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Nur201 > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Fried rule

A

Applies to a child younger than 2
Child’s dose (1-2yr)=[(child’s age in months)/150] x average adult dose

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2
Q

Young Rule

A

Applies to children 1-12 years
Child’s dose (1-12yr)=[(child’s age in years)/child’s age + 12] x average adult dose

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3
Q

Clark rule

A

Infants under 1 year
Child’s dose = (weight of child (lb)/150) x average adult dose

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4
Q

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

A

Collection of Opportunistic infections and cancers that occurs when the immune system is severely depressed by a decrease in the the number of functioning helper T cells; caused by infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

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5
Q

AIDS related complex (ARC)

A

Collection of less serious Opportunistic infections with HIV infection; The Decrease in the number of helper, T cells is less severe than in fully developed AIDS

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6
Q

CCR5 coreceptor antagonist

A

A drug that blocks the receptor site on the T cell membrane that the HIV virus needs to interact with in order to enter the cell

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7
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

DNA virus that accounts for many respiratory ophthalmic and liver infections

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8
Q

Fusion inhibitor

A

A drug that prevents the fusion of the HIV-1virus with the human cellular membrane, preventing it from entering the cell

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9
Q

Helper T cell

A

Human lymphocyte that helps to initiate human immune reactions in response to tissue invasion

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10
Q

Hepatitis B

A

A serious to potentially fatal, viral infection of the liver, transmitted by bodily fluids

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11
Q

Hepatitis C

A

A usually mild, viral infection of the liver that can progress to chronic inflammation; most often seen hepatitis after blood transfusions

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12
Q

Herpes

A

DNA virus that accounts for many diseases, including shingles, cold, sores, genital, herpes, and encephalitis

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13
Q

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

A

Retro virus that attacks helper T cells, leading to a decrease in immune function, and AIDS or ARC

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14
Q

Influenza A

A

RNA virus that invades tissues of the respiratory tract, causing the signs and symptoms of the common cold or flu

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15
Q

Integrase inhibitor

A

A drug that inhibits the activity of the virus, specific enzyme, integrase, an encoded enzyme needed for viral replication; blocking this enzyme prevents the formation of the HIV-1 pro virus

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16
Q

Interferon

A

Tissue hormone that is released in response to viral invasion; blocks viral replication

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17
Q

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Drugs that bind to sites on the reverse transcriptase within the cell cytoplasm, preventing RNA and DNA dependent DNA polymerase activities, needed to carry out, viral DNA synthesis; prevents the transfer of information that allows the virus to replicate and survive

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18
Q

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Drugs that prevent the growth of the viral DNA chain, preventing it from inserting into the host, DNA, so viral replication cannot occur

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19
Q

Protease inhibitors

A

Drugs that block, the activity of the enzyme, protease, and HIV; protease is essential for the maturation of infectious virus, and it’s absence leads to the formation of an immature and non-infective HIV particle

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20
Q

Virus

A

Particle of DNA or RNA, surrounded by a protein coat that survives by invading a cell to alter its functioning

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21
Q

Active immunity

A

The formation of antibodies secondary to exposure to a specific antigen; leads to the formation of plasma, cells, antibodies, and memory cells to immediately produce antibodies, if exposed to that antigen in the future; imparts lifelong immunity

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22
Q

Anti-toxins

A

Immune sera that contain antibodies to specific toxins, produced by invaders; may prevent the toxin from adhering to body, tissues, and causing disease

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23
Q

Antivenins 

A

Immune sera that contain antibodies to specific venins , produced by poisonous snakes or spiders; may prevent venom from causing cell death

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24
Q

Biological

A

Vaccines,immune sera, and anti-toxins that are used to stimulate the production of antibodies to provide performed antibodies to facilitate an immune reaction, or to react specifically with the toxins produced by an invading pathogen

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25
Q

Immune sera

A

Preformed antibodies found in immunoglobulin from animals or humans who have had a specific disease and developed antibodies to it

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26
Q

Immunization

A

The process of stimulating active immunity by exposing the body to weekend, or less toxic proteins associated with specific disease causing organisms; the goal is to stimulate immunity without causing the full course of a disease

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27
Q

Passive immunity

A

The injection of performed antibodies into a host at high risk for exposure to a specific disease; immunity is limited by the amount of circulating antibodies

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28
Q

Serum sickness

A

Reaction of a host to injected antibodies or foreign sera; host cells, make antibodies to the foreign proteins and a massive immune reaction can occur

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29
Q

Apnea

A

Temporary cessation of breathing

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30
Q

Bronchophony

A

Abnormal increase in clarity of transmitted voice sounds heard, when osculating belongs

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31
Q

Bronchoscopy

A

Direct examination of the larynx trachea and bronchi using endoscope

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32
Q

Cilia

A

Short fine hairs that provide a constant whipping motion that serves to propel mucus and foreign substances away from the lung toward the larynx

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33
Q

Compliance

A

Measure of the force required to expand or inflate the lungs

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34
Q

Crackles

A

Non-musical discontinuous popping sounds during inspiration caused by delayed reopening of the airways heard on chest auscultation 

