to the upper floor rooms. Be aware that screened or open porches may not provide protection from fire venting below. Note: Members shall NOT use porch and garage roofs constructed of aluminum or similar lightweight materials to conduct operations

Question 3

Question 17:
A discussion was being had regarding ventilation in HRFPMD’s and the following statements are made. Which is CORRECT regarding ventilation operations in these buildings?

A: Horizontal ventilation of the fire floor is limited and controlled by the 1st arriving Ladder Company Officer.

B:All ventilation outside of the fire apartment must be strictly limited and controlled by the IC.

C: Vertical ventilation shall only be performed at the direction of the Ladder company officer in the fire area.

D: Ventilation of the fire apartment in FPMD’s should take place once the line is in place and advancing on the fire

Answer 3

b

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES - MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
B IS CORRECT 6.3.2
A – Fire apartment 6.3.2
C – 6.3.5 -Incident Commander
D – 6.3.1 Ventilation of the fire apartment in FPMD’s should take place after the main body of fire has been controlled.

Question 4

Question 20:
Members of Engine 278 and Ladder 177 were discussing line placement at cellar fires in Brownstones and several of the them made statements. Which of the following statements made by the members was CORRECT?

A: The first line must be stretched via the parlor floor stairs and down to the cellar if conditions permit.

B: If the first line was used to secure the first floor, the second line will be stretched to the cellar via the exterior cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.

C: If a third line is necessary, it will be stretched to the top floor to cover any extension.

D: The second line is stretched through the front door on the first floor to back up the first hoseline.

Answer 4

d Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES
D IS CORRECT 3.1B
A – The first line is stretched through the front door on the first floor. 3.1 A
B – Second line is stretched to the cellar via INTERIOR CELLAR STAIR to extinguish the fire. 3.1B
C – If a third line is necessary, it will be stretched as ordered by the incident commander. 3.1C

Question 5

Question 22:

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding mitigation of a steam emergency inside of a building?

A: Do not randomly shut steam valves inside of a supplied building.

B: Once a steam valve is shut, do not reopen it.

C: Notify Con Edison if a valve is shut. Failure to do so can result in damage to the system and injury to Con Edison personnel working to restore the system.

D: In an emergency, members may shut the Outside Service Valve. If possible, wait for Con Ed steam personnel to shut the necessary valves.

Answer 5

d Explanation:
In an emergency, members may shut the INSIDE Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed. If possible, wait for Con Ed steam personnel to shut the necessary valves.
There is a building steam shutoff located outside the building. FD members should NOT attempt to shut this valve. This valve should ONLY be shut by Con Edison steam personnel.
A Note: Shutting the wrong valve can cause damage to the system creating other hazardous conditions.
B Note: The system will have to be drained before reopening the valve.
EP Steam 4.4

Question 6

Question 25:
You are a new Lt. working in a single engine company and the members approach you with questions because of numerous requests for sprinkler caps. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding the use of spray caps?

A: Members can distribute spray caps to persons they can ensure are at least 21 years old.

B: Housewatch FF notifies the applicant of approximately when the company will be able to turn on the hydrant.

C: Spray caps shall not be placed on hydrants that have mains larger than 20 inches

D: The officer on duty should schedule to turn off hydrants prior to the start of the 6x9 tour and remove the spray cap(s).

Answer 6

Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 3 add 2 sec 3.3
Spray caps shall not be placed on hydrants that: have mains larger than 20 inches, are red or yellow, are on two-way streets, near intersections, on bus routes, or on access routes to main traffic arteries
A – At least 18 years old.
B – Officer notifies applicant
D – During the 6x9 tour

c

Question 7

Question 29:

What type of sprinkler system is most often found in computer rooms or where other sensitive electronic equipment is used?

A: Pre-Action

B: Wet Pipe

C: Dry Pipe

D: Deluge

Answer 7

Eng Ops Ch 3 add 4 sec 3.1
Pre-action systems are most often found in computer rooms or where other sensitive electronic equipment is used. A pre-action type of sprinkler system consists of fusible sprinkler heads, dry piping, and a valve which is opened upon an electrical signal from a detector.

Question 8

Question 33:
The correct radio channel to be on when operating as the Lobby Control Unit can be found in which choice?

A:Channel 1

B:Channel 2

C: Channel 14

D: Channel 16

Answer 8

a xplanation:
Channel 1- Tactical
Channel 2- Command
Channel 14- Subway Channel 16- Emergency
ICS ch 2 add 4 sec 4.2

Question 9

Question 39:
The members of Engine 51 were discussing the Iroquois Pipeline in preparation for a Borough Drill and members made the following statements. Which is the only one which was CORRECT?

A: During the drill, partial shut-down of the Natural Gas valve may be permitted.

B: Along the train tracks, flag persons must be positioned at least 600 feet on each side of the incident.

C: The use of fog lines will assist in the dispersal of the gas.

D: The primary consideration of units responding to a pipeline box is the elimination of sources of ignition.

Answer 9

a Explanation:
AUC 150 – IROQUOIS PIPELINE
A IS CORRECT – 8.1
B – At least 1000 feet on each side of the incident 7.3.1
C – The use of fog lines may actually hinder the dissipation of the gas 7.1.2
D – The primary consideration of responding units is the evacuation of the area involved

Question 10

There is a fire in the cellar of an Old Law Tenement type Row Frame and the first alarm units will arrive at the scene. Which of the following regarding line placement by the engine companies is CORRECT for this fire scenario?

A: The first hose line is stretched through the front door and to the top of the cellar stairs unless the fire is minor.

B: If not needed to back up the first hoseline, the second hoseline will be stretched into the cellar via the outside cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.

C: If the first hoseline is used to cover the first floor public hall, and a backup line is not needed, the second line shall proceed to the top floor checking intervening floors for fire.

D: The first hoseline can be advanced to the top floor to cover any extension to that area or the cockloft after the second hoseline is advancing on the cellar fire.

Answer 10

b Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES
B IS CORRECT – 6.2 B3
A – Quoted out of MD’s for cellar fires. Line is advanced into the cellar unless is cannot advance due to the intensity of the fire. 6.2A2
C – Second line advances into the cellar via the exterior cellar entrance 6.2B3
D – After the cellar fire has been CONTROLLED by the second hoseline. 6.2 A2

Question 11

Question 5:
Ladder 171 is an aerial ladder company and they are assigned first due to a fire on the 4th floor of a 6 story 100x100 H type MD with similar exposures on both sides. Which choice is INCORRECTLY listed as one of the primary means for getting to the roof at this fire?

A:First Arriving Aerial Ladder

B: Wing Stairs in the Fire building

C: Isolated Stairs in the Fire building

D: Any stairway in an adjoining building

Answer 11

a

Explanation:
MD ch 1 sec 4.4.3
When conditions indicate roof operations (top floor fire, shaft fire, two floors involved, heavy fire condition, etc.) the aerial may initially be raised to the roof for rapid ascent of the roof and outside vent firefighter. The primary means of getting to the roof would be winged or isolated stairways in the same building or any stairway in an adjoining building, if feasible

Question 12

During company drill, members were discussing water and ice rescue operations. Which comment made during drill was incorrect?

A:Under no circumstances should members be allowed past the line of sight from the shore.

B: The loss of body heat occurs 25 times faster in cold water than in air. Hypothermia begins when the body’s core temperature falls below 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit.

C: Early signs of hypothermia begin at approximately 95 degrees causing the body to uncontrollably shiver, which is the body’s first reaction to the cold.

D: Sudden face contact with cold water (below 70 degrees Fahrenheit) initiates a body reflex known as the Mammalian Diving Reflex (MDR). MDR is more pronounced in young people therefore, they are the best candidates for resuscitation.

Answer 12

a AT NIGHT, members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the shore.
D Note: The colder the water and the younger the victim, the better chance they have of survival. This oxygen conserving mechanism is common to whales, porpoises, and seals and allows these mammals to stay underwater for long periods of time.
EP Water Rescue 1 2.2.4, 3.3.1, 3.3.3, 3.4

Question 13

Question 7:
Choose the most correct 10 code.

A: 10-80 no code- for gas leaking from a stove

B: 10-48- for a police response for a perp apprehension

C: 10-41-3 for an unoccupied structure

D: 10-38-3- for a CO detector activation; CO emergency 1-9 PPM

Answer 13

A When examples are given for codes, please know them. It makes for an easy question.
Gas leaking from stove is the example used for a 10-80 no code.
10-47- for Police Response- Police assistance is needed for crowd or traffic control, security, apprehension
10-48- for Police Response for Firefighters are being harmed and Police assistance is needed immediately
10-41-3- for a Unoccupied Vehicle
10-38-1- defective detector
10-38-2- Incident 1-9 PPM
10-38-3- Emergency >9 PPM
10-38-4- No detector activation, but there is a CO incident or emergency
Communications ch 8

Question 14

Question 13:
Many companies in the job have dogs in quarters. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding this practice?

A: Company dogs are not permitted to leave quarters unless escorted and effectively restrained by a leash or chain not more than 6 feet long.

B: When a company’s dog has bitten a person, the New York City Health Department shall be notified immediately.

C: When a company’s dog has bitten a person, medical attention shall be provided for the person bitten and NYPD shall be notified.

D: When a company’s dog has bitten a person, the Battalion Chief and Deputy Chief on duty shall be notified

Answer 14

C

Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 19
C IS INCORRECT – 19.3.3 – NYPD is not notified.
A – 19.3.3 #2
B – 19.3.3 #6
D – 19.3.3 #6

Question 15

Question 16:
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the Buckeye Pipeline?

A: Valve pits subject to freezing shall be inspected frequently.

B: Division Drills are held annually. Companies are actually required to operate and shut-down the valves during these drills.

C: Pipeline control valves shall be inspected semi-annually during hydrant inspection season.

D: Familiarization drills are conducted quarterly. Companies are not permitted to operate or shut down valves during these drills

Answer 15

Explanation:
AUC 149 – BUCKEYE PIPELINE
C IS CORRECT – 9.1
A – Valve pits subject to flooding shall be inspected during subfreezing weather. 9.2
B – Borough drills are held annually where companies are required to operate and shut-down valves. 10.5.10
D – Familiarization drills are held semi-annually. 10

Question 16

Question 19:
There is a black marker circle around each male coupling called the “creep line”. This is provided by the manufacturer and is inspected to see if the coupling is separating from the hose. This would be indicated by a movement of the line ___” away from the coupling.

A: 1/2

B: 1/4

C:1/8

D: 1/16

Answer 16

C

Question 17

Question 20:
There are a lot of safety concerns related to operations on and around PV panels. Which choice below represents a CORRECT operation at a fire involving these systems?

A: Utilizing disconnects ahead of or after the inverter will eliminate the electric current coming from the PV array.

B: Combiner boxes should not be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shut down the PV array.

C: PV systems can produce electricity at night and lightning flashes occurring at night can energize the PV system.

D: Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array.

Answer 17

B Explanation:
AUC 351 – PHOTOVOLTAIC ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
B IS CORRECT – SECTION 7 5th bullet point.
A - Utilizing disconnects ahead of or after the inverter still does not eliminate the electric current coming from the PV array.
C – PV systems do not produce electricity at night. Section 7 pg 6
D - Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are not powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array

Question 18

Question 24:

Knowledge of private dwelling construction methods may help officers confine and extinguish extending fire. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Although balloon framing is very common in Queen Anne homes, many of the older and larger 2½ - 3 story peaked roof private dwellings are built of balloon frame construction.

B: In balloon frame construction, the 2”x4” exterior wall studs are continuous and extend from the sill (located on the top of the foundation wall), to the top floor ceiling, where they are capped with a top plate.

C: A quick determination as to whether a structure is balloon frame is to remove a baseboard on an exterior wall and check for the presence of a sole plate. If found, treat the building as balloon construction.

D: High heat accompanied by heavy smoke with no visible fire is a sign of fire burning in these hidden spaces. Advanced fire in these voids may cause the ceiling to be blown down on members pulling ceilings on the top floor.

Answer 18

C

Explanation:
A quick determination as to whether a structure is balloon frame is to remove a baseboard on an exterior wall and check for the presence of a sole plate. If NONE IS FOUND, treat the building as balloon construction.
PD Ch 4 3.1

Question 19

In order to collect data on the events that lead to multiple injuries, the Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to a submit a report known as the Multiple member Injury report. This report shall be submitted when?

A: When more than 2 members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical that tour

B: When 3 or more members suffer injuries at different incidents resulting in medical leave that tour

C: During the same incident, 2 members suffer injuries resulting in medical leave that tour, but a 3rd member takes a minor mark (CD-72), and goes on medical leave the next tour

D: When 2 or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical that tour

Answer 19

A Explanation:
More than 2 is the same as 3 or more. Watch wording on test day
Safety Bulletin 7 sec 1.3

Question 20

Question 29:

Vehicle disentanglement and extrication is a dangerous operation that must be conducted carefully. Which of the following is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: Vehicles are stabilized as they are found. Never right a vehicle with a victim inside.

