Neuro - ENT/Head & Neck Flashcards

1
Q

What is Labryinthitis?

A

Inflammation of the membranous labryinth

Usually due to viral respiratory tract infection

Findings:

Cochlea and semicircular canals will be enhancing on MRI T1 post contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Vernet syndrome?

V vocal

A

Syndrome which develops when there is pathology of JUGULAR FORAMEN

Affects cranial nerves IX, X and XI (all pass through jugular foramen)

  • Loss of taste posterior third tongue
  • Vocal cord paralysis
  • Weakness sternocleidomastoid and traps
  • Dysphasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are features of optic neuritis?

A

High T2 signal

(In mengingioma, there is post contrast peripheral enhancement with central non enhancement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are features of optic nerve meningioma?

T1 and T2

A

Can be variable signal on T1 and T2 (possibly iso iso)

AVID contrast enhancement

1/3 have calcifications - tram track

**DISTAL portion of the optic nerve is usually spared**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Rathke Cleft cyst?

A

High T2 lesion which sits between anterior and posterior pituitary

Mural enhancement

Generally Asymptommatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Middle ear mass with blue tympanic membrane

What diagnosis is top of list?

A

Cholesterol granuloma

High T1 and T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name 2 destructive lesions of the clivus?

A

Chordoma (agressive lesion)

  • can cause mass effect on pons and basilar
  • can have calcific fragments within

Mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How to differentiate orbital tumour from Graves eye disease?

A

Orbital pseudotumour causes enlargement of the muscle belly. Can involve tendons and be painful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are adamantinomas?

What are ameloblastomas?

A

Rare malignant bone tumours

Usually grow in tibia

-Multilocular expansile lytic lesion in tibial diaphysis

Ameloblastomas are benign agressive tumours which grow in jaw

-Cortical destruction

-Soap bubble appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where are intra conal and conal lesions located?

Differentials within each space

A

Outside the globe there are three conditions which are included in all of the other orbital compartments namely sarcoidosis, pseudotumours and lymphoproliferative lesions.

Remember Rhabdomyosarcomas occur in young patients therefore thyroid eye disease is more likely in older patients with a conal lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What MRI apperances can be present after denervation injury to tissue?

T1 and T2 apperances of tissue

A

T1 low

T2 high

Same appearance can be seen in acute inflammation during early recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Displacement of pharyngeal space directions

5 Spaces

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are brown tumours?

A

Tumours associated with hyperparathyroidism

It is a reparative cellular process rather than agressive lesion

Histologically identical to Giant Cell Tumors (important to remember and check Ca and PTH levels therefore)

Can be in hands/jaw/skull to name a few

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the features of an inverted papilloma?

A

-Vascular tumour arising from the lateral wall of nasal cavity and causes destruction through medial wall of maxillary sinus

-10% have a squamous cell cancer

Features of Antrochoanal polpy

Young adults

Widening of the maxillary ostium

Polyp can extend into the nasopharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 2 types of Cholesteatoma?

What is most common?

A
  1. Pars flaccida (most common)
    - erodes scutum and extends superiorly
    - displaces ossicles medially
  2. Pars tensa
    - Erodes ossicles
    - Extends medially
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is best scan to look for ectopic parathyroid adenoma?

A

Methionine-PET most sensitive

or

99Tc MIBI and USS can be an option if PET not listed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Tullio phenomenon?

A

Vertigo and nystagmus induced by loud noises

Can be due to Superior semicurcular canal dehiscence (where there is absence of bony covering of superior semicircular canal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cholesteatoma recurrence vs complications - how to tell apart?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is most common thyroid cancer and how does it appear on US?

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

Irregular outline

Punctate calcifications are suggestive of papillary

Regional lymph nodes present in 40% and tend to cavitate

Note Medullar cancers can also have calcifications

If calcified lymph nodes - MORE LIKELY MEDULLARY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Opaque Maxillary Antrum

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How to differentiate Graves disease from Orbital pseudotumour?

A

Graves eye disease starts with one muscle involved but can progress to involve others too. The mnemonic for remembering the order in which the eye muscles are affected in Graves eye disease is: I’m Slow (Inferior, Medial, Superior, Lateral).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Petrous apex lesions differential

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are cholesterol granulomas a result of?

What clinical feature do they demonstrate?