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35
Q

Dyspnea

A

Subjective experience that describes an uncomfortable or painful, breathing sensation when either at rest, or while walking or climbing stairs; also commonly referred to as shortness of breath

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36
Q

Egophony

A

Abnormal change in tone of voice that is heard when auscultating the lungs

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37
Q

Fremitus

A

Vibrations of speech felt as tremors of the chest wall during palpitation

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38
Q

Hemoptysis

A

Expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract

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39
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Decrease in arterial oxygen tension in the blood

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40
Q

Hypoxia

A

Decrease in oxygen supply to the tissues and cells

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41
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea

A

Temporary absence of breathing during sleep, secondary to transient upper airway obstruction

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42
Q

Orthopnea

A

Shortness of breath, when lying flat; relieved by sitting or standing

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43
Q

Oxygen saturation

A

Percentage of hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen

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44
Q

Physiologic dead space

A

Portion of the tracheobronchial tree that does not participate in gas exchange

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45
Q

Pulmonary diffusion

A

Exchange of gas molecules (Oxygen and carbon dioxide ) From areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration 

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46
Q

Pulmonary perfusion

A

Blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature

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47
Q

Respiration

A

Gas exchange between atmospheric air, and the blood, and between the blood and cells of the body

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48
Q

Rhonchi

A

Deep, low pitch snoring sounds associated with partial airway, obstruction, heard on chest auscultation

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49
Q

Strider

A

Continuous, high-pitched, musical sound heard on inspiration, best heard over the neck; may be heard, without use of a stethoscope, secondary to upper airway obstruction

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50
Q

Tachypnea

A

Abnormally, rapid, respirations

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51
Q

Tidal volume

A

Volume of air inspired an expired with each breath during normal breathing

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52
Q

Ventilation

A

Movement of air in and out of the airways

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53
Q

Wheezes

A

Continuous musical sounds associated with airway narrowing or partial obstruction

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54
Q

Whispered pectoriloquy

A

Whispered sound heard loudly, and clearly upon thoracic auscultation

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55
Q

Acute lung injury

A

An umbrella term for hypoxemic respiratory failure; equivalent to mild acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

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56
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

A

Nonspecific pulmonary response to a variety of pulmonary and non-pulmonary insults to the lung; characterized by interstitial infiltrates, alveolar hemorrhage, atelectasis, refractory hypoxemia, and with the exception of some patients with coronavirus disease, and ARDS, decreased compliance

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57
Q

Airway pressure release, ventilation (APRV)

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation that allows unrestricted, spontaneous breaths throughout the ventilatory cycle; on inspiration, the patient receives a preset, level of continuous positive, airway, pressure, and pressure is periodically released to aid expiration

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58
Q

Aspiration

A

Inhalation of either oralpharyngeal or gastric contents into the lower airways

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59
Q

Atelectasis

A

Collapse or airless condition of the alveoli caused by hypoventilation, obstruction to the airways, or compression

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60
Q

Bilevel, positive airway pressure (BiPAP)

A

Non-invasive spontaneous breath mode of mechanical ventilation that allows for the separate control of inspiratory and expiratory pressures; given via a mask

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61
Q

Central cyanosis

A

Bluish discoloration of the skin, or mucous membrane’s due to hemoglobin, caring, reduced amounts of oxygen

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62
Q

Chest drainage system

A

The use of a chest tube and closed drainage system to reexpand the lungs and remove excess air, fluid, or blood

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63
Q

Consolidation

A

Lung tissue that has become more solid in nature due to the collapse of alveoli are infectious process (Pneumonia )

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64
Q

Continuous mandatory (Volume or pressure ) Ventilation (CMV)

A

Also referred to as assist control (A/C) Ventilation; mode of mechanical ventilation, in which the patient’s breathing pattern may trigger the ventilator to deliver a preset tidal, volume or step pressure; in the absence of spontaneous breathing, the machine delivers a controlled breath at a preset, minimum rate, and tidal volume or set pressure 

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65
Q

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

A

Positive pressure applied throughout the respiratory cycle to a spontaneous breathing patient to promote alveolar and airway stability and increase functional residual capacity; may be given with endotracheal, or tracheostomy tube or by mask

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66
Q

Cor pulmonale

A

Heart of the lungs; enlargement of the right ventricle from hypertrophy or dilation as a secondary response to disorders that affect the lungs

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67
Q

Empyema

A

Accumulation of purulent material in the plural space

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68
Q

Endotracheal intubation

A

Insertion of a breathing tube through the nose or mouth into the trachea

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69
Q

Hemoptysis

A

The coughing up of blood from the lower respiratory tract

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70
Q

Hemothorax

A

Partial or complete collapse of the lung due to blood accumulating in the pleural space; may occur after surgery our trauma

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71
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Decrease in oxygen tension in the arterial blood

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72
Q

Hypoxia

A

Decrease in oxygen supply to the tissues and cells

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73
Q

Incentive spirometry

A

Method of deep breathing that provides visual feedback to help the patient inhale deeply, and slowly and achieve maximum long inflation