B: One of four tools may be used when removing a windshield; a windshield saw, Beluga auto glass knife, an axe and a sawzall. The sawzall should be considered as a last resort for this procedure.

C: When encountering a vehicle that has side or rear windows that are laminated or rigid plastic, a sawzall may be used to gain access.

D: One method of gaining access to the passenger compartment of a vehicle on its side is to cut an opening in the roof of the vehicle. The air chisel would be the tool of choice for this

Answer 20

Explanation: B
Windshields: One of four tools may be used when removing a windshield; a windshield saw, sawzall, Beluga auto glass knife or an axe. The AXE should be considered as a LAST RESORT for this procedure.
B Note: Before using the windshield saw, make sure that the blade is installed correctly (the teeth facing the handle of the tool).
Emergency Procedures D & E 5.2. 11.3, 11.5

Question 21

Question 30:
Which unit operated incorrectly during a High-Rise Office building fire?

A: The 1st and 2nd arriving Ladder Companies operated on the fire floor

B: The 3rd arriving Ladder Company reported to the floor above the fire via the attack stair

C: The 3rd arriving Ladder Company removed all occupants from the attack stair for a reasonable distance above the fire floor and prevent its use by the occupants

D: The 4th arriving Ladder Company proceeded to the roof area and conducted a primary search of the top 5 floors

Answer 21

B xplanation:
High-Rise Office
A- 8.3 and 8.4
B- Proceed to floor above the fire via a stairway OTHER than the attack stair
C- 8.5.1

Question 22

Question 32:
Each company is issued APR’s (Air Purifying Respirators) for use at incidents where respiratory protection is necessary for extended periods of time. Like our SCBA’s, they require inspection. Which choice CORRECTLY indicates how frequently they must be inspected by our units?

A: Following 0900 and 1800 roll calls and before MUD.

B: Weekly at MUD along with the SCBA

C: At least every 30 days and/or on the first day of each month.

D: Quarterly on the 1st day of January, April, July, October

Answer 22

C Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – SCBA ADDENDUM 2 – APR’S
C IS CORRECT – 5.2 – Inspections must be made at least every 30 days and/or on the first day of each month

Question 23

Question 38:
Ladder 184 has just received its new apparatus and the members are preparing to mark up the new portable ladders. Which statement regarding these markings is CORRECT?

A: The unit designation shall be marked within 12 inches of each butt

B: The ladder lengths of straight ladders shall be marked on each end of each rail.

C: The ladder lengths of extension ladders shall be marked at each end of each rail of the bed ladder.

D: The numerical length of a ladder shall be marked on the side rails within 18 inches of the end of the ladder.

Answer 23

Explanation: C
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – PORTABLE LADDERS
B IS CORRECT – 6.1
A – Unit designation shall be marked WITHIN 18 INCHES of each butt. 6.2
C – Extension ladders shall be marked at the BUTT END ONLY of each rail of the bed ladder. 6.1
D – The numerical length shall be marked on the side rails within 12 INCHES OF THE END of the ladder. 6.1

Question 24

Question 39:
Emergency Mass Decon using water spray can be correctly described in which choice?

A: When using 2 handlines (2 1/2) with the Aquastream fog nozzle, the lines will be opposite each other approximately 25’- 30’ apart

B: When using two pumpers, the pumpers should be positioned parallel to each other approximately 15’ apart

C: If a Tower Ladder is used it shall be equipped with a Aquastream fog nozzle

D: If an Aerial Ladder is used it shall be equipped with a Turbomaster fog nozzle

Answer 24

Explanation: A
B- When using two pumpers, the pumpers should be positioned parallel to each other approximately 25’ apart….50-80 psi
C- Turbomaster fog nozzle for TL
D- Aquastream fog nozzle for Aerial
Haz-Mat ch 7 sec 2.4

Question 25

Question 40:

While conducting a drill on fires in places of worship, one member made an incorrect comment. Indicate the incorrect comment.

A: Tower Ladders should be placed near the front of the structure, in a “corner safe” area outside of the collapse danger zone. Subsequent arriving Tower Ladders should be positioned to reach additional sides of the structure.

B: A steeple atop a bell tower is more unstable than a dome above a tower.

C: When evaluating the collapse potential and establishing collapse zones, the exposure 2 and 4 sides due to the bearing walls and the exposure side of the steeple or bell tower (front of the building) are the most dangerous areas during a fire.

D:The first arriving officer should locate and size-up the fire and determine if the fire can be extinguished by a handline. When it is determined that the fire cannot be controlled with handlines, consider conducting an exterior fire attack, where possible

Answer 25

D he first arriving officer should locate and size-up the fire and determine if the fire can be extinguished by a handline. When it is determined that the fire cannot be controlled with handlines, the initial strategy MUST be an exterior fire attack.
Places of Worship 4.2, 4.7, 5.1.2, 5.2.4, 5.2.5

Question 26

Question 5:
You are the newly promoted officer working in Tower Ladder 171 and you’re assigned as the FAST Truck to a fire in a Cellar of a private dwelling. While at the command post a verbal Mayday is transmitted for the Forcible Entry firefighter from Ladder 188. Which choice shows the CORRECT display the firefighter reading the PAK Tracker should see if 188’s Forcible Entry FF comes up on it?

A: L188-FE

B: L188-FORC

C: L188-IRON

D: L188-IRO

Answer 26

Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – SCBA – PAK TRACKER
D IS CORRECT – Pak Trackers only read a maximum of 8 characters. 15.2 & 15.3

Question 27

Question 11:
Ladder 177 is assigned as the first due truck to a fire on the top floor rear of a four-story brownstone with a rear fire escape. Upon arrival, there is smoke showing from the top floor windows and the members will proceed to their positions. Which members of Ladder 177 operated CORRECTLY?

A:Upon arrival, the LCC set up the aerial and placed it on the roof of the fire building for rapid ascent by the Roof firefighter.

B: The OV surveyed the rear for trapped occupants and then returned to the front of the building to team up with the LCC for top floor VES.

C: The Roof firefighter assisted the LCC in setting up the apparatus and then proceeded to the roof with the saw and halligan hook for roof operations.

D:The Officer proceeded to the seat of the fire. A thorough primary search was started at that point.D

Answer 27

D Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES
D IS CORRECT – 2.6A7
A – For a top floor fire, raise and position the aerial to the roof of THE EXPOSURE for use by the roof firefighter and OV. 2.6D6A Pg 11.
B – The OV will be going to the roof for a top floor fire.
C – The OV brings the saw to the roof for a top floor fire (not the roof FF) 2.6 E3 pg 12

Question 28

Question 13:
Which chemical agent has an odor of Musky Hay?

A: Nerve agent

B: Blister agent

C:Blood agent

D:Choking agent

Answer 28

VDDDDDExplanation:

ERP add 2 p-18
A- Nerve- Fruity
B- Blister- Garlic
C- Blood- Burnt almonds
D- Choking- Musky hay

Question 29

V

Question 14:
Class 2 Multiple Dwellings may have fire escapes that affect operations. Which factor is INCORRECT to consider prior to using the fire escape on these buildings?

A: Height of the Building

B: Presence of a known life hazard.

C: Weather Conditions.

D: Fire Conditions

Answer 29

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS – CLASS 2
A IS INCORRECT – Height of the FIRE FLOOR 8.5.4

Question 30

Question 21:
When the FAST Unit arrives at the location of the distressed member, the FAST Unit Officer must ensure certain procedures are followed. Chose the incorrect procedure.

A: The transmitting member of the FAST Unit shall depress the EAB on their HT

B: FAST Unit Officer to assess the Fire, Air supply, Immediate medical care, and removal

C: If possible, depress the distressed member’s EAB

D: Once the distressed member’s EAB is activated and recorded on EFAS, it shall be quickly turned off to avoid confusion

Answer 30

D

Explanation:
MMID ch 2 sec 7.6
A-
B-
C-
D- The distressed member’s EA shall remain activated until it is determined it is longer required .

Question 31

Your unit arrives at a fully involved Vacant Rowframe, located in the middle of a row of occupied frames. Which hose line placement decision would not be in accordance with Department policy?

A: The first to arrive engine company should drop two hoselines: one a 3 ½” line to supply a TL, and a hoseline to enter the fire building.

B: The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure.

C: The third hoseline is stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure, depending on where the second hoseline was stretched.

D: The fourth hoseline is stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.

Answer 31

Explanation:A
The first to arrive engine company should drop two hoselines: one a 3 ½” line to supply a TL, and a hoseline to enter the MOST SEVERE EXPOSURE.
FYI….Occupied exposures should be given the first consideration and all operations should be in that direction. A heavy fire requires the use of one or more tower ladders…..hoselines should be laid by engine companies with this in mind.
RF 6.7 A

Question 32

Question 34:
Generally, it is preferred to await the arrival of Con Edison without placing water or FireIce into a manhole, vault or service box. However, if size up dictates, water or FireIce may be operated into these underground structures prior to the arrival of Con Edison by order of an on scene FD Chief Officer (BC/ABC or higher in rank). When operating water into a manhole, vault or service box, be guided by all the following except _____________.

A:It is most effective if the cover is of the solid type or the cover is already removed by explosion or by Con-Ed.

B: Maintain a distance of at least 25 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box.

C: Use a fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard.

D: Adjoining manholes & service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel before starting water.

Answer 32

A

Explanation:
AUC 180 sec 4.6, 4.7
It is most effective if the cover is of the vented type or the cover is already removed by explosion or by Con-Ed.

Question 33

Question 35:

The senior Lieutenant of Ladder 100 was training her members on utilizing a halligan and 6’ halligan hook to assist climbing onto a high bulkhead when alone on a roof. Which of the following choices would be incorrect to point out during this drill?

A: The Halligan is placed with the fork end down and the adz end up.

B: Using the 6’ hook to support most of your weight, step on the adz end of the Halligan and pull yourself up.

C: While climbing the hook, exert a downward pressure and push against the wall with your feet.

D: The intent is to enable the roof firefighter to reach the top of the bulkhead with both hands. Once this is achieved, they should be able to work themselves up onto the bulkhead.

Answer 33

Explanation:
While climbing the hook, exert a downward pressure and DO NOT PUSH against the wall with your feet.
FYI… NEVER attempt to climb onto or off a bulkhead or similar type structure at a spot near or next to an open shaft or near a building wall that faces on a shaft, areaway, courtyard or street.
Lad 3 5.3.3 A

Question 34

You are the ladder officer in Ladder 88 and are first due aerial to a fire in a New Law Tenement building in the middle of a row of similar attached New Law Tenements. As you come down the street to the building on your right, there is nothing showing, but the first arriving engine has already transmitted a 1075 for heavy fire on the fourth floor in the rear. Your company chauffeur takes the following actions upon arrival. Which was CORRECT?

A: The Chauffeur positioned the turntable in the center of the building because no people are showing.

B: The Chauffeur readied the truck for raising the aerial setting the brakes, stabilizers and chocks.

C: The Chauffeur placed the center of the turntable approximately 15’ from the side wall passed on the approach into the block.

D: The Chauffeur positioned the ladder for maximum coverage.

Answer 34

C Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – AERIAL LADDERS – LADDERS 2
C IS CORRECT – New law tenements are described in MD’s as 35-50’ wide making this a large frontage building 3.5 & 3.5.1 If NO CONDITION exists in front of building (large frontage is over 30’), requiring a definite position, place the center of the turntable approximately 15’ from the side wall passed on your approach, as shown in Fig. 5A. ALSO MD’S 2.2
A – Narrow frontage building with no condition 3.4.1
B – When taking this position, do not set up the truck for aerial ladder operations unless the fire is at the end of the building you have approached, and the far end seems relatively safe 3.5.2
D – If there is a condition requiring possible aerial ladder operations or possible use of the ladder pipe, then position the ladder for maximum coverage. 3.5.3

Question 35

While preparing for house inspection, the members of Ladder 188 were discussing portable ladder maintenance. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding proper maintenance?

A: All portable ladders require a visual inspection daily and after use to determine their condition and serviceability.

B: Nicks or burrs are ladder defects that require placing the portable ladder out of service.

C: Company Commanders shall cause a thorough inspection of portable ladders quarterly.

D: On all ladders, plain candle wax or paraffin shall be applied every three mo nths to all contacting surfaces of multiple section ladders to ensure smooth operation.

Answer 35

D Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – PORTABLE LADDERS
D IS CORRECT – 13.3 3rd Bullet Point
A – Portable ladders require visual inspection WEEKLY 13.2
B – Nicks or burrs that are found on the ladder shall be removed with a fine file in order to prevent injury, 13.2
C – Company Commanders shall cause a thorough inspection of portable ladders MONTHLY 13.2

Question 36

Question 38:

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding private dwellings of lightweight construction?

A:Unless the fire is minor, or confined to a small area, the primary emphasis for a fire in any building of lightweight construction is that of an exterior attack. Exterior streams should be positioned and operated from safe areas outside the collapse zone.

