Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Acute coronary syndrome

A

A constellation of signs and symptoms due to the rupture of atherosclerotic plaque and resultant partial or complete thrombosis within a diseased coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Afterload

A

The amount of resistance to ejection of blood from the ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Apical impulse

A

Impulse normally palpated at the fifth intercostal space left midclavicular line caused by contraction of the left ventricle synonym point of maximal impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Atrioventricular node AV

A

Secondary pacemaker of the heart, located in the right, atrial wall near the tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bororecepters

A

Nerve fibers located in the aortic arch and carotid arteries that are responsible for control of blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cardiac catheterization

A

An invasive procedure used to measure cardiac chamber pressures, and assess patency of the coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cardiac conduction system

A

Specialized heart cells, strategically located throughout the heart that are responsible for methodically generating and coordinating the transmission of electrical impulses to the myocardial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cardiac output

A

Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle and liters per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cardiac stress test

A

A test used to evaluate the functioning of the heart during a period of increased oxygen demand; test may be initiated by exercise or medication’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Contractility 

A

Ability of the cardiac muscle to shorten in response to an electrical impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Depolarization

A

Electrical activation of a cell caused by the influx of sodium into the cell while Potassium exits the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Diastole

A

. A ventricular relaxation resulting in ventricular filling. 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ejection fraction

A

Percentage of the end diastolic blood volume ejected from the ventricle with each heartbeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hemodynamic monitoring

A

The use of pressure monitoring devices to directly measure the cardiovascular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hypertension

A

Blood pressure that is persistently greater than 130/1,80 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hypotension

A

A decrease in blood pressure to less than 90/ 60 mmHg that compromises systemic perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Murmurs

A

Sounds created by abnormal, turbulent flow of blood in the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Myocardial ischemia

A

Condition in which heart muscle cells receive less oxygen than needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Myocardium

A

Muscle layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Normal heart sounds

A

Sounds produced when the valves close; normal heart sounds are S1 (Atrioventricular valves ) and S2 (Semilunar valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Opening snaps

A

Abnormal diastolic sounds generated during opening of rigid, atrioventricular valve leaflets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

A significant drop in blood pressure (20 mmHg systolic or more than 10 mmHg diastolic or more ) After an upright posture is assumed 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Preload 

A

Degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pulmonary vascular resistance

