Metabolic and Arthritis Flashcards

1
Q

What is cupital tunnel syndrome?

A

Where there is pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve

Patient presents with reduced sensation in ring and little fingers

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2
Q

What are the causes of cubital tunnel syndrome?

A

Accessory muscle called Aconeus epitrochleris

Can cause compression on the ulnar nerve

Seen on MRI

Can be surgically released

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3
Q

What conditions do bone demineralisation (osteopenia) occur in?

A

HORSE

Haemophilia

Osteomalacia

Rheumatoid

Scleroderma

SLE

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4
Q

What conditions does osteopenia demineralisation NOT occur in?

A

PONGS

Psoriatic arthritis

Osteomyelitis

Neuropathic joints

Gout

Sarcoidosis

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5
Q

What are tthe features of complex regional pain syndrome?

A

Patient develop pain in an area of previous minor injur

Burning in sensation

Plain film: juxta articular osteopenia and subperiosteal bone resorption (osteoporosis)

Nuclear Med scans: increased flow with increased uptake OR decreased flow with decreased uptake

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6
Q

Where does enteropathic arthritis typically affect?

A

Seen in crohns/UC/whipples/salmonella

Sacroiliitis and spondylitis are typical

Other areas affected: hands, uveitis, feet, calcaneal enthesitis

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7
Q

What is diagnosis in patient with sternoclavicular hyperostosis and osteitis, and unilateral sacroilitis?

A

SAPHO

Synovitis, Acne, Palmoplantar pustolisis, hyperostosis, osteitis

Middle aged adults

  • Hyperostosis, ankylosis of sternoclaviular joint is classical*
  • progresses to involve medial clavicles and costal cartilages and upper ribs
  • 1/3 of patients have spinal involvement with osteosclerosis*
  • Unilateral sacroilitis can be seen*
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8
Q

Where does Psoriatic arthropathy typically affect?

A

Erosive change with bone proliferation’

  • Pencil in cup deformity*
  • Mouse ears*
  • Ankylosis*

Usually prefers DIPs over MCPs

Affects:

  • spine
  • SI joints

-Bony erosions

-Periosteal new bone formation

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9
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis distribution?

A

Characterised by:

  • osteoporosis
  • -soft tissue swelling*
  • -marginal erosions*
  • -uniform joint space narrowing*

Often Bilateral and symmetric

**Spares the DIP joints

**5th metaTARsal is the first place in foot to be affected

Good differentiator for RA/Psoriatic vs OA is that OA will always affect first CMC joint first (in RA and psoriatic it will be the last of the carpals to be affected

Distal radioulnar joint

Radiocarpal joint

MCPs & PIPs

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10
Q

What are the 5 features of charcot joint?

What is main cause of a charcot shoulder?

A

Compromise to the senosry nerves to the area compromise normal protective mechanisms

Affected joints can be Atrophic (bony destruction and little sclerosis) which is most common or Heterotrophic (fragmentation and debris with alot of sclerosis)

  • Destruction*
  • Dislocation*
  • Density (heterotrophic)*
  • Disorganisation*
  • Debris*

Loose bodies

Most common cause of shoulder charcot is Syringomyelia

Other causes of charcot:

  • Diabetes
  • Leprosy (hansen disease)
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Neurosyphilis
  • MS
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11
Q

How to differentiate charcot vs osteomyelitis?

A

TCharcot is a neuopathic process and usually affects midfoot. Can affect multiple joints at once

Osteomyelitis tends to be over area of ulcer or infection and involve isolated joint. Tend to prefer pressure points in the feet. Effusion is common. High T2 signal in the bone.

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12
Q

What is Osteopetrosis?

A

Hereditary disorder

Abnormal osteoclasts result in thick and sclerotic bone

-Poorly formed therefore high propensity for fractures

Features: appear as bone within bone appearance

highly dense appearing bones

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13
Q

What is name of condition which appears as multiple sclerotic bone islands oval in shape?

A

Osteopoikilosis

Mild uptake on NM bone scan

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14
Q

How to differentiate cam type vs pincer FAI?