B: The presence of smoke pushing at the floor line on the outside of a private dwelling of lightweight construction may be an indication of a fire in a trussloft. When this warning sign is evident, it is an indication that the probability of collapse is significantly increased.

C: During overhaul, only the minimum number of firefighters necessary to complete the task should be used. Any floor or roof support system that has been heavily damaged due to fire should be hydraulically overhauled from a safe area using the reach of the hose stream.

D:When lightweight components are exposed to fire or high heat, the IC shall be immediately notified. It may be necessary to remove members or suspend interior operations until further assessment of structural stability and collapse potential can be made.

Answer 36

A Explanation:
Unless the fire is minor, or confined to a small area, the primary emphasis for a fire in a lightweight building UNDER CONSTRUCTION is that of an exterior attack. Exterior streams should be positioned and operated from safe areas outside the collapse zone.
C Note: Members should not operate directly above or below the structurally damaged area, including the entire length of the joist.
PD Ch 6 1.10, 4.1.7, 4.1.12, 4.1.13

Question 37

Question 11:
All of the following are considered a “modified response” except?

A: Sprinkler activation

B:Electrical emergency

C: Class E

D:Tree down on vehicle

Answer 37

Explanation:
Tree down (no wires, buildings or vehicles affected) is a modified response
Also: ERS no contact (2300 to 0800 hours) is a modified response
Code for Group 1 call type (modified response)
WELTS:
W- Water leaks
E- ERS no contact (2300 to 0800 hours)
L- Lock-ins (no reported food on the stove or other associated emergency)
T- Tree down (no wires, buildings or vehicles affected)
S- Salvage truck
Communications ch 6 add 1 sec 2

Question 38

Question 16:
You are the officer on duty in Ladder 171 and you are assigned first due to a fire in a large factory where you will be deploying the search rope. Which factor is whether to allow members to conduct searches off of the rope is INCORRECT?

A: Ability to stay within voice and visual contact.

B: Heat and smoke conditions.

C: Experience level of the search team.

D:T he size and configuration of the area to be searched.

Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – SEARCH ROPE
A IS INCORRECT – Ability to stay within VOICE CONTACT ONLY. 6.3

Answer 38

A IS INCORRECT – Ability to stay within VOICE CONTACT ONLY. 6.3

Question 39

Question 17:
The incorrect Engine operation for Taxpayer fires can be found in which choice?

A:For cellar, store, and cockloft fires, the 2nd arriving engine is to ensure the sprinkler system is supplied if equipped

B: A hoseline may be required on the roof to protect personnel and exposures once the roof is opened.

C: On older type taxpayers, there may be vents or store signs attached to the front of the building that cover openings into the cockloft. Streams can be operated into these openings to extinguish fire.

D: Fire may extend via concealed spaces, ducts, and hanging ceilings, making fire extension possible to the cockloft and/or adjoining occupancies.

Answer 39

A Explanation:
Taxpayers sec 7.1.7
A- 3rd arriving Engine. Supplying a sprinkler system is to be given a high priority after the establishment of the initial line. This is especially important at cellar fires in taxpayers. It is the responsibility of the 3rd arriving engine company to ensure a supply line is stretched and connected to the FDC when the fire area or potential fire area is protected by a sprinkler system and operate as per Engine Company Operations, Chapter 4.
B- sec 7.3.2 F
C- sec 7.3.2 H
D- sec 7.3.2 D

Question 40

Question 19:
The engine companies in Battalion 99 will arrive at a fully involved, vacant four-story Rowframe in the middle of a row of vacant frames and take the following actions. Which of the line placement decisions was CORRECT?

A: The 1st to arrive engine stretched a 3½” line to supply a tower ladder, and stretched a handline for entry into the fire building.

B: The 1st handline was initially stretched into the most severe exposure.

C: The 2nd handline was not needed to back up the first handline and was stretched into the most severe exposure.

D: The 2nd handline was not needed to back up the first and was stretched through an exposure to the rear yard.

Answer 40

D Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES
D IS CORRECT – 6.7 B3
A – First hoseline initially operates from the exterior until the tower ladder, multiversal, or heavy caliber stream can be placed into operation. The hoseline is then stretched into the most severe exposure. 6.7 B3
B – SEE A
C – If not needed to back up the first hoseline, the second hoseline is stretched to the opposite exposure or through an exposure to the rear yard.

Question 41

Question 22:
Engine and Ladder companies have a number of responsibilities to carry out upon arrival at a fire in a HRFPMD. Which contact made to command by members was CORRECT according to assignments & department procedures for fires in these structures?

A: The 2nd Arriving Ladder Company officer contacts command to confirm the evacuation stair door was being maintained in the closed position.

B: Depending on the situation, the hoseline supplying the HRN may have to be str etched from an outlet two or three floors below the fire floor.

C: It is the responsibility of the 4th due engine to bring the HRN to the Incident Command Post.

D: The 2nd arriving ECC contacts command to relay information gathered from calls received from building occupants.

Answer 41

B Explanation:
MULTIPLE DWELLINGS Ch 2 sec 9.3.2, 11.2.12, Eng Ops ch 8 add 3 sec 2.2, 5.7Next
A. The 3rd ladder company officer shall confirm the evacuation stairway door(s) have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in a closed position.
B. Eng Ops ch 8 add 3 sec 5.7
C. 5th Due Engine responsibility.
D. Utilize 3rd or 4th ECC to assist in receiving and/or recording the information of calls from occupants on floors above, or as otherwise deemed necessary

Question 42

Question 23:
You just finished conducting a drill on “Ventilation for Extinguishment” for non-fire proof multiple dwellings while covering in L100. You were incorrect in which point?

A: Ventilation for Extinguishment must coincide when the Engine Company has advanced into the fire apartment

B: The member on the exterior waiting to perform horizontal Ventilation for Extinguishment of the immediate fire area shall listen for certain radio transmissions from the Engine Officer such as “start water” or “we have water on the fire.” FF on exterior stills needs to communicate and coordinate with the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented

C: Ventilation for Extinguishment tactic only applies to the window(s) in the immediate fire area and only for the member venting the immediate fire area

D: Any additional horizontal ventilation tactics must be communicated with and coordinated by the Ladder Company Officer operating in that area prior to performing such ventilation

Answer 42

A

Explanation:
Firefighting procedures Ventilation sec 11
A- Ventilation for Extinguishment must coincide WITH THE APPLICATION OF WATER ON THE SEAT OF THE FIRE
B- sec 11.4
C- sec 11.4
D- sec 11.4
This section was revised 1/30/2020

Question 43

Question 27:
Prior to the start of the tour, the members of Ladder Company 88 were discussing the Fast Pak. Which of the following about the FAST Pak is INCORRECT?

A: The FAST Pak must be inspected at the beginning of each tour, immediately before the start of Multi Unit Drill, and after each use.

B: A Mask Record Card shall be filled out and maintained for each FAST Pak assigned to a unit.

C: If a malfunction is noted, Notify the Battalion and request the Battalion spare FAST Pak as a replacement.

D: The company shall forward OOS FAST Pak’s to MSU via the Division messenger.

Answer 43

Explanation: A
TRAINING BULLETINS – SCBA ADDENDUM 1 – FAST PAK
A IS INCORRECT – Not inspected prior to the start of MUD. 9.10
B – 9.11
C – 9.12.2
D – 9.12.3

Question 44

Question 30:
The Lobby Control Unit (LCU) responds to signals 10-76 and 10-77 Mega High-Rise. The LCU is responsible for operation and control of elevators. When operating inside of the elevator, all of the following equipment should be carried with you except?

A: 1 set of forcible entry tools

B: Spare Cylinder

C: Elevator keys

D:Utility Rope

Answer 44

D

Explanation:
Search rope
Equipment to be carried inside every elevator car:
*HT
*1 set of FE tools
*Spare cylinder
*Elevator keys
*Search rope
*Elevator control sheet
*Clipboard
ICS ch 2 add 4 sec 5.1
*****Mega High-Rise- any building over 800 feet…Communications ch 4 sec 4.3.1

Question 45

Question 38:
The members of Engine 244 were discussing one of the Con Edison Transmission and Distribution Substations in their response area and several members chimed in with safe stand-off distances for voltages of 15,000V to 38,000V. According to the bulletin, which safe distance is CORRECT?

A: 25 Feet

B:18 Feet

C:10 Feet

D: 8 Feet

Answer 45

C

Explanation:
AUC 338 ADDENDUM 2 – TRANSMISSION AND DISTRIBUTION SUBSTATIONS
C IS CORRECT – 10 Feet -Table 3 bottom page 2
Choice B – 18 Feet is the safe distance for 345,000 Volts

Question 46

Engine 244 and Ladder 177 are cleaning up from a minor fire in a bodega after business hours. Units cut the locks to the roll down gate and a pane of a skylight was taken to relieve the smoke condition. Following the operation, the premises was secured by a lock supplied by the Battalion. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding this procedure?

A: The padlock used to secure the premises must be issued to the administrative company for placement.

B: The issued key shall be kept in a secure place in the company office.

C: Upon removing the lock securing the premises, PD must be summoned to verify the identity of the person desiring entry.

D: This policy would not apply to this situation.

Answer 46

AUC 231 – SAFEGUARDING PROPERTY
D IS CORRECT – 2.6 – There must be no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises. (There was a pane of the skylight taken in the body of the question)
A – Administrative company not required to secure a premise. BC will issue a padlock and key to a company at the scene and direct company to secure premises. 3.2
B – The key shall be kept in a secure place on the APPARATUS 4.2.2
C – The officer shall secure positive identification of the person desiring entry, have the appropriate receipt signed and have the padlock removed. If there is any doubt, the PD is to be summoned. 4.4,4.5

Question 47

Question 6:
Battalion 59 visited the quarters of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 and during his visit suspected that members of both companies were consuming alcohol while on duty. The senior truck Captain working was designated the investigating officer by the BC. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding the responsibilities of the investigating officer?

A:Conduct a Roll Call.

B: Advise all members whom the investigating officer reasonably believes may be subject to charges of their right to representation before being questioned.

C: Conduct an investigation to ascertain which members may have engaged in prohibited conduct under the policy.

D:If the officer orders testing, the reasons shall be documented in a report to the Chief of Operations via the chain of command.

Answer 47

D D IS INCORRECT – Report is to the Chief of Department 5.7#4

Question 48

Question 8:
You are the Lt. on duty in Engine 99 and at the beginning of the tour, you are advised via voice alarm message that Phase I of a water pressure alert is in effect. Which choice CORRECTLY describes the procedure to be followed after receiving this notification?

A: The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every 3 hours beginning at 1000 hours and ending at 2200 hours and recorded in the company journal.

B: The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters twice daily at 1000 hrs and 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal.

C: The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every two hours beginning at 1000 hrs and ending at 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal.

D: The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every hour beginning at 1000 hrs and ending at 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal.

Answer 48

D

Explanation:
AUC 205 – HYDRANT INSPECTION -
D IS CORRECT – 7.1 – This is done during phase 1 & 2 and recorded in the company journal.
Choice A – This is the annual pressure reading report taken during the month of May.

Question 49

Question 17:
The members of Ladder 88 have just finished up roll call and are discussing with the officer the new Class 2 bulletin and some of the assignments during FPMD fires. Which choice below is INCORRECT regarding position assignments during an upper floor fire?

A: If the 1st ladder officer believes roof access is feasible, a member of the forcible entry team can be assigned along with the roof firefighter for roof operations.

B: If elevator operations are not required, the 1st OV shall report to their officer for assignment which may include locating the secondary entrance to the fire apartment and/or additional stairways serving the fire floor.

C: If outside operations are not feasible or required, the first LCC may be assigned to duties including teaming up with the inside team to assist with the search of the fire apartment.

D: The outside vent should anticipate elevators being equipped with fire service.

Answer 49

D Explanation:
MD Ch 4 page 20, 21
A. Whether or not the stairway is an IDLH, two members must be assigned to vent the roof (1st roof and a member of FE team or 2nd roof)
D The outside vent should anticipate elevators NOT being equipped with fire service. Service elevators may need to be operated in manual mode

Question 50

Question 18:

Members must be familiar with proper infectious disease control when on CFRD responses. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: Members overexposed to bleach shall be moved to fresh air. In case of contact, immediately flush skin or eyes with running water for at least 15 minutes.

B: A “non-casual” exposure is contact but without eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact (by injection) with blood or other potentially infectious materials.

C: Infectious waste shall be placed into red Biohazard bags. CFR-D Companies shall give these red bags to FDNY EMS Command personnel at the scene of Department operations. If FDNY EMS Command is not present, the red bagged items shall be returned to quarters and placed in an infectious waste container located in a light traffic area (remote) on the apparatus floor.

D: In storing packaged waste (red bagged), care must be taken to place it in a designated area away from general traffic flow and accessible only to authorized members. Waste may not be stored for more than 30 days.

