Diagnostic imaging of bones 1 and 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What do you need to include in your description of fractures?

A
  • Location: Diaphyseal, physeal, articular
  • Orientation: Transverse, oblique, spiral
  • Displacement: Distal segment relative to proximal
  • Comminuted?
    o This means multiple fragments
  • Open/closed?
    o This is part of both the physical exam and radiography (is there gas in the soft tissue?)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How would you describe this image?

A

Mid and distal diaphysis of the tibia with cranial lateral and proximal displacement, it is comminuted and it does not appear to be open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long does it take to see a periosteal response radiographically?

A

8-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 4 A’s of fracture repair?

A

Alignment, apposition, apparatus and activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which complication of fracture healing is this image demonstrating?

A

Non-union - this fracture is not healing and there is no evidence of repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the main reasons for non-union?

A
  • Atrophic (avascular) - limited/no vascular supply to support repair
  • Hypertrophic - Lots of repair but can occur when the fracture is not immobilised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which complication of fracture healing is this image demonstrating?

A

Malunion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which complication of fracture healing is this image demonstrating?

A

Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Do we expect to see differences in fracture repair in a puppy vs an adult dog?

A

Yes, younger animals are more able to heal fractures more rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What would you expect to see in an aggressive bone lesion?

A
  • Poorly demarcated
  • Wide zone of transition
  • Poorly marginated osteolysis
  • Cortex interrupted
  • Interrupted irregular periosteal reaction
  • No surrounding sclerosis
  • Rapid rate of change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give some examples of aggressive bone lesions.

A
  • Malignant neoplasia
  • Primary bone tumours
  • Metastatic bone lesions
  • Round cell tumours
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Bacterial
  • Fungal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give some examples of aggressive bone lesions.

A
  • Malignant neoplasia (Primary bone tumours, Metastatic bone lesions, Round cell tumours)
  • Osteomyelitis (Bacterial, Fungal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What would you expect to see in an NON-aggressive bone lesion?

A
  • Well demarcated
  • Narrow zone of transition
  • Absent or geographic osteolysis
  • Cortex may be displaced, remodelled and thin, but not broken
  • Solid, smooth periosteal reaction
  • +/- Surrounding sclerosis
  • Static or slow rate of change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give some examples of NON-aggressive bone lesions.

A
  • Benign neoplasia (Osteoma, Chondroma, Osteochondroma, Multiple cartilaginous exostosis)
  • Bone cysts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What factors affect fracture healing?

A
  • Vascularity
  • Fracture site
  • Fracture type
  • Fracture reduction
  • fracture motion
  • age and general health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the types outlined in the salter-harris classificaiton of bone fractures?

A
  • Type 1 - goes straight through the open growth centre
  • Type 2 - through the physis and exit the metaphysis, no articular involvement
  • Type 3 - usually articular goes through the epiphysis and goes straight out the physis (rare)
  • Type 4 - Articular fracture, goes through epiphysis, involves the physis, exits through the metaphysis
  • Type 5 - Crush injury to the physis
16
Q

What is the difference between mono-ostotic and poly-ostotic (both localised and generalised)?

A
  • Mono-osmotic - one bone affected
  • Poly-osmotic localised - multiple bones affected, but within the same region
  • Poly-ostotic generalised - multiple bones affected, seen in more than one region in the skeleton
17
Q

What are the types of primary malignant bone tumours?

A
  • Osteosarcoma
  • Chrondrosarcoma
  • Fibrosarcoma
  • Haemangiosarcoma
  • Liposarcoma
18
Q

Desribe the common features of primary malignant bone tumours.

A
  • Mixed lytic and productive
  • long zone of transition
  • mono-ostotic
19
Q

Desribe the common features of metastatic bone tumours.

A

o Highly lytic
o Long zone of transition
o Poly-ostotic, generalised

20
Q

Desribe the common features of osteomyelitits.

A
  • Primarily productive
  • long zone of transition
  • mono-ostotic
  • poly-ostotic (generalised and or localised)
21
Q

What are we looking at here?

A

Osteoarthrosis - Irregular new bone formation

22
Q

What are we expecting to see in degenerative bone disorders?

A

Generally purely productive
- Periarticular new bone formation
- Subchondral bone sclerosis
- Soft tissue mineralization

23
Q

What types of bone disorders are younger animals likely to develop?

A
  • Developmental abnormalities such as dysplasia (eg. elbow or hip)
  • This usually results in degenerative joint disease
24
Q

Where are you most likely going to see osteochondrosis?

A
  • Medial humeral condyle (distal)
  • caudal humeral head
  • Lateral and medial trochlear ridges
  • lateral and medial femoral condyle
  • vertebral articular facets
25
Q

Explain hip dysplasia

A
  • Coxofemoral joint subluxation
  • Poor coverage of the femoral heads by acetabulea
  • Poor joint congruity
  • Osteoathrosis will develop - important to determine the cause. If it is a result of hip dysplasia, then we want to not breed these animals.
26
Q

What do we expect to see in septic arthritis?

A
  • Joint effusion
  • With or without subchondral erosion
  • Often occurs in joints with substantial arthritis
  • SEVERE pain