A

Cam - bony overgrowth of femoral neck

  • more frequently in men in 30’s
  • predisposing conditions: SUFE, DDH
  • femoral retroversion

Pincer: -overcoverage of the femoral head by bony protruberance of anterosuperior acetabulum

  • acetabular retroversion
  • more common in women around 40 years
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15
Q

What ligament damage causes VISI (volar intercalated segmental instability?

A

VISI - Lunotriquetral

Injury to this ligament also causes midcarpal dislocation

SLAC & DISI - Scapholunate ligament injury

Perilunate dislocation = Capitolunate ligament injury

Lunate dislocation = Dorsal radiolunate ligament injury

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16
Q

What is name given to dripping candle wax apperance on bone?

A

Melorrheostosis

Resembles dripping of solid candle wax on a bone

Can cross joints and bones

Appears as dense sclerosis

Can cause flexion contractures

FIbrosis of overlying skin

Usually affects just one joint

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17
Q

What is Lipoma arborescens?

How is it different to PVNS? (below)

A

Fatty deposition in the synovium of the knee

Due to chronic inflammation of synovium

Older patients 50 - 70 years

Assc with OA/RA/prev trauma

Plain film will show joint effusion

MR will show high T1 and T2

Tx: Synovectomy

If there is nodular thickening in the synovium with frond like villonodular appearance in suprapatellar region (Low T1 and Low T2) - this is due to Pigmented villonodular synovitis (has haemosiderin deposition also)

-if patient is male, haemophilicarthropathy is differential

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18
Q

What causes bilateral symmetric sacroilitis?

A
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
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19
Q

What causes bilateral asymmetric sacroilitis?

A
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  • Gout
  • Reactive arthritis
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20
Q

What is alkaptonuria? (also known as ochronosis)

What are features?

A

Excessive homogenistic acid which has an affinity for collagen where it accumulates

Features

-Chondrocalcinosis

  • -Calcification and destruction of intervertebral joints*
  • -Premature osteoarthritis of hands, feet shoulder, hips, knees*
  • -Depositon in heart and kidneys leads to heart and renal failure*
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21
Q

Where does pseudogout typically effect?

A

The patellofemoral joint – joint space loss here can be extremely striking with almost complete preservation of the joint space at the medial and lateral compartments of the knee

Triangular fibrocartilatinous complex of the wrist – calcification

Radiocarpal joints – degenerative changes without involvement of the DIPs and PIPs

Soft tissue calcification is common and chondrocalcinosis is also classical. The formation of unusually large subchondral cysts is often seen and sometimes these can be so large that they are mistaken for giant cell tumours.

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22
Q

What are features of enteropathic arthritis?

A

This occurs in a subsect of patients with inflammatory or infective bowel disease. Roughly 10-20% of patients with Crohn’s or ulcerative colitis suffer from enteropathic arthropathy. Like chronic reactive arthropathy, it can also occur in the context of salmonella, shigella and yersinia infections. Appearances are very similar to those of ankylosing spondylitis; the two can be very difficult to separate radiologically.

  • Bilateral symmetrical sacroillitis
  • Enthesopathy
  • Vertebral syndesmophytes
  • Fusion of spinous processes
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23
Q

What is Osteomalacia?

A

Soft bone due to Vitamin D or phosphate deficiency of various causes

  • -Appears as diffuse osteopenia*
  • -blurred appearance to trabeculae*
  • -poor corticomedullar differentiation*

Loosers Zones

Insufficiency fractures that appear as wide lucent bands that traverse bone at right angle to cortex

There is sclerosis surrounding the lucency

Classic places - pubic rami and femoral necks (can happen anywhere though)

When you see these = think rickets of osteomalacia

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24
Q

Transient osteoporosis of the hip

What is typical presentation and in whom?

A

Typically pregnant woman in 3rd trimester with involvement of the left hip

Will have loss of subchondral cortex of the femoral head and neck region.

-No joint space narrowing

-Joint effusion

Increased uptake on Bone scan

Plain film - Osteopenia

MRI - Oedema

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25
Q

What are features of a vertebral met/tumour?