Answer 50

B Explanation:
A “CASUAL” exposure is contact but without eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact (by injection) with blood or other potentially infectious materials. A “NON-CASUAL” at-risk exposure is eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact (by injection) with blood or other potentially infectious materials.

Question 51

Question 25:
All fire apparatus when responding to or returning from alarms must stop for school buses under certain conditions. Choose the incorrect condition.

A: When the bus is stopped with its lights flashing or is showing a visual signal indicating stop

B: When children are only being discharged from the bus

C: When approaching the stopped bus from any direction

D: Fire apparatus shall remained stopped until the bus resumes motion or the bus driver or police officer signals you to proceed

Answer 51

B

Explanation:
When children are being loaded OR discharged from the bus
Safety Bulletin 2 ch 2 reference #1 (last page)

Question 52

Question 26:
Children under ________ years of age shall not be permitted to enter quarters without a parent or guardian, unless granted permission by the Officer on Duty.

A:18

B: 16

C: 15

D: 14

Answer 52

A

Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 20 sec 20.3.10
*We know technically all choices are correct since they’re all under 18, but this is a change and we wanted to bring it to your attention.

Question 53

Question 29:
Separate from the SCBA bulletin in the SCBA policy. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the provisions of this policy?

A: The wearing/use of SCBA’s within the fire area may be dispensed with only when authorized by the Company Officer.

B: SCBA’s are required to be worn/used at operations other than structural including any incident where there is a possibility of exposure to toxic substances.

C: When it is necessary for the officer to leave the IDLH to service their SCBA, they shall notify the Incident Commander or next level of command within the sector and request relief for their unit.

D: If it is not possible to remove a member or civilian from the contaminated atmosphere it is permissible to utilize the Fast Unit’s Fast Pak.

Answer 53

B Explanation:
AUC 220 – SCBA POLICY
B IS CORRECT – 3.1 C
A – When authorized by the Incident Commander 1.3
C – Officer must be accompanied to a safe area by another member using an SCBA. The officer must ensure that temporary supervision is provided for the remaining members. 2.6
D – For trapped members, utilize THE NEAREST FAST PAK. For Civilians, Utilize a FAST Pak OTHER THAN the one assigned to the FAST Unit. 2.8 A & B.

Question 54

Question 33:
When supplied with a nozzle pressure of 40 psi, the 2 1⁄2” hoseline will provide a flowrate of 235 GPM and a nozzle reaction of 78 lbs. This is the force felt by the nozzle firefighter. If this flowrate proves inadequate, the engine officer can request an additional ___ psi be supplied to the 2 1⁄2” hoseline.

A: 20

B: 15

C:10

D: 5

Answer 54

C

Question 55

Question 6:
Prior to the start of the tour, the officer and members of Ladder Company 88 were discussing the Fast Pak. Which of the following about the FAST Pak is INCORRECT?

A: The FAST Pak must be inspected at the beginning of each tour, immediately before the start of Multi Unit Drill, and after each use.

B: A Mask Record Card shall be filled out and maintained for each FAST Pak assigned to a unit.

C: If a malfunction is noted, Notify the Battalion and request the Battalion spare FAST Pak as a replacement.

D: The company shall forward OOS FAST Pak’s to MSU via the Division messenger.

Answer 55

Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – SCBA ADDENDUM 1 – FAST PAK
A IS INCORRECT – Not inspected prior to the start of MUD. 9.10
B – 9.11
C – 9.12.2
D – 9.12.3

A

Question 56

If all of the following are present at a fire operation in a high rise office building, the Communications Unit would be most correct to report to?

A: The Resource Unit Leader

B: The Communications Unit Leader

C: The Incident Commander

D: The Safety Chief

Answer 56

B

Explanation:
The Communications Unit will report to the Communications Unit Leader (COML), if staffed. If the COML is not staffed, or has not arrived, they will report to the Resources Unit Leader (RESL). If neither the COML nor the RESL is on scene, they will report to the Incident Commander (IC). The officer of the Communications Unit will not be designated as the COML.
ICS Ch 2 Add 3 3.2

Question 57

Question 19:

Upon review of a recent CFR response, your unit came under fire for which incorrect action taken?

A: The ECC positioned the apparatus, leaving free space immediately in front of the patient’s address for ambulance parking.

B: A PCR was completed since the unit was on-scene (10-84) and provided patient care. The Officer had the ECC transmit signal 10-99 as she anticipated being on scene for at least 35 minutes.

C: As the Officer determined that the patient’s condition was “potentially unstable,” she asked the dispatcher for an ETA of the responding ambulance and advised the dispatcher to relay the seriousness of the patient’s condition to the responding EMS Unit.

D: As the patient’s condition worsened and became “critical,” packaging efforts began immediately while treating life threats.

Answer 57

C

Explanation:
C) As the Officer determined that the patient’s condition was “UNSTABLE,” she asked the dispatcher for an ETA of the responding ambulance and advised the dispatcher to relay the seriousness of the patient’s condition to the responding EMS Unit.
Both C and D apply for UNSTABLE or CRITICAL patients.
CFR Ch 2 3.9.3, 3.9.6, 3.10.1, 3.12, 3.19

Question 58

Question 28:
Wrap-around stairways require __ turns to be made for each floor. In addition to being obstacles themselves, the added turns demand more hose per floor. Instead of a single length per floor, a more accurate estimate would be 1 1⁄2 lengths per floor for a wrap-around stretch.

A: 5

B: 4

C: 3

D: 2

Answer 58

B

Question 59

Question 33:
Ladder 199 is an aerial ladder company that’s first due for heavy fire venting from the second floor of a four story OLT type rowframe. Upon arrival, the chauffeur made several decisions based on conditions. Which of the choices was CORRECT?

A: The LCC initially positioned the aerial ladder to the top floor for VEIS.

B: The LCC waited for the roof size up prior to repositioning the aerial ladder to the fire floor for VEIS when teamed up with the 2nd arriving LCC.

C: The LCC teamed up with the OV prior to providing VEIS of the fire apartment via portable ladder in the front.

D: The LCC repositioned the aerial to the floors above after VEIS of the fire apartment was complete

Answer 59

Explanation:D
BROWNSTONES AND ROWFRAMES
D IS CORRECT - 5.7 pg 36 #6
A – 5.7 pg 36 #3 – Raise aerial for roof access by roof firefighter.
B – 5.7 PG 36 #5 – When fire is on the 1st or 2nd floor, VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using portable ladders when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).
C – 5.7 pg 36 #5 – 2nd arriving LCC. The OV operates in the rear performing outside vent of floors within reach.

Question 60

When encountering an occupied, stalled suspended scaffold with workers on it, you would be correct to have your members take each of the following actions except?

A: If a wire rope hoist is jammed within the unit, never allow workers to attempt to continue to operate the hoist.

B: If a scaffold is in reach of a tower/aerial ladder, this may be used to effect removal. Window removal/glass cutting to retrieve stranded workers shall be performed by a Rescue or Squad company.

C: If an electric hoist motor overheated due to an overloaded scaffold and a reset button is present, immediately have a worker push the reset button on the hoist.

D: If workers must be hauled in through an open window and they need to disconnect from their safety line to enter, a life saving rope or high angle rope secured to a substantial object or high angle rope system must be attached to the worker’s harness before disconnecting them from their rope.

Answer 60

Explanation:
C) If an electric hoist motor overheated due to an overloaded scaffold and a reset button is present, ALLOW IT TO COOL FOR AT LEAST 15 MINUTES, then have a worker push the reset button on the hoist.
A Note: If they operate the hoist, it can sever the wire rope and cause the end of the scaffold to fall.
EP Scaffold 5.3, 5.4

Question 61

Which overhaul technique is incorrectly portrayed below?

A: Making a hole high in a sidewall or partition of lath and plaster requires a sharp blow with the hook. After penetration with the hook, the tool is used to pull down or pry out, if leverage is possible.

B: To make a hole low in a side wall or partition, the hook is held like a javelin before penetrating the wall. After an opening has been made, the hook is then pushed down behind the lath and the lath is removed by pulling the handle, opening the wall to the floor or baseboard.

C: When prying with a hook lodged low in a side wall or partition, excessive strain may be required to adequately make the required opening.

D: Use the handle of the hook, or the point, to make small probing holes to check for extension or to allow water to flow out, as opposed to pulling.

Answer 61

CC

Explanation:
C) When prying with a hook lodged low in a side wall or partition, excessive strain which may break the wooden handle MUST BE AVOIDED.
Lad 3 7.4.1

Question 62

Question 7:
Isolated stairs are stairways that access only a small number of apartments and are isolated from other areas of the building. Which is incorrect regarding these stairs?

A: There is typically no hallway associated with isolated stairs.

B: This landing area can be small and may present difficulty in flaking out hose.

C: When faced with isolated stairs, care must be taken to ensure the correct stairway is used to access the fire apartment.

D: Isolated stairs are found in newer type structures.

Answer 62

D xplanation:
Isolated stairs can be found in a number of building types, including new law tenements, apartment houses, and other newly constructed multiple dwellings.
Eng Ops Ch 7 sec 2.10

Question 63

Question 9:

While drilling on collapse operations, one member asks about the Con Ed Vacuum Truck. Of the following statements made, which was incorrect?

A: The truck has the ability to remove large amounts of material in a short time but does have limitations as to the size of the material it can remove; primarily due to the size of the hose used at the operation.

B: Access lanes must be established at the incident to facilitate easy response and positioning of the vacuum truck.

C: Con Edison employees shall operate the vacuum truck if the work area is safe.

D: Con Edison employees shall operate the suction hose at the extrication site if the work area is safe.

Answer 63

D Explanation:
D) FDNY MEMBERS will operate the suction hose at the extrication site.
B Note: Material that does clog the hose can be easily removed and operations can be resumed.
C Note: An FDNY HT equipped member shall be positioned with the Con Edison employee at all times. Also, SOC members have been trained to operate this equipment if the work area is determined to be hazardous for Con Edison Employees.
Collapse Add 4 2D

Question 64

Question 11:

Initial unit actions at Under River Rail operations are correctly portrayed below in all choices except?

A: Initial efforts should focus on assisting self-evacuating passengers. If passengers are self evacuating, request power-off on all tracks that serve the nearest station.

B: Units assigned to stations should check nearby tunnels for victims.

C: Units assigned to emergency exits should consult the Emergency Exit Guide Book or Operational Guide to verify that operations are being conducted at the correct emergency exit.

D: When opening an emergency exit, inform the dispatcher which emergency exit you opened.

Answer 64

A

Explanation:
A) Initial efforts should focus on assisting self-evacuating passengers. If passengers are self evacuating, request power-off ON THE AFFECTED TRACK(S).
URR 3.3

Question 65

Question 23:
Units conducting searches, upon discovery of a known or potential victim, shall use the victim marking system to denote their location. The most correct denotation when using the victim marking system can be found in which choice?

A: A large “V” approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a know or potential victim. An arrow may need to be added next to the “V” pointing towards the victim’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby

B: A circle is painted around the “V” when the location of a potential victim has been confirmed, either visually, vocally, or by hearing sounds that would indicate a high probability of a victim. The circle around the “V” is approximately 18” in height using lime green colored reflective spray paint

C: A circle is painted around the “V” and a horizontal line painted through the middle of the “V” for when the victim has been removed from location

D: A circle is painted around the “V” and a horizontal line painted through the middle of the “V” and a vertical line painted through the confirmed victim mark for a victim that is deceased and still at the original location where found

Answer 65

Explanation: A
Collapse add 2 sec 5
B- The circle around the “V” is approximately 2’ in height using LIME-YELLOW colored reflective spray paint
C- A circle is painted around the “V” and a horizontal line painted through the middle of the “V” for when the victim has been confirmed deceased
D- A circle is painted around the “V” and a horizontal line painted through the middle of the “V” and a vertical line painted through the confirmed victim mark for a victim that has been confirmed deceased and has been removed from location

Question 66

Question 26:
Marquees are hollow boxes which can fill up with run-off water at a fire operation due to use of heavy streams. A 12’ x 24’ marquee, 4’ deep, when filled would contain approximately __ tons of water.

A: 12

B: 18

C: 25

D :35

Answer 66

D

Question 67

Question 27:
The only correct reference made in regards to the Drag Rescue Device (DRD) and Nylon Tubular Webbing can be found in which choice?

A:Nylon Tubular Webbing shall only be used for dragging victims. Under no circumstances shall Nylon Tubular Webbing be used for vertical lifts

B: DRD can be used to assist in the vertical removal of an non-ambulatory injured or unconscious member

C: DRD can be used to assist in the horizontal removal of an ambulatory injured member

D:Nylon Tubular Webbing shall inspected semi-annually

Answer 67

A Explanation:
A-MMID ch 3 add 3 sec 3.4 1.1
B- Horizontal drag only….MMID ch 3 add 2 sec 2.1
C- The DRD is designed to assist in the horizontal removal of a non-ambulatory injured or unconscious member…MMID ch 3 add 2 sec
D- Inspected Monthly……MMID ch 3 add 3 sec 6.2

Question 68

Question 29:
Over the years there have been many situations during which members of the FDNY & NYPD have had disagreements over jurisdictional issues. Below is a list of situations that test your knowledge of Core Competencies. Which one CORRECTLY reflects the primary agency according to the single command matrix?