A

Resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, created by the pulmonary circulatory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Pulse deficit
The difference between the apical and radial pulse rate
26
Radio isotopes
Unstable atoms that give off small amounts of energy in the form of gamma rays as they decay; used in cardiac nuclear medicine studies
27
Repolarization
Return of the cell to resting state, caused by reentry of potassium into the cell while sodium exits, the cell
28
S1
The first heart sound produced by closure of the atrioventricular (Mitral and tricuspid ) Valves 
29
S2
The second heart sound produced by the closure of the semi lunar (Aortic and pulmonic) valves
30
S3
An abnormal heart sound detected, early in diastole as resistance is met to blood entering, either ventricle; most often due to volume overload associated with heart failure
31
S4
An abnormal heart sound detected, late in diastole as resistance is met to blood, entering, either ventricle during atrial contraction; most often caused by hyper trophy of the ventricle
32
Sino atrial node SA
Primary pacemaker of the heart, located in the right atrium
33
Stroke, volume
Amount of blood ejected from one of the ventricles per heartbeat
34
Summation gallop
Abnormal sound created by the presence of an S3 and S4 during periods of tachycardia
35
Systematic vascular resistance
Resistance to blood flow out of the left ventricle, created by the systemic circulatory system
36
Systole
Period of ventricular contraction resulting in ejection of blood from the ventricles in the pulmonary artery and aorta
37
Systolic click
Abnormal systolic sound created by the opening of a calcified, aortic or polemic valve during ventricular contraction
38
Telemetry 
The process of continuous electrocardiographic monitoring by the transmission of radio waves from a battery operated transmitter worn by the patient
39
Ablation
Purposeful destruction of heart muscle cells, usually in an attempt to correct or eliminate an arrhythmia
40
Arrhythmia
Disorder of the formation or conduction ( or both ) Of the electrical impulse within the heart, altering the heart rate, heart rhythm, or both, and potentially causing, altered blood flow; also referred to as dysrhythmia 
41
Artifact
Distorted, irrelevant, and extraneous electrocardiographic ECG, wave forms
42
Automaticity
Ability of the cardiac cells to initiate an electrical impulse
43
Cardiac resynchronization therapy, CRT
Biventricular pacing, used to correct interventricular, intraventricular, and atrioventricular conduction disturbances that occur in patients with heart failure
44
Cardioversion
Electrical current given in synchrony with the patient’s own QRS complex to stop an arrhythmia
45
Chronotropy
The rate of impulse formation
46
Conduction
Transmission of electrical impulses from one cell to another
47
Defibrillation
Electrical current given to stop an arrhythmia, not synchronized with the patients QRS complex 
48
Depolarization
Process by which cardiac muscle cells change from a more negatively charged to more positively charged intracellular state
49
Dromotropy
Conduction velocity
50
Electrocardiogram ECG
A record of a test that graphically measures the electrical activity of the heart, including each phase of the cardiac cycle
51
Implantable, cardioverter, defibrillator,ICD
A device implanted into the chest wall to treat arrhythmias
52
Inotropy
Force of myocardial contraction
53
P-wave
The part of an ECG, that reflects conduction of an electrical impulse through the atrium; atrial depolarization
54
Paroxysmal
Arrhythmia that has a sudden onset and terminates spontaneously; usually of short duration, but may reoccur
55
PP interval 
The duration between the beginning of one P-wave, and the beginning of the next P-wave; used to calculate atrial rate and rhythm
56
PR interval
The part of an ECG, that reflects conduction of an electrical impulse from the sinoatrial node through the atrioventricular node
57
QRS complex
The part of an ECG, that reflects conduction of an electrical impulse through the ventricles; ventricular depolarization
58
QT interval
The part of an ECG, that reflects the time from ventricular depolarization through repolarization
59
Repolarization
Process by which cardiac muscle cells return to a more negatively charged intracellular condition, their resting state
60
Sinus rhythm
Electrical activity of the heart initiated by the Sino atrial node
61
ST segment
The part of an ECG, that reflects the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T-wave
62
T wave
The part of an ECG that reflects the repolarization of the ventricles
63
TP interval
The part of an ECG that reflects the time between the end of the T wave in the beginning of the next P-wave; used to identify the isoelectric line
64
U wave
The part of an ECG that may reflect Purkinje fibers repolarization. Usually, it is not seen unless a patients serum. Potassium level is low
65
Acute coronary syndrome, ACS
Signs and symptoms that indicate unstable angina or a cute myocardial infarction
66
Angina pectoris
Chest pain brought about by myocardial ischemia
67
Artheroma