A

There wont be a vertebral body fracture until almost all of the VB is infiltrated by tumour

If low on T1 (lower than disc) and involvement of posterior cortex, think met

Its helpful to look at rest of spine as mets are often multiple

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26
Q

What is Osteochondral Dissecans?

A

Occurs in males under age 18 usually

It is separation of an osteochondral fragment (most common in medial femoral condyle) which can result in fragmentation of the articular surface and secondary OA.

Commonly due to trauma e.g. repetitive stress/gymnastics

Can occur in capitellum of elbow, ankle.

MRI - may see a T2 line between bone and osteochondral defect signifying instability and detachment

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27
Q

What are classic appearances of Osteomyelitis on plain film?

A

Destruction of bone and periosteal new bone foramation

Chronic Osteomyelitis

Where osteomyelitis has persisted for longer than 6 weeks

Classic sign is sequestrum (area of necrotic bone surrounded by granulation tissue best seen on CT)

  • Draining sinus tracts are a risk factor for SCC*
  • On MRI Osteomyelitis will be Low T1 and high STIR*
28
Q

How do you know when osteomyelitis has healed?

A

There will be return of normal FATTY marrow signal to bone

29
Q

What is relationship with discitis and osteomyelitis?

A

Discitis osteomyelitis nearly always go hand in hand

Spread of infection to the disc is usually via the very vascular vertebral body endplate. Infection then crosses to contiguous endplate below/above disc

Common Adult Causes

Recent surgery or procedure

Systemic infection that has spread

30
Q

What is Potts Disease?

What is spared in Potts?

What are assc findings?

What is a Gibbus deformity?

A

TB of the spine

Spares the disc spaces

Gibbus deformity is a destructive kyphosis

31
Q

What is Fourniers gangrene?

A

Nec fasc of the scrotum essentially

32
Q

Pagets Disease

A

Excessive bone remodelling - disease of osteoclasts

3 stages: Lytic – Mixed — Sclerotic

  • ‘Expanded bone with coarsened trabecular pattern’*
  • Affects:*
  • -Spine*
  • -Skull*
  • -Pelvis*
  • -Proximal long bones*

Elevated ALP
Normal calcium and phosphate

Spine: picture frame sign denotes sclerosis of VB cortex rim on all 4 sides (rugger jersey is top and bottom only)

Cotton wool appearance to skull (lytic and sclerotic lesions)

Osteoporosis circumscripta (well defined lucent lesions in skull)

33
Q

Pattern of destruction in RA vs OA at hips

A
34
Q

RA vs Psoriasis

What are differences?

A
35
Q

Reiters or Reactive Arthritis

Where is typical distribution?

A

BELOW THE WAIST

  • -tends to affect feet*
  • -bone changes are similar to psoriatic arthritis (bone proliferation, erosions)*
  • -asymmetric SI involvement*
  • -urethritis*
  • -conjunctivitis*
36
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Where is first affected?

Where in the peripheral skeleton can be involved?

What can occur post hip replacement?

A

SI joints are first places affected

  • When there is involvement of peripheral skeleton hips and shoulders are most common*
  • Heterotrophic ossification (bone growth in soft tissues around hip) can occur post hip replacement - can often need NSAIDS or radiotherapy*
37
Q

Asymmetric vs Symmetric involvement of SI joints

What causes bilateral symmetric?

A
38
Q

Gout

What are features?

A
  • Earliest sign is joint effusion*
  • -SPARES joint space until late on*
  • -Juxt-aarticular erosions away from joint*
  • -Overhanging edges*
  • -Punched out lytic lesions*
  • -Soft tissue tophi*
39
Q

Haemochromatosis

What bone changes occur?

A

Hooked osteophytes at the MCP joints

  • uniform joint space loss at ALL MCPs
  • due to CPPD deposition

CPPD

CPPD deposition without haemochrom can cause same appearance of hooked osteophytes but tends to favour index and middle fingers

-chondrocalcinosis in TFC is classic!!

CPPD tends to affect atypical joints such as radiocarpal, talonavicular or patellofemoral

40
Q

What 4 things cause widening of intercondylar notch of knee?