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74
Q

Intermittent mandatory (Volume or pressure ) Ventilation (IMV)

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation that provides a combination of mechanically assisted breaths at a preset volume of pressure and rate and spontaneous breaths

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75
Q

Induration

A

An abnormally, hard, legion or reaction, as in a positive tuberculosis skin test

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76
Q

Mechanical ventilator

A

A positive or negative pressure, breathing device that supports ventilation and oxygenation

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77
Q

Orthopnea

A

Shortness of breath, when reclining in or in the supine position

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78
Q

Plural effusion

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

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79
Q

Plural Friction rub

A

Localized grating or creaking sound caused by the rubbing together of inflamed, parietal and visceral pleura

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80
Q

Pleural space

A

The area between the parietal and visceral pleura a potential space

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81
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Partial or complete collapse of the lung due to a positive pressure in the pleural space

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82
Q

Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP)

A

Positive pressure maintained at the end of exhalation (Instead of a normal zero pressure) To increase functional residual capacity and open collapsed alveoli 

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83
Q

Pressure support ventilation (PSV)

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation, in which preset positive pressure is delivered with spontaneous breaths to decrease work of breathing

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84
Q

Proportional assist ventilation (PAV)

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation that provides partial ventilator support in proportion to the patient’s inspiratory effort; decreases the work of breathing

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85
Q

Purulent

A

Consisting of, containing, or discharging puss

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86
Q

Respiratory weaning

A

Process of gradual, systematic, withdrawal, a removal of ventilator, breathing tube, and oxygen

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87
Q

Restrictive lung disease

A

Disease of the lung that causes a decrease in lung volumes

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88
Q

Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation, in which the ventilator allows the patient to breathe spontaneously, while providing a preset number of breaths to ensure adequate ventilation; ventilated breaths are synchronized with spontaneous breathing

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89
Q

Tension pneumothorax

A

Pneumothorax characterized by increasing positive pressure in the plural space with each breath; this is an emergency situation, and the positive pressure needs to be decompressed or released immediately

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90
Q

Thoracentesis

A

Insertion of a needle or catheter into the pleural space to remove fluid that has accumulated and decrease pressure on the lung tissue; may also be used diagnostically to identify potential causes of plural effusion

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91
Q

Thoracotomy

A

Surgical opening into the chest cavity

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92
Q

Tidal volume

A

Volume of air inspired an expired with each breath

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93
Q

Tracheostomy tube

A

Indwelling tube inserted directly into the trachea to assist with ventilation

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94
Q

Tracheostomy

A

Surgical opening into the trachea

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95
Q

TransBronchial.

A

Through the bronchial wall, as in a trans bronchial, lung biopsy

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96
Q

Ventilation perfusion (V./Q.)

A

Refers to the ratio between ventilation and perfusion in the lung; matching of ventilation to perfusion optimize gas exchange

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97
Q

Air trapping

A

Incomplete emptying of alveoli during expiration due to loss of lung tissue elasticity (emphysema), Bronchospasm (Asthma ), or airway obstruction 

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98
Q

Alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

Genetic disorder resulting from deficiency of Alpha1 antitrypsin, A protective agent for the lung; increases patient’s risk for developing panacinar emphysema, even in the absence of smoking 

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99
Q

Asthma

A

A heterogeneous disease, usually characterized by chronic airway inflammation; defined by history of symptoms, such as wheeze, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and cough that vary overtime and in intensity

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100
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Chronic irreversible dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles that results from the destruction of muscles and elastic connective tissue; dilated airways become saccular and are a medium for chronic infection

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101
Q

Chest Percussion 

A

Manually, cupping hands over the chest wall and using vibrations to mobilize secretions by mechanically dislodging viscous or adherent secretions in the lungs

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102
Q

Chest physiotherapy (CPT)

A

Therapy used to remove bronchial, secretions, improve ventilation, and increase the efficiency of the respiratory muscles; types include postural drainage, chest percussion, and vibration and breathing retraining

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103
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A

A disease of the airways defined as the presence of cough and sputum production, for at least a combined total of three months in each of two consecutive years

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104
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

Disease state characterized by airflow, limitation, that is not fully reversible; sometimes referred to as chronic airway obstruction or chronic obstructive lung disease

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105
Q

Desaturate

A

A precipitous drop in the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen

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106
Q

Dry powder inhaler (DPI)

A

A compact, portable inspiratory flow driven inhaler that delivers dry powder medication’s into the patient’s lungs

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107
Q

Emphysema

A

A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of over descended alveoli

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108
Q

Flutter valve

A

Portable, handheld, mucus clearance device; consisting of a tube with an osculating steel ball inside; upon expiration high frequency, oscillations, facilitate mucus expectoration

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109
Q

Fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2)

A

Concentration of oxygen delivered (1.0 Equals 100% oxygen )

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110
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Decrease in arterial oxygen tension in the blood