Fibrous cap, composed of smooth muscle cells, that forms over, lipid deposits within arterial vessels, and protrudes into the lumen of the vessel, narrowing the lumen, and obstructing blood flow; also called plaque
68
Atherosclerosis 
Abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits, and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and the lumen
69
Contractility 
Ability of the cardiac muscle to shorten in response to an electrical impulse
70
Coronary artery bypass graft, CABG
A surgical procedure in which a blood vessel, from another part of the body is grafted onto the included coronary artery below the inclusion in such a way that blood flow bypasses the blockage
71
High density lipoprotein HDL
A protein bound, lipid that transports cholesterol to the liver for excretion in the bile; composed of a higher proportion of protein to lipid than low density lipoprotein; exerts a beneficial effect on the atrial wall
72
Metabolic syndrome
A cluster of metabolic abnormalities, including insulin resistance, obesity, dyslipidemia, and hypertension that increase the risk of cardiovascular disease
73
Myocardial infarction
Death of heart tissue caused by lack of oxygenated blood flow
74
Percutaneous, coronary intervention, PCI
A procedure in which a catheter is placed in a coronary artery, and one of several methods employed to reduce blockage within the artery
75
Percutaneous transluminal Coronary angioplasty PTCA
A type of percutaneous coronary intervention in which a balloon is inflated within a coronary artery to break an atheroma and open the vessel lumen, improving coronary artery, bloodflow
76
Stent
A metal mesh that provide structural support to a coronary vessel, preventing its closure
77
Sudden, cardiac death
Abrupt cessation of affective heart activity
78
Thrombolytic
Pharmacologic agent that breaks down blood clot; alternately referred to as a fibrinolytic
79
Troponin
A cardiac muscle biomarker; measurement is used as an indicator of heart muscle injury
80
Disorders with increased pulmonary bloodflow
Patent ductus arteriosus PDA Atrial septal defect ASD Ventricular septal defect VSD Increased fatigue, heart murmur, increased risk for endocarditis, congestive heart failure, growth, retardation
81
Obstructive disorders
coarctation if the aorta Pulmonary stenosis
82
Disorders with decreased pulmonary bloodflow and mixed defects
Tetralogy of fallot Truncus arteriosus Transposition of the great vessels Tricuspid Atresia
83
Mixed defects
Transposition of great vessels TGV Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection Truncus Arterious Hypoplastic left heart syndrome 
84
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Consists of three features Hemolytic, anemia Thrombocytopenia Acute renal failure 
85
Left to right shunt
Normally blood flows from the higher pressure left side of the heart, the lower pressure right side of the heart Left to right shunt equals acyanotic heart defect 
86
Tetralogy of Fallot
Pulmonary stenosis Overriding aorta Ventricular septal defect Thickening of right ventricle wall 
87
TET Spell intervention
Calm baby Knee to chest position 100% oxygen Morphine IM SC IV IV fluids, to prevent CVA Beta blockers 
88
Digitalis toxicity
Nausea, vomiting, bradycardia Therapeutic range 0.8 to 2.0 NG per milliliter.  Monitor labs for serum, digitoxin level, potassium, magnesium chloride, and calcium
89
Bacteriuria
Bacteria in the urine
90
Catheter associated urinary tract infection CAUTI 
A urinary tract infection associated with indwelling urinary catheter
91
Cystecomy
Surgical remover of the urinary bladder
92
Cystitis
Inflammation of the urinary bladder
93
Functional incontinence
Involuntary loss of urine due to physical or cognitive impairment
94
Introgenic incontinence
Involuntary loss of Urine due to extrinsic medical factors
95
Ileal conduit
A transplantation of the ureters to an isolated section of the terminal ileum, with one end of the ureter is brought to the abdominal wall
96
Interstitial cystitis
Inflammation of the bladder wall that eventually causes disintegration of the lining and loss of bladder elasticities
97
Micturition
Voiding or urination
98
Mixed incontinence
Involuntary urinary leakage associated with urgency, and also with exertion, effort, sneezing, or coughing
99
Neurogenic bladder
Bladder dysfunction that results from a disorder or dysfunction of the nervous system and leads to urinary incontinence
100
Nocturia
Awakening at night to urinate
101
Overflow incontinence
Involuntary Urine lossassociated with overdistention of the bladder
102
Prostatitis
Inflammation of the prostate gland
103
Pyelonephritis
Inflammation of the renal pelvis
104
Pyuria
White blood cells in the urine
105
Residual urine
Urine that remains in the bladder after voiding
106
Stress incontinence
Involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of exertion, sneezing, coughing, are changing position
107
Superapubic catheter
A urinary catheter that is inserted through a superpubic incision into the bladder
108
Ureterovesical or vesicoureteral reflex
Backward flow of urine from the bladder into one or both ureters
109
Urethritis
Inflammation of the urethra