A: NYPD ESU arrives prior to FD units to a person who fell and is impaled on a fence. As first to arrive, NYPD assumed single command as the primary agency.

B: FD marine units arrive prior to NYPD Harbor to a Boat in Distress out in open water. As first to arrive, FD assumed single command as the primary agency

C: FD units arrive prior to NYPD to a person that fell through the ice in the park. As first to arrive, FD units assumed single command as the primary agency.

D: NYPD units arrive prior to FD units at a person down in a manhole. As first to arrive, NYPD assumed single command as the primary agency.

Answer 68

B Explanation:
AUC 276 – ADDENDUM 1 – PRIMARY AGENCY MATRIX
B IS CORRECT – Boat in Distress responses are NYPD/FDNY (First to arrive)
A – FDNY is the primary agency for Entrapment/impalement responses 1.2 Table 2
C – NYPD is the primary agency for Water/Ice rescue. 1.2 Table 2
D – FDNY is the primary agency for Confined Space Rescue. 1.2 Table 2

Question 69

Question 30:
Engine 256, a single engine arrives at a major gas leak in a multiple dwelling prior to any other unit. Which action taken by the engine company officer was CORRECT?

A: Observing no odor in the street, the engine officer turned on his gas meter & FDNY issued flashlight upon detecting an odor in the lobby.

B: Once the odor was discovered in the lobby, the officer proceeded to 3B, the apartment of the caller.

C: Once it was determined the leak was from a construction site next door, the officer had the members position themselves outside the potential blast zone and stretch a 1¾ handline for a defensive position.

D: A fog stream was stretched to protect a worker plugging a natural gas pipe. The same line was used to dissipate the leaking gas in the street.

Answer 69

Explanation:
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – NATURAL GAS
B IS CORRECT 6.5 PG 20
A – Activate gas meter before entering the building 6.5 PG20
C - 2½ hose & larger streams 9.2.1
D – Fog streams should not be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside of the structure; let the gas vent naturally. 9.2.1

B

Question 70

Question 32:
Which choice is CORRECT regarding drills and emergency operations at the Iroquois and Buckeye Pipelines?

A: During Buckeye Pipeline Division and Borough Drills, members will be permitted to operate and close valves.

B:During Iroquois Pipeline drills, members may be permitted to partially close valves after consultation with pipeline personnel.

C: Under no circumstances during Iroquois Pipeline emergency operations shall valves be opened or closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in consultation with Con Edison/Iroquois personnel.

D: Under no circumstances during Buckeye Pipeline emergency operations are valves to be closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in consultation with Buckeye Pipeline personnel.

Answer 70

Explanation:
CROSS REFERENCE – AUC’S 149 & 150 – BUCKEYE & IROQUOIS PIPELINES
B IS CORRECT – 8.1 Note
A – The Borough Drills are the only drills where members will actual close the valves. AUC 149 10.5.10
C – Except in an immediate threat to life and property, no valves should be opened or closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in consultation with Con Edison/Iroquois personnel. AUC 150 4.5
D – Isolation of the pipeline is vital to control the amount of fuel lost. Isolation duties are carried out by manually shutting down valves. Valves should always be closed as per duties outlined in the response card manual, except when a unit is required to protect life in a serious life-threatening situation. AUC 149 6.2

Question 71

Question 33:
After returning to quarters from a first due all hands fire, the irons firefighter walks into your office to question you regarding the status of his PSS. Which of the following statements you made regarding placing a PSS out of service when the unit doesn’t have their company spare is CORRECT?

A:Over time, discoloration on the rope from dye inside the bag will affect the serviceability of the PSS.

B:Advise the Irons FF he will continue to respond with the company but will not be counted towards the unit’s staffing.

C: Contact the Administrative Battalion to request one of their spare PSS systems.

D: Pending replacement, advise the Irons FF he cannot operate at any incident that requires members to operate inside a structure.

Answer 71

B Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – ROPE 4 – PSS
B IS CORRECT – 6.15 When the firefighter is not equipped with a PSS and a response is received before a replacement is obtained, they will respond with their unit. However, that member shall not be counted towards that unit’s staffing as it relates to the provisions of AUC 287, section 8 (reduced staffed/understaffed unit)
A - The discoloration of the rope due to the dye does not affect the load bearing capacities of the rope. 5.4.3
C – Contact the Administrative Division 6.1
D – Any incident that requires the member to operate in an IDLH area. 6.15

Question 72

The members of Engine 269 are out conducting building inspections and come across a building with a sign that represents an Artist In Residence inside a multiple dwelling. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding this sign?

A:The sign should measure 8x8 with 2” black lettering on a white background.

B:The sign should be posted 7’ above sidewalk level.

C: 4F posted on the sign indicates the Artist resides in apartment 4F

D: The signs must be posted on the wall outside of every entrance to the building.

Answer 72

Explanation:
AUC 5 – CHAPTER 2 - ADDENDUM 1 – PG1
B IS CORRECT. 7’ above Street Level.
A – Sign must be of metal eight inches by ten.
C – 4F represents 4th Floor – not apartment 4F.
D – The sign must be posted as close as possible to the MAIN ENTRANCE on front wall outside of building.

Question 73

Question 39:
There is a black marker circle around each male coupling called the “creep line”. This is provided by the manufacturer and is inspected to see if the coupling is separating from the hose. This would be indicated by a movement of the line ___” away from the coupling.

A:1/8

B: 1/4

C: 1/2

D: 1

Answer 73

A

Question 74

Battalion 59 is 1084 at a gas leak in the street IFO 1234 Smith Street. Units are conducting a search of the street and residence and the companies on the scene are giving reports. Which report received by itself is not indicative of a major gas leak?

A: Ladder 1 OV reports to command that they are getting 15% LEL on the gas meter in the manhole in front of the address.

B: Ladder 1 Officer reports receiving 10% LEL on the gas meter in the cellar of 1234 Smith Street.

C: Ladder 1 Officer reports there is an indication that gas from the street is migrating into the residence through the electric service conduit.

D: Ladder 1 OV reports to command that his meter is reading 10% in the street IFO 1234 Smith Street.

Answer 74

A Explanation:
***EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – NATURAL GAS – SECTION 5***
A – Elevated natural gas reading (20% lel or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer, etc.).
B – 10% LEL or greater detected inside or outside
C – Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source.
D – 10% LEL or greater detected outside or inside

Question 75

Question 13:
The term “Clutter” shall be used to describe an accumulation of material which may impact operations. The terms used are Light Clutter, Medium Clutter, and Heavy Clutter. From the choices below select the most correct definition in reference to the Clutter term.

A: Medium Clutter describes there is little or no effect in access/egress for members

B: Heavy Clutter describes entrances and interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement

C: Light Clutter describes that primary searches possible, but secondary searches will be delayed

D: Medium Clutter describes handlines will be more difficult. Fuel load may exceed capability of handlines

Answer 75

D

Explanation:
A- LIGHT Clutter describes there is little or no effect in access/egress for members
B- MEDIUM Clutter describes entrances and interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement
C- MEDIUM Clutter describes that primary searches possible, but secondary searches will be delayed
Safety Bulletin 92 p-3

Question 76

Question 17:
Following a drill using the Life Saving Training Rope, the officer needs to place it out of service. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding this procedure?

A: The rope shall be tagged with an RT-2 indicating the unit number, date, and reason. The officer shall make an entry on the RP-100 rope card.

B: The officer must complete an OOS Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forward it through the chain of Command to the Chief of Safety.

C: Investigation of the circumstances as stated in the report is required by the Battalion and Deputy Chief on duty. A Statement to this effect is required as part of each chief’s endorsement.

D: The officer shall contact the administrative division for a replacement.

Answer 76

B

Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – LIFE SAVING TRAINING ROPE
B IS CORRECT – 5.6
A – The Officer placing the rope out of service shall make an entry in the company journal. The RP 101 is the training rope card.
C – Investigation is required by the Battalion Chief on Duty. 5.6
D – Research and Development is contacted for replacement. 5.6

Question 77

uestion 18:

Two members discussing operations at a “store fire” in a Taxpayer agreed on a number of points in their discussion. They disagreed on which incorrect point?

A:Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication by the first Engine officer and IC.

B: A line may be required on the roof to protect personnel and exposures once the roof is opened.

C: For a fire that is traveling rapidly along a row of occupancies in a taxpayer, it may be best to skip occupancies and stretch lines into alternate occupancies ahead of the fire.

D: After size-up, the first hoseline should be stretched through the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire.

Answer 77

Explanation:
A) Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication by the first Engine and Ladder Officer
Taxpayer 7.3.2

Question 78

Question 19:
In order to remove a facility from a CFR response (CFR Hold), a company officer shall ensure the facility meets a certain criteria. Choose the incorrect criteria.

A:Facility personnel on duty are trained in CPR and be able to provide oxygen to the patient

B: Facility personnel are trained in the use of a defibrillator, and all the necessary equipment is available to the trained personnel

C: All equipment and appropriately trained personnel are available during all hours of operation. To qualify for removal, the facility shall be operational on a 24/7 basis

D: To be eligible for “CFR Hold” only the floors of the buildings address that meet the criteria shall be removed from the CFR response matrix

Answer 78

D Explanation:
In addition to the above requirements found in Choices A, B, C, the facility must be “CFR Hold Eligible” ON ALL FLOORS of the buildings address.
Comm ch 4 add 1…..significant change on 10/2/20

Question 79

Cockloft construction varies greatly depending on which type of building you are referring to. Which of these cockloft descriptions is CORRECT according to our department manuals?

A: In flat roof Brownstones, the cockloft space between the top floor ceiling and the roof is approximately 2’ to 3’ in height & the roof if pitched toward the front of the building.

B: The salient feature common to all Rowframe buildings, regardless of variations of design is the common cockloft spreading over all the buildings in the row. The cockloft may vary from 6” to more than 6’ in height.

C: The cockloft is usually a common area extending over all the stores in a taxpayer and can vary from a height of a foot to tall enough for a man to stand in.

D: There is a mass of wood in the cockloft of an H-type equal to a small lumber yard. Some cocklofts are as much as four feet deep.

Answer 79

Explanation:
CROSS REFERENCE – FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES, MULTIPLE DWELLINGS, TAXPAYERS
D IS CORRECT – 5.9.9I MD’s
A – BROWNSTONES - Approximately 2’ to 3’ in height and the roof is pitched toward the REAR of the building. 2.2.18
B – ROWFRAMES - The cockloft may vary in height of one foot to tall enough for a member to stand in – 5.2.2
C – TAXPAYER – From four inches to more than six feet. 3.2.1

Question 80

When designated as the “Communications Unit” a company plays a crucial role in the overall operation. Which of the following choices is correct?

A: To operate as a Communications Unit, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of three trained members. Trained officers do not count towards this total.

B: The Communications Unit requires a trained officer to be in service.

C:At large, complex operations that will extend over many operational periods (e.g. major collapses, natural disasters, recovery operations) the Communications Unit will be part of the Logistics Section.

D:The Communications Unit Officer will be designated the Communications Unit Leader (COML) and must report directly to the Incident Commander (IC).

Answer 80

C

Explanation:
C
A) To operate as a Communications Unit, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of three trained members. Trained officers COUNT towards this total.
B) The Communications Unit does NOT require a trained officer to be in service.
D) The Communications Unit will report to the Communications Unit Leader (COML), if staffed. If the COML is not staffed, or has not arrived, they will report to the Resources Unit Leader (RESL). If neither the COML nor the RESL is on scene, they will report to the Incident Commander (IC). The officer of the Communications Unit will NOT be designated as the COML.
ICS Ch 2 Add 3 2.2, 2.3, 3.2

Question 81

Today is December 14th, an excellent day to have a promotional exam. However, you are at work for the day tour with the weather being a crisp 40 degrees on a beautiful sunny day, when suddenly a run comes in for a building collapse right down the block from your quarters. You are now 10-84 and all 1st alarm units are on scene. From your vast studying days of Collapse Operations you know the positions and responsibilities of all units on scene. Unfortunately you were incorrect in which choice?

A: 1st arriving Engine secures a positive water source and ensures a 3 1/2” supply line is stretched to the TL

B: 3rd arriving Engine assisted in the removal of lightly buried victims

C: 2nd arriving Ladder Company was responsible for shutting the utilities

D: 1st arriving Ladder Company split into two teams and began removing lightly buried victims to the Casualty Collection Point (CCP)

Answer 81

A Explanation:
Collapse Operations p 9-11
A- 2nd arriving Engine ensures a 3 1/2” supply line is stretched to the TL

Question 82

Question 26:
The FDNY has a number of engine apparatus that have a 3rd stage, designated as “3rd Stage Engines”, which have a total rated capacity of 2,000 GPM and have a maximum pressure rating of ___ psi. Conventional engine apparatus in the FDNY are equipped with a two-stage centrifugal pump. These apparatus’ have a total rated capacity of 2,000 GPM and a maximum pressure rating of ___ psi.