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111
Q

Hypoxia

A

Decrease in oxygen supply to the tissues and cells

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112
Q

Polycythemia

A

Increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood; in COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen, carrying capacity by producing increasing amounts of red blood cells

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113
Q

Postural drainage

A

Positioning the patient to allow drainage from all lobes of the lungs and airways

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114
Q

Pressurize meter dose inhaler (pMDI)

A

A compact, portable patient activated pressurized medication canister that provides aerosolized medication that the patient inhales into the lungs

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115
Q

Small volume nebulizer (SVN)

A

A handheld generator driven medication delivery system that provides aerosolized liquid medication that the patient inhales into the lungs

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116
Q

Spirometry

A

Pulmonary function test that measures specific lung, volumes and rates; may be measured before and after bronchodilator administration

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117
Q

Vibration

A

A type of massage given by quickly, tapping the chest with the fingertips, or alternating the fingers in a rhythmic manner, or by using a mechanical device to assist in mobilizing lung secretions

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118
Q

Aerobic

A

Bacteria that depend on oxygen for survival

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119
Q

Anaerobic

A

Bacteria that survive without oxygen, which are often seen when blood flow is cut off to an area of the body

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120
Q

Gram-negative

A

Bacteria that accept a negative stain and are frequently associated with infections of the genitourinary or gastrointestinal tract

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121
Q

Gram-positive

A

Bacteria that take a positive stain and are frequently associated with infections of the respiratory tract and soft tissues

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122
Q

Synergistic

A

Drugs that work together to increase drug effectiveness

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123
Q

Adrenal cortex

A

Outer layer of the adrenal gland; produces glucocorticosteroids and mineralocoticosteroids in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ATCH) Stimulation; also responds to sympathetic stimulation 

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124
Q

Adrenal medulla

A

Inner layer of the adrenal gland; a sympathetic ganglion it releases, norepinephrine, and epinephrine into circulation in response to sympathetic stimulation

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125
Q

Corticosteroids

A

Steroid, hormones, produced by adrenal cortex; includes androgens, glucocorticoids and mineralocortids

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126
Q

Diurnal, rhythm

A

Response of the hypothalamus, and then the pituitary and adrenals, to wakefulness and sleeping; normally the hypothalamus begin secretion of corticotropin releasing factor(CRF) In the evening, peeking at about midnight; adrenocortical peek responses between 6 and 9 AM; levels fall during the day until evening when the low level is picked up by the hypothalamus and CRF secretion begins again 

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127
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

Steroid hormones released from the adrenal cortex; they increase blood glucose levels, fat deposits, and protein breakdown for energy

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128
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

Steroid hormones, released by the adrenal cortex; they cause sodium and water retention and potassium excretion

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129
Q

Alveoli

A

The respiratory sac the smallest unit of the lungs where gas exchange occurs

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130
Q

Asthma

A

Disorder characterized by recurrent and reversible episodes of bronchospasm (Brachial muscle spasms leading to narrowed or obstructed airways )

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131
Q

Atelectasis

A

Collapse of once expanded Alveoli 

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132
Q

Bronchial tree

A

The conducting airways leading into the alveoli; they branch, smaller and smaller, appearing much like a tree

133
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

Chronic condition that occurs over time; often the result of chronic bronchitis emphysema, and/or refractory, asthma; obstruction is not fully reversible

134
Q

Cilia

A

Microscopic, hair-like projections of the epithelial cell membrane lining the upper respiratory tract, Which are constantly moving and directing the mucus and any trapped substance Toward the throat 

135
Q

Common cold

A

Viral infection of the upper respiratory tract that initiates the release of histamine and prostaglandins and causes an inflammatory response

136
Q

Cough

A

Reflex response to irritation in the conducting airways results, in expelling a forced air through the mouth

137
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

Hereditary disease, that results in the accumulation of copious amounts of thick secretions in the lungs, which will eventually lead to obstruction of the airways and destruction of the lung tissue

138
Q

Larynx

A

The vocal cords and epiglottis, which close during swallowing to protect the lower respiratory tract from any foreign particles

139
Q

Lower respiratory tract

A

The bronchi, and the alveoli that make up the lungs; the area where gas exchange takes place

140
Q

Pharynx 

A

The membrane lined cavity that is behind the mouth and nose, and before the esophagus and larynx

141
Q

Pneumonia

A

Inflammation of the lungs that can be caused by bacterial or viral invasion of the tissue or by aspiration of foreign substances

142
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Air in the plural space, exerting high pressure against the alveoli

143
Q

Respiration

A

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the alveoli and capillary

144
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

A

Disorder found in premature neonates whose lungs have not had time to mature and who are lacking sufficient sufactant to maintain open airways to allow for respiration.

145
Q

Respiratory membrane

A

Area through which gas exchange must be made; made up of the capillary endothelium, the capillary basement membrane, the interstitial space, the alveolar basement membrane, the alveolar endothelium, and the surfactant layer

146
Q

Seasonal rhinitis

A

Inflammation of the nasal cavity commonly called hay fever; caused by reaction to a specific antigen

147
Q

Sneeze

A

 Reflex response to irritation to receptors in the nerves, resulting in expelling a forced air through the nose

148
Q

Surfactant

A

Lipo proteins that reduces surface tension in the alveoli, allowing them to stay open to allow gas exchange

149
Q

Trachea

A

The main conducting airway leading into the lungs

150
Q

Upper respiratory tract

A

The nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx, and trachea. The conducting airways were no gas exchange occurs.