110
Urethrovesical reflex
An obstruction of free-flowing urine leading to the reflux of urine from the urethra into the bladder
111
Urge incontinence
Involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong urge to void that cannot be suppressed
112
Urinary frequency
Voiding more often than every three hours
113
Urinary incontinence
Unplanned, involuntary, or uncontrolled loss of urine from the bladder
114
Urosepsis
Spread of infection from the urinary tract to the bloodstream that results in a systematic infection
115
Treatment for myocardial infarction
Supplemental oxygen Nitroglycerin Morphine Aspirin 
116
Aldosterone
Hormone synthesized in released by the adrenal cortex; causes the kidneys to reabsorb sodium
117
Antidiuretic hormone, ADH
Hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary gland; causes the kidneys to reabsorb more water synonym vasopressin
118
Anurea
Decreased urine output of less than 50 mL in 24 hours
119
Bacteriuria
Bacteria in the urine
120
Creatine
Endogenous waste product of muscle energy, muscle energy Metabolism 
121
Diuresis
Increased Urine volume
122
Dysuria
Painful or difficult urination
123
Erythropoietin 
Glycoprotein produced by kidney; stimulates bone marrow to produce red blood cells
124
Globular filtration rate GFR
Amount of plasma filtered through the glomeruli per unit of time
125
Glomerulus
Tuft of capillaries, forming part of the nephron, through which filtration occurs
126
Glycosuria
Excretion of glucose in the urine
127
Hematurea
Red blood cells, in the urine 
128
Micturition
Urination or avoiding
129
Nephrons
Structural and functional units of the kidney responsible for your information
130
Nocturia
Awakening at night to urinate
131
Oliguria
Urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours or less than .5 mL per kilogram per hour over six hours.
132
Proteinuria
Protein in the urine
133
Pyuria
White blood cells in the urine
134
Renal clearance
Ability of the kidney to clear solutes from the plasma
135
Specific gravity
Expression of the degree of concentration of the urine
136
Urea nitrogen
End product of protein metabolism
137
Urinary frequency
Voiding more frequently than every three hours
138
Androgen deprivation therapy 
Surgical or medical castration
139
Benign prosthetic hyperplasia BPH
Noncancerous enlargement or hypertrophy of the prostate; the most common pathologic condition of older man
140
Brachytherapy
Delivery of radiation therapy through internal implants, and placed inside or adjacent to a tumor
141
Circumcision
Excursion of the foreskin or prepuce of the glans penis
142
Cystotomy
Surgical creation of an opening into the urinary bladder
143
Epididymistis
Infection of the epididymis, that usually descends from an infected prostate or urinary tract; also may develop as a complication of gonorrhea, chlamydia, or E. coli
144
Erectile dysfunction
The inability to either achieve, or maintain an erection sufficient to accomplish sexual intercourse
145
Hydrocele
A collection of fluid, generally, in tunica vaginalis of a testes, although it may collect within the spermatic cord
146
Orchiectomy
Surgical removal of one or both testes
147
Orchitis 
Acute inflammation of the testes caused by pyogenic, viral, spirochetal, Dramatic, chemical, or unknown factors
148
Phimosis
Condition in which the foreskin is constricted, so that it cannot be retracted over the gland; can occur congenitally are from inflammation and edema
149
Priapism
An uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis, from either neutral or vascular causes, including medication’s, sickle cell, thrombosis, leukemia, cell, infiltration, spinal cord, tumors, and tumor invasion of the penis or its vessels
150
Prostateectomy
Surgical removal of the entire prostate the prostate urethra, and the attached seminal vesicles plus the ampulla of the vas deferens
151
Prostate specific antigen PSA
Substance that is produced by the prostate gland; it is used in combination with digital rectal examination to screen for prostate cancer
152
Prostatitis
Inflammation of the prostate gland caused by infectious agents are various other problems
153
Retrograde ejaculation
During ejaculation semen travels to the urinary bladder instead of exiting through the penis
154
Spermatogenesis
Production of sperm in the testes
155
Testosterone
Male, sex hormone, secreted by the testes; Produces and preserves the male sex characteristics
156
Transurethral resection of the prostate TURP
Resection of the prostate through endoscopy; surgical and optical instrument is introduced directly through the urethra to the prostate, and the glands that are removed and small chips with an electrical cutting loop
157
Varicocele
An abnormal dilation of the veins of the pampiniform Venous plexus in the scrotum, the testes and the epididymis, which constitute part of the spermatic cord 
158
Vasectomy
Location and transaction of part of the vas deferens with or without removal of a segment to the vast to prevent the passage of sperm from the testes
159
Nursing process interventions, UTI
160
Nursing process interventions, UTI 2
161
Patient education and urinary incontinence
162
Renal calculi