A: 700, 600

B: 600, 550

C: 600, 500

D: 600, 550

Answer 82

A

Eng Ops Ch 2 sec 2.1

Question 83

Question 31:
One of the hardest topics that most study groups breakdown is fires in Loft buildings. One study group in particular broke down Engine and Ladder operations into four testable points. Choose the incorrect testable point.

A: For a fire in a Cellar of a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building equipped with a sprinkler system servicing the fire area, the 3rd arriving Engine made sure a supply line was stretched to feed the sprinkler system.

B: When the standpipe system is used in a Residential Loft building, the initial hoselines may have a lead length of 2” lightweight hose (with a 1” tip).

C: When the standpipe system is used in a Residential Loft building for large fires in large, uncompartmented areas, a lead length of 2 ½” lightweight hose should be used.

D: For a fire in a Sub-Cellar of a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building, vertical ventilation over straight run stairs being used for attack should be coordinated with the ladder Inside Team and IC

Answer 83

Explanation:
Lofts
A- Sec 6.2.1 D
B- Sec 6.3.1 A 1
C- Sec 6.3.1 A 1
D- For a fire in a Sub-Cellar of a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building, vertical ventilation over straight run stairs being used for attack should be coordinated with the Inside Team and Engine Officers Sec 7.2.1 D.4

Question 84

Question 39:
It should be noted that the Multiple Dwelling Law does not permit the conversion of a loft building to a Multiple Dwelling. Therefore, the occupancy shall not exceed __________ used for living purposes.

A: one individual unit

B: separate individual units

C: three separate individual units

D: four separate individual units

Answer 84

B

Question 85

Question 41:
The sign specifications established by the Department of Buildings for an artist in residence are correctly listed except for _______.

A: Sign must be of metal or sturdy plastic eight inches by ten.

B: Two inch black letters on white background.

C: Seven feet above sidewalk level.

D: As close as possible to the main entrance on front wall outside of building reading:

Answer 85

A

Question 86

Question 46:

Units inspecting standpipe systems shall pay particular attention to ________, as well as the condition of floor and section valves.

A: the condition of piping on the top floor immediately above the highest outlet connection

B: the condition of piping on the floor immediately below the highest floor being constructed

C: the condition of piping in the basement area immediately above the Siamese connection

D: the condition of piping in the basement area immediately below the Siamese connection

Answer 86

D

Question 87

Question 50:

Under the administrative code, illegal storage and use of LPG is enforced with an immediate summons and confiscation through the vendor or FDNY. Certain minor items can be enforced with an FDNY Summons or VO. Which of the following is incorrect regarding LPG?

A: At a stationary LPG installation, portable fire extinguisher with at least a 10-B: C rating shall be provided whenever LPG is connected for use. The maximum travel distance to the portable fire extinguisher shall be 15 feet from the work location

B: A single LPG container with a capacity not greater than 16.4 ounces may be used below grade for emergency indoor repairs, provided that the container is not left unattended.

C: The quantity of LPG containers allowed in one storage location in a building not accessible to the public, such as an industrial building, shall not exceed a maximum capacity of 300 pounds of LPG. Where LPG containers are stored in more than one location on the same floor of a building, the storage areas shall be separated by a minimum of 300 feet.

D: Outdoor storage, including storage of containers for sale and containers connected for use, shall be located not less than 20 feet from building openings, 20 feet from any motor vehicle fuel dispenser and 10 feet from any combustible material. Outdoor storage of LPG shall be limited to not more than 400 pounds of LPG and shall be located at or above grade level. Only exception would be a construction site.

Answer 87

30 FEET A

Question 88

Question 51:

LPG equipment and containers may be used indoors, except in an occupied place of public assembly, for the purpose of performing emergency repairs. Such LPG use shall be subject to all the following requirements except:

A: LPG use at the work site shall be limited to two (2) LPG containers, each with a capacity not greater than 20 pounds

B: All LPG containers shall be removed from inside the building whenever not in use

C: All LPG use shall be under the personal supervision of a Certificate of Fitness holder

D: LPG containers with a capacity greater than sixteen and four tenths ounces (16.4 oz.) shall not be left unattended

Answer 88

B Explanation:
All LPG containers shall be removed from inside the building at the end of the work day.
AUC 5 ch 2 add 3
*BELOW GRADE- Note: A single LPG container with a capacity not greater than 16.4 ounces may be used below grade for emergency indoor repairs, provided that the container is not left unattended. Page 12

Question 89

Question 59:

Inspection and enforcement procedures in leased commercial spaces on Transit Authority property should proceed in the same manner as if the space was not on Transit Authority property. If an A-8 is being forwarded for a condition that is the concern of the Fire Department, it shall be forwarded to ________

A: Department of Buildings (DOB)

B: Bureau of Fire Prevention Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU)

C: Bureau of Operation’s Public Transportation Safety Unit (PTSU)

D: Metropolitan Transit Authority Mobile Division (MTAMD)

Answer 89

B

Question 90

Question 60:

Complaints shall be investigated promptly, but must be investigated within 24 hours after receipt. Units receiving such complaints must make a diligent attempt to complete the inspection and each attempt should be recorded on the A-17. Which statement is incorrect regarding the A-17 procedure?

A: If access is not possible after the first investigation, the INTERIM REPORT box in upper right hand corner shall be marked.

B: The officer shall fax an unendorsed copy of the A-17 (FINAL or INTERIM) to the BISP Unit immediately after conducting an investigation.

C: If the investigation cannot be completed after the 72-hour time limit, a telephone notification shall be made to Fire Prevention Complaint Unit.

D: Only Final reports shall be emailed through the chain of command.

Answer 90

C Explanation:
AUC 5 Ch 3 add 6
If the investigation cannot be completed after the 72-hour time limit, a telephone notification shall be made to the BISP unit

Question 92

Question 20: Members of Engine 278 and Ladder 177 were discussing line placement at cellar fires in Brownstones and several of the them made statements. Which of the following statements made by the members was CORRECT? A: The first line must be stretched via the parlor floor stairs and down to the cellar if conditions permit. B: If the first line was used to secure the first floor, the second line will be stretched to the cellar via the exterior cellar entrance to extinguish the fire. C: If a third line is necessary, it will be stretched to the top floor to cover any extension. D: The second line is stretched through the front door on the first floor to back up the first hoseline.

Answer 92

Explanation: FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES D IS CORRECT 3.1B A – The first line is stretched through the front door on the first floor. 3.1 A B – Second line is stretched to the cellar via INTERIOR CELLAR STAIR to extinguish the fire. 3.1B C – If a third line is necessary, it will be stretched as ordered by the incident commander. 3.1C

Question 93

Question 32: A fire in a taxpayer will require the use of 2 ½” hoselines. However, there are situations in which the 2nd arriving engine company may stretch and operate a 2nd hoseline. Which is not one of them? A: The 1st arriving engine company must have secured a positive water source. The 2nd arriving engine officer can communicate with the 1st arriving chauffeur to confirm this. B: The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine officer to confirm this. C: The hose stretches are sufficiently short, so the 1st arriving company will not require immediate assistance in operating the line once it is charged. D: There is a possible need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard.

Answer 93

Explanation: D There is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard. Taxpayer 7.1

Question 94

Question 34: The officers of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 were discussing a new building just completed down the block from the firehouse and the cell phone site just added to the roof. Which of the following administrative actions taken after the discovery of a cell phone site is INCORRECT? A: The administrative company must do an on-site inspection and evaluate the cell site. B: The administrative company must notify their battalion, division and all first alarm units via telephone followed by written memo. C: The administrative company should schedule company drills/MUD at the site to formulate firefighting strategies. D: The administrative company should complete and submit a CIDS card and forward it to their battalion fire prevention coordinator.

Answer 94

Explanation: AUC 331 – CELL PHONE SITES C IS INCORRECT – The ADMINISTRATIVE BATTALION should schedule company drills/MUD at the site to formulate strategies. 4.6 A – 4.2 B – 4.1 D – 4.3

Question 95

Question 37: Which unit/s are out of position at the scene of a structural collapse? A: If possible, both the first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream. B: Two of the second alarm engine companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street. The chauffeurs of these units must remain in the cab, able to move the apparatus if directed by the IC. C: Tower ladders should be placed in front of the collapsed structure, within the collapse danger zone. D: Aerial ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes. SOC Support Ladder Companies shall position the same as other ladder apparatus, with their second pieces located near the main apparatus

Answer 95

Explanation: Tower ladders should be placed in front of the collapsed structure, OUTSIDE of the collapse danger zone. Initially, the first arriving tower ladder should be the only unit in front of the collapse building, unless there is a specific need for additional units. Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and protect a different exposure. Additional units should be directed to a designated staging area, unless required elsewhere. A Note: The third and fourth engines should take similar positions at the rear of the structure. B Note: Remaining engine companies should be positioned well away from the scene, for they will probably be responding for personnel needs only. Collapse 5.3, 5.4

Question 96

Question 5: Ladder 171 is an aerial ladder company and they are assigned first due to a fire on the 4th floor of a 6 story 100x100 H type MD with similar exposures on both sides. Which choice is INCORRECTLY listed as one of the primary means for getting to the roof at this fire? A: First Arriving Aerial Ladder B: Wing Stairs in the Fire building C: Isolated Stairs in the Fire building D: Any stairway in an adjoining building

Answer 96

Explanation: MD ch 1 sec 4.4.3 When conditions indicate roof operations (top floor fire, shaft fire, two floors involved, heavy fire condition, etc.) the aerial may initially be raised to the roof for rapid ascent of the roof and outside vent firefighter. The primary means of getting to the roof would be winged or isolated stairways in the same building or any stairway in an adjoining building, if feasible

Question 97

Question 18: Exterior walls can be breached with a maul and/or power tools. Breaching may be necessary to gain access for life saving or stream penetration. From the following choices listed below choose the most correct tactic used to breach an exterior wall. A: When using the maul to breach cinder blocks (ex: vacant-sealed windows), start at the bottom B: When the power saw is being used to cut through brick and concrete, the carbide tip blade shall be used C: Cuts in brick walls should be rectangular with the long side facing upwards to prevent collapse D: When cutting brick exterior walls, the first and second cuts should be at the brickwork since the easiest cut is at the mortar joint and the blade will usually be worn

Answer 97

Explanation: Tower Ladders ch 5 sec 5.2 A- Start at the top B- Combination metal/concrete saw blade (diamond blade) shall be used C- Cuts in brick walls should be TRIANGULAR with the VERTEX angle facing upwards to prevent collapse

Question 98

Question 23: Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the duties of the Systems Control Unit at a fire in a high rise office building? A: While responding, review any CIDS information available via the MDT. B: If there is no Logistics Section Chief, the Systems Control Unit Leader (SCUL) will report directly to the Incident Commander. C: Operation of building systems must be done with the assistance of building personnel. D: The operation, shutdown or change of any building system shall not be done without the permission of the IC or Sector Chief

Answer 98

Explanation: The operation, shutdown or change of any building system shall not be done without the permission of the IC or OPERATIONS SECTION CHIEF. ICS Ch 2 Add 6 1.1, 4.1, 4.2

Question 99

Question 26: Choose the incorrect ventilation tactic according to the ventilation bulletin. A: Before ordering any horizontal ventilation, the Officer shall ensure door control at the fire area entrance B: If the Officer encounters a high heat and heavy smoke condition without a charged hoseline, she should consider directing members to immediately exit the fire area, and/or limit additional ventilation, because horizontal ventilation prior to extinguishment will not sufficiently cool or improve conditions, but will allow the fire to grow C: Member preparing to vent from the exterior, must notify the Ladder Officer operating in the fire area before venting when venting for extinguishment, but not venting for search D: Vertical ventilation can be initiated by the Roof firefighter without communicating to the Ladder Company Officer operating in the fire area in Non- Fireproof Multiple dwellings

Answer 99

Explanation: Ventilation A- sec 8.1.1 B- sec 8.1.1 C- ALL HORIZONTAL VENTILATION tactics performed from the exterior must be controlled, communicated and coordinated by the Ladder Company Officer operating inside the fire area to be vented…sec 8.1.1 D- This is true. The Ladder Officer operating in the fire area shall communicate to the Roof firefighter when vertical ventilation is NOT to be taken or delayed…..sec 10.1.1….This was changed in 12/2019

Question 100

Question 37: The incorrect position/tactic when operating at a Taxpayer can be found in which choice? A: When operating at a cellar, store, or cockloft fire, the 3rd arriving engine shall ensure the sprinkler system is supplied if equipped B: 1st arriving Ladder shall shut utilities C: Truck companies, other than first or second arriving on the initial alarm, should report in with their 10 and 12 foot hooks besides their normal tool complement D: If the fire originated in the cellar of a two story taxpayer it may require flooding of the cellar as a last resort

Answer 100

Explanation: Taxpayers A- 7.1.7 B- 8.2.2 A 1 f C- 8.4.4 D- 9.1.12 If the fire originated in the cellar it may require flooding of the first floor as a last resort.