A

Recurrent otitis media infection

  • Haemorrhage within middle ear leads to formation of granulation tissue
  • Can cause bony expansion

-Classically BLUE TYMPANIC membrane on examaination (careful as this is also case in jugular bulb dehisicence)

High signal on T1 due to methaemoglobin

-cholesteatoma is ISODENSE T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Gradenigo syndrome?

What is petrous apicitis?

A

Triad of:

  1. Otitis media/Otomastoiditis
  2. Retro-orbital pain
  3. 6th Nerve palsy

Due to abscess in aerated petrous apex (apicitis)

Usually caused by pseudomonas or enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name 5 differentials for nasal masses?

Which ones occur in young patients?

A

1. Sinonasal lymphoma (non-hodgkins)

Homogenous mass with bony destruction. LOW T2 SIGNAL***

Older patients >60 years

2. SCC

Aggressive soft tissue mass in maxillary antrum

Low T2

3. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

Exclusively adolescent males

Flow voids on T1

Treated with radiation therapy

4. Enthesioneuroblastoma

Dumbell shaped tumour with waits at cribriform plate

5. Antrochoanal polyp

Young adults.

Arise from maxillary sinus and cause widening of maxillary antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is best sequence to detect optic atrophy?

A

Coronal CISS

This is a heavily T2 weighted sequence

Look for excess CSF around optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pleomorphic adenoma features?

What is 80% rule?

A

Cystic on MRI

Low T1, High T2

80% in parotid gland

80% benign

Differential is Warthin tumour

  • assc with smokers
  • usually bilateral or multiple unilateral
  • warthin tumours dont enhance
  • usually in tail of parotid whereas pleomorphic can be superficial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Enhancing mass in middle ear with aplastic foramen spinosum

What is diagnosis?

A

Abberant internal carotid artery

(Pulsatile mass is a feature)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Enhancement of which parts of the facial nerve are abnormal?

A
  1. Intracranial segment (cisternal)
  2. Meatal segment inside internal auditory canal (Canalicular)
  3. Extratemporal segment

Causes of abnormal enhancement

Bells palsy (cannalicular segment)

Lymes

Ramsey Hunt

Think Cancer if nodular enhancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Enlarged vestibular aqueduct

A

Most common inner ear issue associated with progressive sensorineural hearing loss

SEEN IN Pendred syndrome

Often bilateral

-Ass with cochlear deformity

Vestibular aqueduct is bony canal that connects inner ear to endolymphatic sac

(menieres associated with small vestibular aqueduct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are 2 causes of deafness in the neonate?

Explain difference

A

1. Mondini Malformation

Cochlear hypoplasia

Only 1.5 turns instead of 2.5

Assc with large vestibule and large vestibular aqueduct

Sensorineural hearing loss (high pitch sounds preserved)

2. Michel Aplasia

‘Complete labryinthe aplasia

Absent cochlea, vestibule, vestibular aqueduct

Deaf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is an endolyphatic sac tumour?

What is it assc with?

A

Tumour of endolymphatic sac and duct

Ass with Von hippel lindau

  • Will have internal amorphous calcifications
  • T2 bright with intense enhancement
  • Vascular flow voids present
41
Q

How does abberant internal carotid artery come about?

What finding does it give?

A

Due to an underdeveloped cervical ICA

Collaterals develop and travel through the middle ear tympanic cavity then joins the horizontal carotid canal

DO NOT Biopsy

Look for connection to carotid canal

Causes pulsatile tinnitus

42
Q

Pagets of the skull?

How does it affect it?

A

Involves both inner and outer tables

A large well defined lucent lesion can be seen - this osteolysis circumscripta

Other findings

  • Cranial nerve palsies
  • Deafness
  • Secondary oestosarcoma

If thinking this looks like fibrous dysplasia - LOOK AT AGE

Fibrous dysplasia favours younger patients under 30 years of age and favours outer table

Pagets is older person

43
Q

Hyperdense sinus contents

What are differentials?

A

Hyperdense contents = BENIGN

A tumour will NOT be dense

Causes

  • Intissipated secretions
  • Blood
  • Fungus
44
Q

What is Ludwigs angina?

A

Aggressive cellulitis of the floor of mouth

Gas will be everywhere

Most cases start with odontogenic infection

45
Q

What is a Ranula?

