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lab exam Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards
1
Q

function of an erytrocyte?

A

transports oxygen and carbon dioxide

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2
Q

function of a neutrophil?

A

kills bacteria by phagocytosis and respiratory burst, englufs damaged or dying cells

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3
Q

function of an lymphocyte?

A

produces a specific immune responce by direct cell attack or via antibodies

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4
Q

function of a monocyte?

A

develops into phagocytic macrophage and triggers specific defenses by presenting antigen to T cells

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5
Q

what is an eiosinophil?

A

releases enzymes to destroy parasites, decreases allergic responce by engulfing antibody labelled materials

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6
Q

what is a basophil?

A

releases histamine to trigger inflammatory responce involved in allergic reactions

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7
Q

what are thrombocytes?

A

forms plug to seal small tears in blood vessels, releases chemicals that stimulate blood clotting

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8
Q

what are major components of plasma?

A

90% water or solvent
8% proteins
nutrients gases wastes hormones ions

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9
Q

what are the three primary classes of proteins where are they produced?

A

albumin, globulin and clotting factors and all are produced in the liver

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10
Q

neutrophils normal range for a differential count? plus increased/decreased levels and why they occur

A

50 -70%
increased- acute bacterial infection, myelocyticleukemia, rheumatoid arthritis, stress
decreased- aplastic+ pernicals anemia, viral infection, radiation treatment, some medications

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11
Q

lymphocyte normal range for a differnetial count. plus increased/decreased levels and why they occur

A

20-30%
increased- lymphatic leukemia, infectious mononucleiosis, viral infections
decreased- radiation therapy, aids, corticosteroid therapy

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12
Q

monocyte normal range for a differnetial count. plus increased/decreased levels and why they occur

A

2-8%
increased- chronic inflammation, viral infections, tuberculosis
decreased- aplastic anemia, corticosteriod therapy

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13
Q

eosinophils normal range for a differnetial count. plus increased/decreased levels and why they occur

A

2-4%
increased- allergies, parasitic infections, auto-immune disorders
decreased- steroid therapy

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14
Q

basophils eosinophils normal range for a differnetial count. plus increased/decreased levels and why they occur

A

0.5-1%
increased- inflammatory process, during healing
decreased- hypersenitivity reactions

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15
Q

what is leukemia?

A

incontrollable leukopoiesis/ cancer of red bone marrow

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16
Q

what is leukocytosis?

A

high white blood cell count

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17
Q

what is leukopenia?

A

low white blood cell count

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18
Q

what is leukopoiesis?

A

formation of white blood cells/ leukocytes

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19
Q

what is the buffy coat?

A

white blood cells and platelets at the interface between rbc and plasma

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20
Q

how do you calculate hct?

A

height of rbc column/total height of blood column x100

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21
Q

how do you calculate mcv?

A

hct/rbc count x10

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22
Q

how do you calculate mch?

A

hb/rbc count x10

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23
Q

normal range for hb, hct, mcv, mch?

A

hb 14-18g/dl
hct- 42-52%
mcv-82-92um
mch- 27-31pg

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24
Q

what is a microcyte?

A

a smaller than usual rbc associated with certain anemias

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25
Q

what is a marcocyte?

A

rbc that are larger then normal

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26
Q

what is hyperchromic?

A

higher amount of hemoglobin

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27
Q

what is hypochromic?

A

rbc have less colour than usual means lower amount of hemoglobin

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28
Q

where do the coronary arteries originate from?

A

the aorta

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29
Q

coronary sinus delivers oxygenated blood to the…

A

right atrium

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30
Q

what is CAD?

A

coronary artery disease
plaque buildup in the walls of the coronary system

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31
Q

what is coronary ischemia and what causes it?

A

blood flow to heart muscle is obstructed by blockage of coronary arteries from buildup of plaque so it has less oxygen at cardiomyocytes die =muscle

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32
Q

what is a myocardial infarction?

A

lack of blood flow meaning low amount of oxygen to myocardium and blood flow is blocked = portion of myocardiocytes die

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33
Q

what is a CABG?

A

coronary artery bypass graft
surgical treatment to treat coronary heart disease diverts blood around narrowed or clogged parts to improve blood flow and oxygen

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34
Q

what two arteries does brain receive blood from?

A

vertebral arteries and common carotid arteries

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35
Q

what do the vertebral arteries pass through?

A

transverse foramina in the cervical vertebrae

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36
Q

what is CVA?

A

cerebral vascular accident or a stroke

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37
Q

3 possible symptoms of a stroke

A

slurred speech
droppy face
numbness and weakness of right side
confusion

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38
Q

why is middle cerebral artery common site for CVA?

A

large vessel and embolism often come up it as it is a common place for clots

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39
Q

a cva involving the left branch of the artery will cause?

A

right sided weakness and motor skill loss as that area of brain is contralateral

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40
Q

what is hemmorrhagic stroke?

A

open bleed in brain from ruptered blood vessel due to aneriusm

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41
Q

what is a thrombotic stroke?

A

blockage preventing blood flow

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42
Q

WBC test

A

white blood cells
leukopenia= low
leukocytosis= high

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43
Q

RBC test

A

red blood cells
high=low oxygen levels
low=anemia

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44
Q

Hb/ hgb

A

hemoglobin content of blood
high=polycythemia
low=anemia

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45
Q

Hct

A

hematocrit levels = percent volume taken upby red blood cells
high=macrocytic
low=microcytic

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46
Q

mcv

A

average size of erythrocytes
low- hypochromic
high= hyperchromic

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47
Q

platelet count

A

thrombocytes
high=thrombocytosis
low=thrombocytopenia

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48
Q

crp

A

c reactive protein in liver
high=risk of heart diease

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49
Q

pt

A

prothrombin time
=time for thrombin to clot
high=clot is formed slowly

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50
Q

ldh

A

lactate dehydrogenase
high=hemolytic anemia
low= not harmful

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51
Q

cpk

A

creatine phosphkinate muscle enzyme
high=stress of injury
low= c.t disease, alcohol liver

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52
Q

ck-mb

A

creatine kinase in cardiac muscle cells
high=damage to heart muscle

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53
Q

troponin or ctnt

A

cardiac troponin
high=heart muscle damage or heart attack

54
Q

troponin i or ctnl

A

high=damage to heart muscle cells leaking troponin in blood

55
Q

what is the heart sound s1 related too?