Question 101

Question 3: Which of the following choices contains incorrect information about the SENSIT TKX Combustible Gas Detector? A: It is carried by Battalions, Haz-Mat Co. 1, HMTU, Rescue and Ladder Companies. B: It provides a “Geiger Counter” like ticking sound that increases in frequency when a gas source as low as 20 ppm of Methane is detected. C: It may be used in almost any situation where combustible gas, vapor, or residues need to be located but will not detect Carbon Monoxide. D: A decrease in the ticking sound and flashing of the red LED indicates that you are approaching a leak.

Answer 101

Explanation: An INCREASE in the ticking sound and flashing of the red LED indicates that you are APPROACHING a leak. A DECREASE in both the ticking sound and the flashing red LED indicates that you are MOVING AWAY from the leak. EP Gas Add 5 1, 2, 4

Question 102

Question 11: Ladder 177 is assigned as the first due truck to a fire on the top floor rear of a four-story brownstone with a rear fire escape. Upon arrival, there is smoke showing from the top floor windows and the members will proceed to their positions. Which members of Ladder 177 operated CORRECTLY? A: Upon arrival, the LCC set up the aerial and placed it on the roof of the fire building for rapid ascent by the Roof firefighter. B: The OV surveyed the rear for trapped occupants and then returned to the front of the building to team up with the LCC for top floor VES. C: The Roof firefighter assisted the LCC in setting up the apparatus and then proceeded to the roof with the saw and halligan hook for roof operations. D: The Officer proceeded to the seat of the fire. A thorough primary search was started at that point.

Answer 102

Explanation: FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES D IS CORRECT – 2.6A7 A – For a top floor fire, raise and position the aerial to the roof of THE EXPOSURE for use by the roof firefighter and OV. 2.6D6A Pg 11. B – The OV will be going to the roof for a top floor fire. C – The OV brings the saw to the roof for a top floor fire (not the roof FF) 2.6 E3 pg 12

Question 103

Question 13: Which chemical agent has an odor of Musky Hay? A: Nerve agent B: Blister agent C: Blood agent D: Choking agent

Answer 103

Explanation: ERP add 2 p-18 A- Nerve- Fruity B- Blister- Garlic C- Blood- Burnt almonds D- Choking- Musky hay

Question 104

Class 2 Multiple Dwellings may have fire escapes that affect operations. Which factor is INCORRECT to consider prior to using the fire escape on these buildings? A: Height of the Building B: Presence of a known life hazard. C: Weather Conditions. D: Fire Conditions

Answer 104

Explanation: FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS – CLASS 2 A IS INCORRECT – Height of the FIRE FLOOR 8.5.4

Question 105

Question 11: All of the following are considered a “modified response” except? A: Sprinkler activation B: Electrical emergency C: Class E D: Tree down on vehicle

Answer 105

Explanation: Tree down (no wires, buildings or vehicles affected) is a modified response Also: ERS no contact (2300 to 0800 hours) is a modified response Code for Group 1 call type (modified response) WELTS: W- Water leaks E- ERS no contact (2300 to 0800 hours) L- Lock-ins (no reported food on the stove or other associated emergency) T- Tree down (no wires, buildings or vehicles affected) S- Salvage truck Communications ch 6 add 1 sec 2

Question 106

Question 8: You are the Lt. on duty in Engine 99 and at the beginning of the tour, you are advised via voice alarm message that Phase I of a water pressure alert is in effect. Which choice CORRECTLY describes the procedure to be followed after receiving this notification? A: The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every 3 hours beginning at 1000 hours and ending at 2200 hours and recorded in the company journal. B: The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters twice daily at 1000 hrs and 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal. C: The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every two hours beginning at 1000 hrs and ending at 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal. D: The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every hour beginning at 1000 hrs and ending at 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal

Answer 106

Explanation: AUC 205 – HYDRANT INSPECTION - D IS CORRECT – 7.1 – This is done during phase 1 & 2 and recorded in the company journal. Choice A – This is the annual pressure reading report taken during the month of May.

Question 107

Question 16: The only correct procedure when requesting a spare radio due to an OOS radio can be found in which choice? A: Immediately notify the administrative Battalion B: Advise the Battalion of the unit and position of the radio being placed OOS C: Upon receipt of spare radio, ensure proper ID has been placed in HT by transmitting from spare HT to another unit HT. The following channels must be checked for proper ID: HT-1/Tac 1, HT-2/CMD-1, and HT-9/Tac SEC D: Upon receiving spare radio verify it comes with a leather case

Answer 107

Explanation: A- Administrative Division B- Division D- Verify time of day clock is correct Communications ch 11 add 4 sec 2.1

Question 108

Question 37: The GasAlert Extreme Carbon Monoxide Meter is equipped with 4 buttons. Which is the only button field units use? A: Button all the way to the left B: Button 2nd from the left C: Button all the way to the right D: Button 2nd from the right

Answer 108

The meter is equipped with 4 buttons. To turn on and activate the meter press the GREEN CIRCULAR button on the left only. To turn off the meter, press and hold same circular button on the left for 5 seconds. The left button is the only button to be used by field units. The other 3 buttons are for use by Haz mat OPS meter room only Hazardous Materials ch 4 add 1 sec 2

Question 109

Question 1: Which tactical consideration is incorrect regarding operations and overhaul in Old Law Tenement type structures? A: Hanging ends of cable such as electric (BX), telephone and coaxial television shall be secured near the ceiling. Loops of cable hanging down shall be pushed up out of the way. B: is dangerous for more than one or two members to use tools at the same time in a small area, such as rooms in Old Law Tenements. C: Holes in the floor are generally small and must be protected, generally by placing a door over them. Holes in the roof will be much larger and all members must be warned to be constantly alert. A roof door or short ladder may be used to cover danger spots. D: Before discarding burned material out of a window, a member should, if possible, examine the yard before discarding any material to ensure that no occupants have jumped into the yard prior to the arrival of Fire Department units

Answer 109

Explanation: D. Before discarding burned material out of a window, a member should ALWAYS be posted in the yard or street below to prevent injuries to anyone from falling material. Examination of the yard MUST be made before discarding any material into the yard to ensure that no occupants have jumped into the yard prior to the arrival of Fire Department units. No material shall be thrown onto roof of buildings or into enclosed/narrow shafts or setbacks. Lad 3 8.2, 8.6, 8.8, 8.10, 8.13

Question 110

Question 3: The members of Ladder 100 were teaching the new proby about the do’s & don’ts of venting windows with portable ladders. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding the operation? A: The portable ladder should be placed downwind from the window to be vented to provide a margin of safety to the member if the fire extends out the window. B: The tip of the ladder should be placed level with or higher than the window sill. C: A member positioned to use a tool should extend their arms upward and slant the tool downward and strike the glass to prevent the window glass from sliding down the tool handle and causing injury to the member. D: Placing the ladder downwind from the window will allow the falling glass, to some degree, to be blown away from the member butting the ladder below.

Answer 110

Explanation: FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – PORTABLE LADDERS C IS CORRECT – 10.3.2 A – Upwind 10.3.2 C – Level with or higher than the top of the window. 10.3.2 D – Upwind 10.3.2

Question 111

Question 6: Prior to the start of the tour, the officer and members of Ladder Company 88 were discussing the Fast Pak. Which of the following about the FAST Pak is INCORRECT? A: The FAST Pak must be inspected at the beginning of each tour, immediately before the start of Multi Unit Drill, and after each use. B: A Mask Record Card shall be filled out and maintained for each FAST Pak assigned to a unit. C: If a malfunction is noted, Notify the Battalion and request the Battalion spare FAST Pak as a replacement. D: The company shall forward OOS FAST Pak’s to MSU via the Division messenger.

Answer 111

Explanation: TRAINING BULLETINS – SCBA ADDENDUM 1 – FAST PAK A Not inspected prior to the start of MUD. 5.10 B – 5.12 C – 5.13 D – 5.13

Question 112

Question 16: If all of the following are present at a fire operation in a high rise office building, the Communications Unit would be most correct to report to? A: The Resource Unit Leader B: The Communications Unit Leader C: The Incident Commander D: The Safety Chief

Answer 112

Explanation: The Communications Unit will report to the Communications Unit Leader (COML), if staffed. If the COML is not staffed, or has not arrived, they will report to the Resources Unit Leader (RESL). If neither the COML nor the RESL is on scene, they will report to the Incident Commander (IC). The officer of the Communications Unit will not be designated as the COML. ICS Ch 2 Add 3 3.2

Question 113

Question 19: Upon review of a recent CFR response, your unit came under fire for which incorrect action taken? A: The ECC positioned the apparatus, leaving free space immediately in front of the patient’s address for ambulance parking. B: A PCR was completed since the unit was on-scene (10-84) and provided patient care. The Officer had the ECC transmit signal 10-99 as she anticipated being on scene for at least 35 minutes. C: As the Officer determined that the patient’s condition was “potentially unstable,” she asked the dispatcher for an ETA of the responding ambulance and advised the dispatcher to relay the seriousness of the patient’s condition to the responding EMS Unit. D: As the patient’s condition worsened and became “critical,” packaging efforts began immediately while treating life threats

Answer 113

xplanation: C) As the Officer determined that the patient’s condition was “UNSTABLE,” she asked the dispatcher for an ETA of the responding ambulance and advised the dispatcher to relay the seriousness of the patient’s condition to the responding EMS Unit. Both C and D apply for UNSTABLE or CRITICAL patients. CFR Ch 2 3.9.3, 3.9.6, 3.10.1, 3.12, 3.19

Question 114

Question 24: The members of Ladder Company 100 were discussing High Rise Roof Team operations as part of the Air Rescue Plan and a series of statements were made. Which was the only CORRECT statement? A: The High-Rise roof kit contains a list of equipment including 6 SCBA’s with 1hr cylinders, 2 axes, 2 halligans,1 search rope, 1 rabbit tool, 1 bolt cutter and the required tool bags for equipment. B: Members of the HRRT will operate under the direction of the Air Recon Chief. C: The HRRT officer shall ensure all members have their personal harness, the firefighting equipment is properly bagged and members are on the HT TAC U Channel. D: During flight, one member of the HRRT as designated by the officer, shall monitor the Command Channel

Answer 114

Explanation: AUC 269 ADDENDUM 1 C IS CORRECT 4.3.5A . A – 2 Search ropes are in the High Rise Roof Kit 3.4.6 B – Members shall operate under the High Rise Roof Chief 4.3.5E D – Not Stated

Question 115

Question 33: Ladder 199 is an aerial ladder company that’s first due for heavy fire venting from the second floor of a four story OLT type rowframe. Upon arrival, the chauffeur made several decisions based on conditions. Which of the choices was CORRECT? A: The LCC initially positioned the aerial ladder to the top floor for VEIS. B: The LCC waited for the roof size up prior to repositioning the aerial ladder to the fire floor for VEIS when teamed up with the 2nd arriving LCC. C: The LCC teamed up with the OV prior to providing VEIS of the fire apartment via portable ladder in the front. D: The LCC repositioned the aerial to the floors above after VEIS of the fire apartment was complete

Answer 115

Explanation: BROWNSTONES AND ROWFRAMES D IS CORRECT - 5.7 pg 36 #6 A – 5.7 pg 36 #3 – Raise aerial for roof access by roof firefighter. B – 5.7 PG 36 #5 – When fire is on the 1st or 2nd floor, VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using portable ladders when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member). C – 5.7 pg 36 #5 – 2nd arriving LCC. The OV operates in the rear performing outside vent of floors within reach.

Question 116

Question 7: Isolated stairs are stairways that access only a small number of apartments and are isolated from other areas of the building. Which is incorrect regarding these stairs? A: There is typically no hallway associated with isolated stairs. B: This landing area can be small and may present difficulty in flaking out hose. C: When faced with isolated stairs, care must be taken to ensure the correct stairway is used to access the fire apartment. D: Isolated stairs are found in newer type structures

Answer 116

Explanation: Isolated stairs can be found in a number of building types, including new law tenements, apartment houses, and other newly constructed multiple dwellings. Eng Ops Ch 7 sec 2.10

Question 117

Question 11: Initial unit actions at Under River Rail operations are correctly portrayed below in all choices except? A: Initial efforts should focus on assisting self-evacuating passengers. If passengers are self evacuating, request power-off on all tracks that serve the nearest station. B: Units assigned to stations should check nearby tunnels for victims. C: Units assigned to emergency exits should consult the Emergency Exit Guide Book or Operational Guide to verify that operations are being conducted at the correct emergency exit. D: When opening an emergency exit, inform the dispatcher which emergency exit you opened

Answer 117

Explanation: A) Initial efforts should focus on assisting self-evacuating passengers. If passengers are self evacuating, request power-off ON THE AFFECTED TRACK(S). URR 3.3

Question 118

Question 17: The incorrect statement made in regards to the FDNY Seatbelt Policy/ Donning Personal Protective Clothing (PPC) can be found in which choice? A: All members shall don their Personal Protective Clothing (PPC) prior to boarding the apparatus when a response is received requiring PPC. This includes responding from quarters or while on outdoors activities (BISP, Hydrants, etc) B: If a response occurs requiring the use of PPC while the apparatus is in motion; the apparatus shall be stopped immediately at the nearest safe location to allow all members to don their PPC prior to resuming response C: The enforcement of the seat belt policy is the responsibility of the Chief and Company Officers D: The ultimate responsibility for seat belt use lies with the company officer to ensure all members are in compliance during a response

Answer 118

Explanation: The ultimate responsibility for seat belt use lies with each person riding in a vehicle SB 2 ch 1 A. *Conflict- AUC 310 7.2.1 says while responding to structure fires “All Members ‘Except Chauffers’ shall don their PPE prior to responding.”