151
Q

Ventilation

A

Movement of gases in and out of the lungs

152
Q

Antihistamines

A

Drugs that block, the release or action of histamine a chemical released during inflammation that increases secretions and narrows airways

153
Q

Antitussives

A

Drugs that block the cough reflex 

154
Q

Decongestants

A

Drugs that decrease the blood flow to the upper respiratory tract, and decrease the overproduction of secretions

155
Q

Expectorant

A

Drugs that increase productive, cough to clear the airways

156
Q

Mucolytics

A

Drugs that increase or liquefy respiratory secretions to aid the clearing of the airways

157
Q

Rebound Congestion

A

A process that occurs when the nasal passages become congested as the effect of a decongestant drug wears off; patients tend to use more drug to decrease the congestion and a vicious cycle of congestion drug and congestion develops leading to abuse of the decongestant. Also called rhinitis medicamentoas

158
Q

Rhinitis medicamentosa

A

Reflex reaction to vasoconstriction caused by decongestants; a rebound vasodilation that often leads to prolonged overuse of decongestions; also called rebound congestion

159
Q

Bronchodilator

A

Medication used to facilitate respirations by dilating the airways; helpful in symptomatic relief and prevention of bronchial, asthma, and bronchospasm associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

160
Q

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

A

abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by apneic periods, Followed by periods of tachypnea may reflect delayed blood flow through the brain.

161
Q

Leukotrine Receptor antagonist

A

Drugs that selectively and competitively block or antagonize receptors for the production of leukotrine D4 and E4 components of slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SESA)

162
Q

Mast cell stabilizer

A

Drug that works at the cellular level to inhibit the release of histamine (Released from the cells in response to inflammation or irritation ). And the release of slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRSA)

163
Q

Sympathomimetics

A

Drugs that mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system

164
Q

Xanthines

A

Naturally occurring substances, including caffeine and theophylline that have a direct effect on the smooth muscle of the respiratory tract, both in the bronchi, and in the blood vessels

165
Q

Acid rebound

A

Reflux response of the stomach to lower than normal acid levels; when acid levels are lowered through the use of antacids gastrin production, and secretion are increased to return the stomach to its normal acidity

166
Q

Antacids

A

Group of inorganic chemicals that neutralize stomach acid

167
Q

Digestive enzymes

A

Enzymes produced in the gastrointestinal tract to break down food into usable nutrients

168
Q

Gastrointestinal protectant

A

Drug that coats, any injured area in the stomach to prevent further injury from acid or pepsin

169
Q

Histamine 2 antagonist(H2)

A

Drug that blocks, the H2 receptor sites; used to decrease acid production in the stomach (H2 sites are stimulated to cause the release of acid from the Parietal cells in response to gastrin or parasympathetic stimulation )

170
Q

Peptic ulcer

A

Erosion of the lining of the stomach or duodenum; results from imbalance between acid produced, and the mucus protection of the Gastro intestinal lining are possibly from infection by Helicobacter pylori bacteria

171
Q

Prostaglandin

A

Anyone of numerous tissue hormones that have local effects on various systems and organs of the body, including vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased, or decreased G.I. activity, and increased or decreased pancreatic enzyme release

172
Q

Proton pump, inhibitor

A

Drug that blocks, the H, K, ATPase enzyme system on the secretory surface of the gastric, parietal cells, thus interfering with the final step of acid production, and lowering acid levels in the stomach

173
Q

Anemia

A

Decreased red blood cell count

174
Q

Band cell

A

Slightly immature neutrophil

175
Q

Blast cell

A

Primitive white blood cell

176
Q

Cytokines

A

Proteins produced by leukocytes that are vital to regulation of hematopoiesis, apoptosis and immune response

177
Q

Differentiation

A

Development of functions and characteristics that are different from those of the parent stem cell

178
Q

Erythrocyte

A

A cellular component of blood involved in the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide; red blood cell

179
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

Process of the formation of red blood cells

180
Q

Erythropoietin

A

Hormone produced, primarily by the kidney; necessary for eryropoiesis

181
Q

Fibrin

A

Filamentous proteins; the basis of thrombus and blood clot

182
Q

Fibrinogen

A

Protein , converted into fibrin to form, thrombus and clot

183
Q

Fibrolysis

A

Process of breakdown of fibrin clot

184
Q

Granulocyte

A

Granulated white blood cells

185
Q

Hematocrit

A

Percentage of total blood volume consisting of red blood cells

186
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Complex process of the formation and maturation of blood cells

187
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Iron, containing protein of red blood cells; delivers oxygen to tissues