A

HRPT

Haemphilia

RA/JIA

Psoriatic arthropathy

TB

41
Q

Madelung Deformity

What is it?

What are features?

A
42
Q

What is Osteopathia striata?

A

Logitudinal striations in the metaphysis of long bones

Bone looks like celery

Inherited or sporadic

43
Q

What is Phyknodysostosis?

What is differential?

A

Differential is osteopetrosis

  • Diffuse bony sclerosis
  • Patients are short stature
  • Frontal bossing and small mandible. (this is differentiator)
  • Stubby fingers

Medulla within bone will be visible (NOT visible in Osteopetrosis)

44
Q

Downs features

A

HypOtelorism

Atlantoaxial subluxaton

Flattening acetabular roof

ANTERIOR VERT scalloping

Metaphyseal flaring

45
Q

What are features of shin splints on bone scan?

A

Linear uptake on bone scan at posterior aspects of the tibia

(In stress fracture = patchy uptake is more likely)

46
Q

Hair on end periosteal reaction in child

Agressive vs benign

A

Aggressive

47
Q

Most common skeletal abnormality in NF1?

A

Scoliosis is most common

-Widening of intervertebral foraminae

48
Q

Skeletal manifestation of haemophilia in knee?

A

Squared patella

49
Q

What is Dolichocephaly?

A

Head is disproportionaltey long and narrow

50
Q

What is diagnosis in patient with Bilateral posterior iliac horns?

A

Nail Patella Syndrome

  • poorly developed finger and toe nails
  • absent patella
  • abnormal gait and renal fn
51
Q

Where in hands does CPPD and Haemochromatosis affect?

A

Affects MCP joints of Index and middle fingers

52
Q

What is Jaccouds arthropathy?

A

Deforming non-errosive arthropathy

Ulnar deviation of second to fifth digits

Assc with post rheumatic fever

53
Q

Neuro complication of Pagets?

A

Basilar impression (bony overgrowth of tip of C2 which compresses the brainstem and can cause confusion and hydricephalus)

Spinal stenosis

54
Q

What are most common foot coalitions?

A

Calcaneonavicular and talocalcaneal

Best view is oblique for calcaneonavicular coalition

Bony union across MIDDLE FACET is seen in talocalcaneal

55
Q

What is Madelung deformity ass with?

A

Assc with Turners Syndrome

Madelungs is abnormal growth of the distal radial physis leading to volar and ulnar tilt of the distal radius

56
Q

What is function of popliteus tendon?

A

Unlocks the knee from full extension (internally rotates tibia)

Popliteus controls lateral mensical displacement

57
Q

Tibialis posterior - is it medial or lateral?

A

Medial

Can have spontaneous tibialis posterior rupture

Usually woman 40 - 60’s. Presents with medial foot pain.

58
Q

Is clay shovelers stable or unstable?

A

Stable

C7/T1 fracture?

59
Q

Where in the vertebral body is most common for haematogenous metastatic spread?

A

Anterior vertebral body

60
Q

Le fort fractures

A
61
Q

Sclerotic Mets

A
  1. Prostate
  2. Breast
  3. TCC
  4. Carcinoid
  5. Mucinous adenocarcinoma
62
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly, metaphyseal flaring (widened metaphysis and narrow diaphysis),

What is diagnosis?

A

Gauchers

63
Q

4 H’s as causes of CPPD

What are they?

A
  1. Haemochromatosis
  2. Hyperparathyroidism
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Hypomagnesaemia
64
Q

Scaphoid AVN

What is the name?

A

Preisers Disease

65
Q

Morquio

A

Only mucopolysaccharide disorder with normal intellect

  • central anterior vertebral body beak (others have anterior beak in the lower third of vertebral body - hurlers. acondoraplasia is also lower third beaking)
  • J shaped sella turcuca
  • Oar shaped ribs
66
Q

What is the ‘double line sign’ in context of hip issues?

A

Seen in sickle cell patients due to AVN femoral head

High and low linear T2 signal

67
Q

Erlenmeyer flask deformity

A