A

Benign mucous retention cystic lesions at the floor of the mouth

Arise from sublingual space

A plunging ranula extends into the submandibular space

Treatment

Surgical excision of cyst and submandibular gland

Incision and drainage will just result in reaccumulation

46
Q

Young adult with level II mass

  1. What is likely diagnosis?
A

HPV related SCC

47
Q

Name 2 agressive lesions of the parotid gland?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Malignant tumour that can occur in minor salivary glands, lacrimal glands, sinuses and head & neck

Major thing to know is they they can exhibit Perineural spread

Lymphoma

Patients with sjogrens have a 1000x risk of non-hodgkins MALT lymphoma

Presents as bilateral lymphoma in sjogrens

‘Honeycombing appearance’

48
Q

What are the 3 most common tumours of the carotid space?

A
  1. Paraganglioma
  2. Schwannoma
  3. Neurofibroma

Carotid space can also be the site of lymph node mets - if you see mets think metastatic SCC

Carotid Space contains:

  • Carotid artery
  • Jugular vein
  • CN 9,10,11
  • Internal jugular LN
49
Q

1.

What are the 3 main types of paraganglioma?

What are appearances of a ganglioma?

A

Hypervascular

‘Salt and pepper’ appearance due to flow voids

  • Can be bilateral as part of other conditions*
  • Octreotide accumulates in these masses*

1. Carotid body tumour

At carotid bifurcation

Causes splaying of the ICA and ECA

2. Glomus jugulare

Destruction of jugular foramen

Destruction of middle ear floor

3. Glomus tympanicum

Confined to middle ear

Overlies the cochlear promontory

If middle ear intact = glomus tympanicum

If not intact = glomus jugulare

50
Q

2.

Apperances of schwannoma in context of carotid space masses?

A
  • Ovoid, heterogenous cystic and solid mass*
  • Commonly affect CN 10 - Vagus nerve schwannoma*
  • (9,11, 12 can be effected)*

Heterogenous

Bright T2

Avid enhancement of solid components

Picture is of vagus nerve schwannoma

51
Q

3.

Neurofibromas in context of carotid space masses

A

Less common than schwannoma

Tend to be more homogenous than schwannoma

Demonstrate classic target sign with Decreased T2 central signal

52
Q

What is contained in Masticator space?

A

Muscle of mastication and inferior alveolar nerve

Beware that the space extends superiorly along the side of the skull via the temporalis muscle

53
Q

What is the most common cause of masticator space mass?

A

Dental abscess is most common cause

If you see a masticator abscess, next thing to do is look at the mandible on bone windows for signs of erosion/cavity/recent extraction that would explain source

Be aware of spread via the pterygopalatine fossa to the orbital apex and cavernous sinus

54
Q

Other masticator space masses?

Remember this includes the jaw bone

A

Sarcomas - in kids. Rhabdomyosarcoma of jaw

Nerve Sheath tumours - inferior alveolar nerve which is a branch of V3 therefore fairgame

Perineural spread along V3 - think Adenoid cystic carcinoma of minor salivary ducts and Melanoma

55
Q

Lymph node levels in the neck

A

Level 1: Submental and submandibular

-anterior belly digastric separates 1a/1b

1a = submental nodes

1b = submandibular nodes

Level 2: Upper internal jugular (deep cervical chain)

-hyoid bone separates levels II and III

Level 3: Middle internal jugular (deep cervical chain)

-cricoid cartilage separates III and IV

Level 4: Lower internal jugular (deep cervical chain)

-includes supraclavicular nodes and virchows node

Level 5: Posterior triangle

Level 5a - posterior to levels II and III

Level 5b - posterior to level IV

56
Q

Where is most common place for a Nasopharyngeal cancer to start?

A

Fossa of Rosenmuller

Located in the posterolateral pharyngeal recess

Nasopharyngeal Cancer:

-most common in asians

involvement of parapharyngela space confers worse prognosis

-nodal mets present in >90% of nasopharyngeal tumours

57
Q

Laryngeal Cancers

How are they divided?

What are boundaries of supraglottic larynx?

A

1. Supraglottic

2. Glottic

3. Subglotic

Supraglottic

Extends from tip of epiglottis to laryngeal ventricle (slit like space between true and false vocal cords - seen as the slight indentation on axial CT just before true vocal cords appear)

58
Q

What are boundaries of glottic larynx?

A
  1. True vocal cords
  2. Anterior commisure
  3. Posterior commisure
59
Q

What are boundaries of subglottic larynx?