188
Q

Hemostasis

A

Intricate balance between clot formation, and clot dissolution

189
Q

Leukocyte

A

One of several cellular components of blood involved in defense of the body; subtype includes in neutrophils eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes; white blood cells

190
Q

Leukopenia

A

Less than normal amount of white blood cells in circulation

191
Q

Lymphoid

A

Pertaining to lymphocytes

192
Q

Macrophage

A

Reticuloendthelial Cells, capable of phagocytosis

193
Q

Monocyte

A

Large white blood cell that becomes a macrophage when it leaves the circulation and moves into body tissues

194
Q

Myeloid

A

Pertaining to non-lymphoid blood cells that differentiate into red blood cells, platelets macrophages, mast cells, and various white blood cells

195
Q

Myelopiesis

A

Formation and maturation of cells, derived from myeloid stem cells

196
Q

Natural killer cells (NK)

A

Lymphocytes that defend against microorganisms and malignant cells

197
Q

Neutrophil

A

Fully mature white blood cell capable of phagocytosis; primary defense against bacterial infection

198
Q

Oxyhemoglobin

A

Combined form of oxygen and hemoglobin; primarily found in arterial blood

199
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Process of cellular ingestion and digestion of foreign bodies

200
Q

Plasma

A

Liquid portion of blood

201
Q

Plasminogen

A

Proteins converted to plasmin to dissolve, thrombi and clots

202
Q

Platelet

A

A cellular component of blood involved in blood coagulation; also called thrombocyte

203
Q

Red blood cell (RBC)

A

A cellular component of blood involved in the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide; also called erythrocyte

204
Q

Reticulocytes

A

Slightly immature, red blood cells usually only 1% of total circulating red blood cells

205
Q

Reticuloendothelial system

A

Complex system of cells throughout the body capable of phagocytosis

206
Q

Serum

A

Portion of blood remaining after coagulation occurs

207
Q

Stem cell

A

Primitive cell capable of self replication and differentiation into myeloid or lymphoid stem cells

208
Q

Stroma

A

Component of the bone marrow, not directly related to hematopoiesis But serves important supportive roles in this process 

209
Q

Thrombocyte

A

A cellular component of blood involved in blood coagulation; also called platelet

210
Q

White blood cells (WBC)

A

One of several cellular components of blood involved in defense of the body; subtypes include neutrophils eosinophils basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes

211
Q

Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)

A

A calculation of the number of circulating neutrophils, derived from the total number of white blood cells, and the percentage of neutrophils counted in a microscope’s visual field

212
Q

Anemia

A

Decreased red blood cell count

213
Q

Aplasia

A

Lack of cellular development (Of cells within the bone marrow )

214
Q

Cytokines

A

Proteins produced by leukocytes that are critical for regulation of hematopoiesis, apoptosis And immune response

215
Q

Eryrocyte

A

A cellular component of blood, essential to the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide; also called red blood cell

216
Q

Erythroid cells

A

Any cell that is or will become a mature red blood cell

217
Q

Erythropoietin

A

Hormone produced, primarily by the kidneys in response to cellular hypoxia that is necessary for erythropoiesis

218
Q

Heptoglobulin

A

Blood protein, synthesized by the liver; binds, free, hemoglobin, released from your ether sites, which is then removed by the reticuloendothelial system 

219
Q

Hemolysis 

A

Destruction of red blood cells with release of cellular components into the circulation; may occur within or outside the vasculature

220
Q

Hemosiderin

A

Iron, containing pigment, derived from the breakdown of hemoglobin

221
Q

Hypochromia

A

Power within the red blood cells caused by decreased hemoglobin Contant

222
Q

Leukemia

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of white blood cells

223
Q

Lymphopenia

A

A lymphocyte count less than 1500 per millimeters cubed 

224
Q

Megaloblastic, anemia

A

A type of anemia characterized by abnormally, large, nucleated red blood cells

225
Q

Microcytosis

A

Smaller than normal red blood cells

226
Q

Neutropenia

A

Lower than normal number of neutrophils

227
Q

Normochromatic

A

Normal red blood cell color, indicating normal amount of hemoglobin

228
Q

Normocytic

A

Normal size of red blood cells

229
Q

Pancytopenia

A

Abnormal decrease and white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets

230
Q

Petechiae

A

Tiny capillary hemorrhages

231
Q

Poikilocutosis

A

Variation in shape of red blood cells

232
Q

Polycythemia

A

Excess red blood cells

233
Q

Reticulocytes

A

Slightly immature, red blood cells usually 1% total number of circulating red blood cells

234
Q

Spherocytes

A

Small spherically shaped red blood cells

235
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Lower than normal platelet count

236
Q

Thrombocytosis

A

Higher than normal platelet count

237
Q

Absolute neutrophil count

A

Calculation of the number of circulating, neutrophils dersyfrom the total white blood cells, and the percentage of neutrophils counted in a microscope’s visual field

238
Q

Angiogenesis

A

Formation of new blood vessels

239
Q

Apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death

240
Q

Blast cells

A

Immature, leukocytes

241
Q

Cytokines

A

Proteins produced by Leukocytes that are vital to regulation of hematopoiesis, apoptosis, and immune response; Also called biochemical or inflammatory mediator’s