Question 119

Question 24: The most correct Flagging Column entry can be found in which choice? A: RXD Repairs-Mechanics B: ACC Accident C: SI Surveillance Inspection D: DF Heating oil

Answer 119

Explanation: A- RXD Scheduled to Report for or be Relieved from Duty B- COLL Collision (no longer use accident) D- F Heating Oil Guide to Company Journal Entries sec 5

Question 120

Question 26: Marquees are hollow boxes which can fill up with run-off water at a fire operation due to use of heavy streams. A 12’ x 24’ marquee, 4’ deep, when filled would contain approximately __ tons of water. A: 12 B: 18 C: 25 D: 35

Answer 120

D

Question 121

Question 27: The only correct reference made in regards to the Drag Rescue Device (DRD) and Nylon Tubular Webbing can be found in which choice? A: Nylon Tubular Webbing shall only be used for dragging victims. Under no circumstances shall Nylon Tubular Webbing be used for vertical lifts B: DRD can be used to assist in the vertical removal of an non-ambulatory injured or unconscious member C: DRD can be used to assist in the horizontal removal of an ambulatory injured member D: Nylon Tubular Webbing shall inspected semi-annually

Answer 121

A-MMID ch 3 add 3 sec 3.4 1.1 B- Horizontal drag only….MMID ch 3 add 2 sec 2.1 C- The DRD is designed to assist in the horizontal removal of a non-ambulatory injured or unconscious member…MMID ch 3 add 2 sec D- Inspected Monthly……MMID ch 3 add 3 sec 6.2

Question 122

Question 31: You’re working a Tuesday night tour in Engine 99 and respond to a pin job where firefighter Hothead gets into a loud shouting match with the ESU officers on the scene. Which of the following choices below is INCORRECT about filing an unusual occurrence report for this incident? A: On weekends/holidays the report is to be emailed through the chain of command to the Citywide Command Chief. Proper and full endorsements are required. B:✘This report is to be emailed through the chain of command to the Bureau of Operations by 0900 hours of the following business day. C: This report is to contain all particulars including names, I.D. numbers, time, location, etc. D:✔The unusual occurrence report must be preceded by an immediate phone call by the officer to the Battalion, Division, Borough and Operations.

Answer 122

Explanation: REGULATIONS CHAPTER 30 30.1.6 D. The unusual occurrence report must be preceded by an immediate telephone communication to the Deputy and Battalion Chief on duty A – 30.3.2 B – 30.3.2 C – 30.3.2

Question 123

Question 38: Please answer this question using this building information card. …. 999 METROTECH CENTER – MEGA HR-80 STY-200x150 CL1– BUILDING FULLY SPRINKLERED – 4 ELEV BANKS – A BANK FLS 1-24 - B BANK FLS 24-40 - C BANK FLS 40-64 - D BANK FLS 64-80 – ACCESS STAIRS FLS 22-27, 34-40, 63-67 – B STAIR IS A FIRE TOWER – LOW-RISE STDP SVS FLRS 1-34 - MID-RISE STDP FLRS 35-60 - HIGH-RISE STDP FLRS 61-80 STDP EVERY FLOOR IN B & D STAIR***** Ladder Companies are assigned to a 1076 for a fire on the 36th floor of a high-rise office building and as per SOP’s responded to their respective posts. Based on the information on the Building Information Card and your knowledge of procedures, which truck company operated CORRECTLY? A: The first arriving ladder company secured an elevator in the B Bank and took the elevator to the 34th floor and proceeded up to the fire floor. B: The second arriving ladder company secured an elevator in the B Bank and took the elevator to the 32nd floor and proceeded up to the floor above. C: The third arriving ladder company secured an elevator in the C Bank and took the elevator to the 40th floor and proceeded to the SAE post on 41. D: The fourth arriving ladder company secured an elevator in the D Bank and took the elevator to the top floor and proceeded to the roof.

Answer 123

Explanation: TRAINING BULLETINS – ELEVATORS – FFP HIGH-RISE CROSS REFERENCE *APPLICATION* D IS CORRECT –4th due ladder company obtains an elevator that provides the safest access to the roof. They are to report conditions at the roof level conduct primary searches of the top floor. Logical termination point after completion of duties would be SAE Post – 8.6.1 A2, B, E A – Right elevator, wrong floor. The access stairs service floors 34-41. If the elevator services the fire floor, the elevator has to be taken to two floors below the fire floor or lower level of the access stair in the fire area which is floor 32. TB ELEV 6.1.4 B B – Right elevator, right floor, wrong operation point. 2nd due truck is to coordinate the search operation of the fire floor with first arriving ladder company. HR 8.4.2 #4 C – Wrong elevator, Wrong floor, Wrong Operation point, Right Post Location – 3rd ladder company takes the B elevator to floor 32, proceeds up a stairway OTHER THAN the attack stairway to the floor above 8.5.1 B2 – If possible, the SAE Group Supervisor shall choose a location on a floor which is not serviced by the same bank of elevators as the fire floor and at least five floors above the fire floor. 41 would be CORRECT (Figure 18) HR 6.5.2C – Note that access stairs are not mentioned in determining this floor

Question 124

Question 13: The term “Clutter” shall be used to describe an accumulation of material which may impact operations. The terms used are Light Clutter, Medium Clutter, and Heavy Clutter. From the choices below select the most correct definition in reference to the Clutter term. A: Medium Clutter describes there is little or no effect in access/egress for members B: Heavy Clutter describes entrances and interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement C: Light Clutter describes that primary searches possible, but secondary searches will be delayed D: Medium Clutter describes handlines will be more difficult. Fuel load may exceed capability of handlines

Answer 124

Explanation: A- LIGHT Clutter describes there is little or no effect in access/egress for members B- MEDIUM Clutter describes entrances and interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement C- MEDIUM Clutter describes that primary searches possible, but secondary searches will be delayed Safety Bulletin 92 p-3

Question 125

Question 14: During company drill, the members of Ladder 177 were discussing operations in Rowframe & Brownstone buildings. Which of the following is an INCORRECT action for the 2nd arriving Roof Firefighter pulling up to a fire in a 5-sty brownstone with a rear fire escape? A: When the 2nd arriving aerial can be raised to the fire building or an exposure, the member assigned to the roof, should attempt access this way. B: Confirmed roof ventilation and assisted the 1st arriving ladder with ventilation of the floors above the fire. C: Teamed up with the 1st roof FF or another available member to assist with VEIS of the fire floor D: Where conditions warranted, commenced initial ventilation of adjoining building roofs

Answer 125

FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES C IS INCORRECT – 2.7 ROOF PG 21 #3 – Team up with the 2nd OV to VEIS all floors above the fire. A – Pg 21 Roof #1 B – Pg 21 Roof #2 D – Pg 21 Roof #4

Question 126

Question 18: Two members discussing operations at a “store fire” in a Taxpayer agreed on a number of points in their discussion. They disagreed on which incorrect point? A: Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication by the first Engine officer and IC. B: A line may be required on the roof to protect personnel and exposures once the roof is opened. C: For a fire that is traveling rapidly along a row of occupancies in a taxpayer, it may be best to skip occupancies and stretch lines into alternate occupancies ahead of the fire. D: After size-up, the first hoseline should be stretched through the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire

Answer 126

Explanation: A) Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication by the first Engine and Ladder Officer Taxpayer 7.3.2

Question 127

Question 41: The sign specifications established by the Department of Buildings for an artist in residence are correctly listed except for _______. A: Sign must be of metal or sturdy plastic eight inches by ten. B: Two inch black letters on white background. C: Seven feet above sidewalk level. D: As close as possible to the main entrance on front wall outside of building reading:

Answer 127

Explanation: Sign must be of metal AUC 5 ch 2 add 1

Question 128

Question 44: Which statement is incorrect regarding standpipe pressurized alarm systems? A: Vacant Buildings Being Demolished: Existing standpipes must be dry standpipes and have an air-pressurized alarm. B: New Buildings Higher than 75 Feet: Temporary and permanent dry standpipes must have an air-pressurized alarm. C: Prior Notification for Scheduled Work: Contractors need not notify the Fire Department before any planned alarm deactivation, but must notify the Fire Department if the Standpipes will be Out of Service. D: Fire department hose connections shall be kept free from obstruction and shall be marked by a metal sign reading, “Standpipe Connection” and by a red light at night.

Answer 128

Explanation: Contractors must notify the Fire Department before any planned alarm deactivation and if the Standpipes will be Out of Service. AUC 5 ch 2 add 2

Question 129

Question 46: Units inspecting standpipe systems shall pay particular attention to ________, as well as the condition of floor and section valves. A: the condition of piping on the top floor immediately above the highest outlet connection B: the condition of piping on the floor immediately below the highest floor being constructed C: the condition of piping in the basement area immediately above the Siamese connection D: the condition of piping in the basement area immediately below the Siamese connection

Answer 129

Explanation: AUC 5 ch 2 add 2

Question 130

Question 50: Under the administrative code, illegal storage and use of LPG is enforced with an immediate summons and confiscation through the vendor or FDNY. Certain minor items can be enforced with an FDNY Summons or VO. Which of the following is incorrect regarding LPG? A: At a stationary LPG installation, portable fire extinguisher with at least a 10-B: C rating shall be provided whenever LPG is connected for use. The maximum travel distance to the portable fire extinguisher shall be 15 feet from the work location B: A single LPG container with a capacity not greater than 16.4 ounces may be used below grade for emergency indoor repairs, provided that the container is not left unattended. C: The quantity of LPG containers allowed in one storage location in a building not accessible to the public, such as an industrial building, shall not exceed a maximum capacity of 300 pounds of LPG. Where LPG containers are stored in more than one location on the same floor of a building, the storage areas shall be separated by a minimum of 300 feet. D: Outdoor storage, including storage of containers for sale and containers connected for use, shall be located not less than 20 feet from building openings, 20 feet from any motor vehicle fuel dispenser and 10 feet from any combustible material. Outdoor storage of LPG shall be limited to not more than 400 pounds of LPG and shall be located at or above grade level. Only exception would be a construction site.

Answer 130

A 30FEET

Question 131

Question 51: LPG equipment and containers may be used indoors, except in an occupied place of public assembly, for the purpose of performing emergency repairs. Such LPG use shall be subject to all the following requirements except: A: LPG use at the work site shall be limited to two (2) LPG containers, each with a capacity not greater than 20 pounds B: All LPG containers shall be removed from inside the building whenever not in use C: All LPG use shall be under the personal supervision of a Certificate of Fitness holder D: LPG containers with a capacity greater than sixteen and four tenths ounces (16.4 oz.) shall not be left unattended

Answer 131

Explanation: All LPG containers shall be removed from inside the building at the end of the work day. AUC 5 ch 2 add 3 *BELOW GRADE- Note: A single LPG container with a capacity not greater than 16.4 ounces may be used below grade for emergency indoor repairs, provided that the container is not left unattended. Page 12

Question 132

Question 52: On the 6x9 tour, Lt Heins receives a written notification of an absent smoke detector. He correctly forward it to the Bureau of Fire Prevention’s Field Public Operations Support Unit. On the 9x6 tour, he receives a verbal notification of absent smoke detector. He correctly ________. \ A: called the Bureau of Fire Prevention’s Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU) B: wrote the Bureau of Fire Prevention’s Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU) C: referred the complainant to the Department of Housing Preservation and Development by dialing “311” D: referred the complainant to the Department of Housing Preservation and Development by dialing “911

Answer 132

C

Question 133

Officers shall cause the inspection of steel plated buildings to determine if they present firefighting problems. Forward a(n) ________ where doubt exists as to the legality of an alteration utilizing steel plates. A: DOB Referral Report marked as High Priority B: A-8 C: letterhead report to Chief of Fire Prevention D: letterhead report to Chief of Operations

Answer 133

Explanation: AUC 5 ch 2 add 10 A mandatory sprinkler recommendation should also be submitted