A

From inferior surface of the true vocal cords to inferior aspect of cricoid cartilage

60
Q

Where are 2 areas supraglottic cancers usually arise?

A

1. Usually are centered on the epiglottis

Tends to spread anteriorly into pre-epiglottic fat

-More agressive

  • -Early lymph node mets*
  • -DONT GET HOARSENESS*

2. Centrered on false cord

False cord mass spreading laterally into paraglottic fat

Spread to the fat makes this a T3

61
Q

What are glottic cancers centered on?

A

Most common laryngeal cancer

Progressive and continuous hoarseness

  • -Best outcome*
  • -Grow slowly*
  • -Mets are late*

Usually centered on the vocal cord

Spreads anteriorly to the anterior commisure

62
Q

Where are subglottic cancers seen?

A

Soft tissue thickening between airway and cricoid ring

  • -Less common*
  • -Can have bilateral nodal disease and mediastinal extension*
63
Q

What is a contra-indication to laryngeal surgery?

A

Invasion of the cricoid cartilage is a contraindication

64
Q

What does the osteomeatal complex drain?

A

Drains frontal sinus, maxillary and anterior & middle ethmoid sinuses

65
Q

What is located in epitympanum?

A
66
Q

Where is Prussek space?

A
67
Q

What is in the mesotympanum?

A
68
Q

What are features of inverted papilloma?

What is is also known as?

A

Polypoid mass in nasal cavity

Causes bony destruction of the medial wall maxillary sinus

Heterogenous enhancement

Also known as Schneiderian polyp

69
Q

Cystic lesions in the mandible

A
70
Q

Where are the tonsils located? Oropharunx or hypopharynx

A
71
Q

What is a Tornwaldt cyst?

A

Benign lesion in midline of posterior nasopharynx

Midline mass over posterior wall of nasopharynx

72
Q

What organism causes retropharyngeal abscess?

A

Staph aureus

73
Q

Jugular formaen mengingioma

How does it spread in bone?

A

Spreads along skull base

74
Q

What is Morquio syndrome?

A

Many cases present at ~2 years of age and have normal intelligence. Clinical features:

  • severe dwarfism (<4 foot)
  • joint laxity
  • corneal opacification/clouding
  • lymphadenopathy
  • progressive deafness
  • spinal kyphoscoliosis
  • prominent mandible and lower face
  • short neck
75
Q

Sturge Weber

Features?

A

Pial angioma

Hemiatrophy

Seizures

Port wine naevi

76
Q

Widespread intracranial punctate calcifications in a CHILDREN post chemo for acute leukaemia

What is diagnosis?

A

Mineralising angiopathy

77
Q

In hashimotos thyroiditis (hypothyroid) what does PET show?

What is hashimotos at increased risk of?

A

Diffuse low uptake in hashimotos

Hashimotos puts increased risk of lymphoma

De Quervans

Also low uptake on PET

78
Q

What is in the epitympanum?

MI

A

Head of malleous

Short crus of incus

79
Q

Where is Prussek space?

A

Epitympanum

Behind the upper part of tympanic membrane

80
Q

What is in the mesotympanum?

A

Manubrium and anterior process of malleous

Stapes

Stapes is connected to the oval window

Round window is a vent to allow release of inner ear pressure

81
Q

What is best form of imaging for looking at malignant otitis externa?

A

MRI

Causes osteomyelitis of skull base

82
Q

What gives small vestibular aqueduct?

A

Menieres Disease

83
Q

What part of facial nerve enhances in Bells palsy?

A

Labryinth (also known as intrameatal segment)

84
Q

What are the Agger Nasi cells?

A

Most anterior ethmoidal air cells

Normal variant

Appear as a pneumatised cell arising from lateral nasal wall at edge of middle turbinate

Agger nasi serve as the anterior limit of the frontal sinus

85
Q

What thyroid nodule characteristic is most concerning for malignancy?

A

Microcalcification

Followed by:

  • irregular margins
  • nodule taller than it is wide
86
Q

Causes of basilar invagination

PF ROACH

A

Basilar invagination is where the odontoid process of C2 sits at or above the level of the basion-opthision

Should be 5mm below

  • Pagets*
  • Fibrous dysplasia*
  • Rheumatoid, Rickets*
  • Osteogenesis imprefecta. Osteromalacia*
  • Acondroplasia*
  • Chiari I/II, Cleidocranial dysosotisis*
  • Hyperparathyroidism*