242
Q

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

A

Laboratory test that measures the rate of settling of red blood cells; elevation is indicative of inflammation; also called the sed rate

243
Q

Erythromelalgia

A

A burning, painful sensation and erythema in the fingers or toes

244
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Complex process of the formation and maturation of blood cells

245
Q

Indolent

A

When, in reference to a neoplasm refers to a slow growing cancer, that often remains localized or causes few symptoms

246
Q

Leukemia

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of white blood cells often immature

247
Q

LymphOdemapathy

A

Enlargement of a lymph node or lymph nodes

248
Q

Lymphoid

A

Pertaining to lymphocytes

249
Q

Myeloid

A

Pertaining to non-lymphoid blood cells that differentiate into red blood cells platelets And various white blood cells 

250
Q

Neutropenia

A

Lower than normal number of neutrophils

251
Q

Pancytopenia

A

Abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets

252
Q

Petechiae

A

Tiny capillary hemorrhages

253
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Process of cellular ingestion and digestion of foreign bodies

254
Q

Reticulocytes

A

Slightly immature, red blood cells usually only 1% of total circulating red blood cells

255
Q

Splenomegaly

A

Enlargement of the spleen

256
Q

Stem cell

A

Primitive cell capable of self replication and differentiation into myeloid or lymphoid stem cell

257
Q

Thrombocythemia

A

Higher than normal platelet count that occurs without a known cause

258
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Lower than normal platelet count

259
Q

Thrombocytosis

A

Higher than normal platelet, count that results because of a disease or disorder

260
Q

Anticoagulants

A

Drugs, that block or inhibit any step of the coagulation process, preventing or slowing clot formation

261
Q

Antiplatelet agents

A

Drugs that interfere with the aggregation or clumping of platelets to form the platelet plug

262
Q

Clotting factors

A

Substances formed in the liver, many requiring vitamin K, that react in a cascading sequence to cause the formation of thrombin from prothrombin; thrombin then breaks down, fibrin threads from fibrinogen to form a clot

263
Q

Coagulation

A

The process of blood changing from a fluid state to a solid state to plug injuries to the vascular

264
Q

Extrinsic pathway

A

Cascade of clotting factors in blood that has escaped the vascular system to form a clot on the outside of the injured vessel 

265
Q

Hageman factor

A

First factor activated when a blood vessel or cell is injured; starts the cascading reaction of the clotting factors, activates the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin to dissolve clots, and activates the kinin system responsible for activation of the inflammatory response

266
Q

Hemorrhagic disorders

A

Disorders characterized by a lack of clot, forming substances, leading to states of excessive bleeding

267
Q

Hemostatic agents

A

Drugs that stop blood loss, usually by blocking the plasminogen mechanism and preventing clot dissolution

268
Q

Intrinsic pathway

A

Cascada clotting factors leading to the formation of a clot within an injured vessel 

269
Q

Plasminogen

A

Natural clot dissolving system converted to plasmin (Also called fibrinolysin ) By many substances, to dissolve clots that are formed, and to maintain the patency of injured vessels

270
Q

Platelet aggregation

A

Property of platelets to adhere to an injured surface, and then attract other platelets, which clump together to aggregate at the area, plugging up an injury to the vascular system

271
Q

Thromboembolic disorders

A

Disorders, characterized by the formation of clots or thrombi on injured blood vessels with potential breaking of the clot, to form emboli that can travel to smaller vessels. Were, they become lodged, and occlude the vessel.

272
Q

Thrombolytic agents

A

Drugs that lyse or break down a clot that is formed; these drugs activate, the plasminogen mechanism to dissolve fibrin threads

273
Q

Anemia

A

Disorder involving two few red blood cells or ineffective red blood cells that can alter the bloods ability to carry oxygen

274
Q

Erythrocytes 

A

Red blood cells responsible for carrying oxygen to the tissues and removing carbon dioxide; they have no nucleus and live approximately 120 days

275
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

Process of red blood cell production and lifecycle, formed by megaloblastic cells in the bone marrow using iron Folic acid, carbohydrates, vitamin B12, and amino acids; they circulate in the vascular system for about 120 days, and then are lysed and recycled

276
Q

Erythropoietin

A

Glycoprotein produced by the kidneys, released in response to decreased blood flow or low oxygen tension in the kidney; stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow

277
Q

Iron deficiency, Amenia

A

Low red blood cell count with low iron available because of high demand poor diet or poor absorption, treated with iron replacement

278
Q

Megaloblastic, anemia

A

Anemia caused by lack of vitamin B-12, and/or folic acid in which red blood cells are fewer number and have a weak stroma and a short lifespan; treated by replacement of folic acid and vitamin B 12

279
Q

Pernicious, anemia

A

Type of megaloblastic anemia, characterized by a lack of vitamin B-12, secondary to low production of intrinsic factor by gastric cells; vitamin B 12 must be replaced by intramuscular injection or nasal spray, because it cannot be absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract

280
Q

Plasma

A

The liquid part of the blood; consist mostly of water and plasma, proteins glucose and electrolytes

281
Q

Reticulocyte

A

Red blood cell that has lost its nucleus and entered circulation just recently not yet fully matured

282
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

Autosomal recessive disorder that causes abnormalities in the hemoglobin in the red blood cell, causing them to change into a sickle shape, which is more likely to become, stuck in and include blood vessels, causing damage to the blood vessels and obstructing blood flow to other tissues and organs

283
Q

Mortality

A

The number of individuals who have died over a specific. Period

284
Q

Morbidity

A

Measure of the prevalence of a specific illness in a population at a particular time

285
Q

Nursing process

A

Assessment
Diagnosis
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation 

286
Q

Standard of care

A

Minimally accepted action, expected of an individual of a certain skill or knowledge level and reflects what a reasonable and prudent person would do in a similar situation

287
Q

Informed consent

A

Must be done before the procedure or specific care, addresses, the legal and ethical requirement of informing the child and parent about the procedure

288
Q

Mature, minor

A

Usually older than 14 years of age is sufficiently mature and intelligent to make the decision for treatment

289
Q

Emancipated minor

A

Have the legal capacity of an adult and may make his or her own healthcare decisions

290
Q

Assent

A

Refers to the child’s participation in the decision making process about healthcare

291
Q

Genetics

A

The study of heredity, and it’s variations it is a field that has applications to all stages of life and types of diseases

292
Q

Heredity

A

The process of transmitting genetic characteristics from parent to offspring

293
Q

Resilience

A

Refers to the qualities that enable an individual to cope with significant adverse events or stresses and still function confidently, and have positive outcomes

294
Q

Family structure

A

The way that the family is organized, and the way that the family members interact with one another on a regular reoccurring basis in socially sanctioned ways

295
Q

Growth

A

Increasing physical size

296
Q

Development

A

Sequential process by which infants and children gain various skills and functions

297
Q

Object permanence

A

If an object is hidden from the infant site here she will search for it in the last place it was seen, knowing it still exists

298
Q

Cephalcaudal

A

From head to tale

299
Q

Proximodistal

A

From the center to the periphery

300
Q

Binocularity

A

The ability to fuse two ocular images into one cerebral picture

301
Q

Stranger anxiety

A

The previously happy and very friendly infant may become clingy and whiny. When approached by strangers are people not well known 

302
Q

Temperament

A

And individuals nature, it is the child’s inborn traits that determine how he interacts with the world

303
Q

Anticipatory Guidance 

A

Educating parents and caregivers about what to expect in the next phase of development

304
Q

Solitary play

A

Does not share with other infants are directly play with other infants

305
Q

Negativism

A

Always saying no normal part of a healthy development, and as occurring as a result of the toddlers attempt to assert his or her independence

306
Q

Receptive language

A

The ability to understand what is being said, or asked

307
Q

Expressive language

A

The ability to communicate one’s desires and feelings

308
Q

Echolalia

A

Repetition of words and phrases without understanding

309
Q

Telegraphic speech

A

Speech that contains only the essential words to get the point across

310
Q

Preoperational thought

A

The child remains egocentric and is able to approach a problem from a single point of view only

311
Q

Magical, thinking

A

The preschooler believes that his or her thoughts are all powerful

312
Q

Transduction

A

Extrapolate from a particular situation to another, even though the events may be unrelated

313
Q

Telegraphic speech

A

Short sentences that contain only the essential information

314
Q

Incubation. Period.

A

Interval before symptoms, the period between the time somebody is infected with the disease and the appearance of its first symptoms

315
Q

Communicability

A

Readily transmittable able to be passed from one person, animal or organism to another

316
Q

Agent

A

Responsible for causing disease, infectious, chemical, or physical agent

317
Q

Prodromal stage

A

The initial stage of disease, the interval between the earliest symptoms in the appearance

318
Q

WBC
leukocyte

A

Fights infection

319
Q

Neutrophil

A

Essential and preventing or limiting bacterial infection via phagocytosis

320
Q

Monocyte

A

Enters tissues as macrophage, highly phagocytotic, especially against fungus immune surveillance

321
Q

Eosinophils

A

Involved in allergic reactions, neutralizes histamine digest foreign proteins

322
Q

Basophils

A

Contains histamine, integral part of hypersensitivity reactions

323
Q

Lymphocyte

A

Integral component of immune system

324
Q

T lymphocyte

A

Responsible for cell mediated immunity recognizes material as foreign

325
Q

B lymphocyte

A

Responsible for humoral immunity, many mature into plasma cells to form antibodies

326
Q

Plasma cell

A

Secretes immunoglobulin, most mature form of B lymphocyte

327
Q

Red blood cell

A

Carries hemoglobin to provide oxygen to tissues average lifespan is 120 days

328
Q

Platelet

A

Fragment of megakaryocyte provides basis for a coagulation to occur, maintains homeostasis. Average lifespan is 10 days.

Nur201 (11 decks)

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