A

due to blood turbulence associated with closure of the atrioventricular valves

56
Q

what is the heart sound s2 related to?

A

associated with the closure of the semilunar valves and the end of systole

57
Q

what does the term pulse refer to?

A

alternating surges of pressure, expansion then recoil

58
Q

what is tachycardia?

A

heartrate over 100bpm

59
Q

what is bradycardia?

A

heartrate under 60bpm

60
Q

how to calculate the mean?

A

sum of all values/sample size

61
Q

how to calculate median?

A

value above and below which half the values lie, if there are even number take the mean of of the 2 median values

62
Q

how to calculate the mode?

A

most frequently occuring number

63
Q

what is the systolic pressure?

A

pressure in the arteries at the peak of ventricular contraction and ejection of blood

64
Q

what is diastolic pressure?

A

pressure during ventricular relaxation

65
Q

what is the pulse pressure?

A

difference between the systolic reading and the diastolic pressures and reflects the amount of blood forced from the heart during systole. this represents the actual working phase of the heart

66
Q

what is primary hypertenion?

A

does not have a known cause

67
Q

what is secondary hypertension?

A

has an underlying known cause

68
Q

how to calculate max heart rate?

A

220 - your age

69
Q

how to calculate target heart rate range?

A

65-85% of the maximum heart rate

70
Q

how many minutes of exercise recommended a week

A

150 minutes

71
Q

what effect should excericse have on bp?

A

should increase systolic value as heart is bringing in more blood

72
Q

what does p wave represent?

A

atrial depolarization

73
Q

what does the qrs wave represent?

A

ventricular depolarization

74
Q

what does the t wave represent?

A

ventricular repolarization

75
Q

how do you measure a ecg?

A

electrocardiogram is measured in mm by a ruler or on the computer

76
Q

what can a lengthened p-r wave represent?

A

arythemia/ delay of sa and av node

77
Q

what are cardiac stress tests?

A

hearts ability to respond to external stress in a controlled clinical environement

78
Q

what is an excerise stress test? measure?

A

tests: excersising while bp/hr is measured on a treadmil or bike, 8-12 mins
measure: hr changes and patterns, mental state, bp

79
Q

what is a nuclear imaging test?

A

look at heart muscle by binding chemicals, radioactive material
measures: how blood goes to heart at rest and during excersise.

80
Q

what is pharmacologic dubutamine stress nuclear test?

A

a test using a small dose of radioactive solution to track blood flow to the heart muscle and evaluate the heart function while dubutamine is injected.
measures: coronary hart dieases and your risk of heart attack, any blockages to heart arteries and assesment of pumping function

81
Q

what type of tissue lines respiraoty epithelium?

A

simple squamous

82
Q

what are the four pairs of nasal sinuses?

A

frontal, maxillary, sphenoid, and ethmoid

83
Q

what is the function of the paranasal sinuses?

A

lighten the skull weight, keep the passgaes moist from drying out

84
Q

what is the function of the nasal chonchae?

A

create turbulence and increase surface area, rapid warming humidification

85
Q

what bones are part of the bony part of the nasal septum?

A

perpendicular plate, ethmoid, vomer, and maxillary crest

86
Q

what are the three components of the pharynx?

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynpharynx

87
Q

what does the nasopharynx consist of?

A

internal nares, pharyngeal tonsil, soft palate (forms the floor)

88
Q

what does the auditory tube connect the nasopharynx to?

A

middle ear cavity

89
Q

what does the oropharnnx consist of?

A

uvula, palatine tonsils, lingual tonsils, sublingual saliary glands, submandibular salivary glands, parotid salivery glands

90
Q

what is the function of the uvula?

A

helps prevent food/liquad from going up nose when swallow

91
Q

what does the laryngopharynx consist of?

A

esophagus, glottis, epiglottis

92
Q

what is the glottis?

A

entrance to the trachea

93
Q

what is the function of the epiglottis and what tissue forms it?

A

prevents food/drink from entering the wind pipe/cover glottis and elastic cartilage

94
Q

what are the cartilages in the larynx?

A

thyroid cartilage
cricoid cartilage- hyaline c.t
epiglottis- elastic c.t

95
Q

what are vocal folds?

A

true vocal cords, protect the airway and regulate flow of air and speech

96
Q

what is the glotis?

A

entrance to the trachea

97
Q

what are small bronchioles? which structrue branches from these?

A

terminal bronchioles and respiraoty bronchioles branch

98
Q

what are respiratory bronchioles?

A

terminate in many alveolar ducts which lead to terminal clusters of alveoli, alveoli sacs

99
Q

what is bronchoconstriction?

A

smooth muscle contraction of walls in bronchioles
makes it harder to breath as passge way become smaller

100
Q

what type of tissue line the trachea?

A

psudeostratified ciliated columnar

101
Q

what type of cartilage forms walls of the trachea?

A

hyaline

102
Q

why only 2 lobes on the left side of the lung?

A

room for large left ventricle of heart

103
Q

what structures are in the mediastinum?

A

heart, trachea, bronchi

104
Q

what type of tissue line the alveoli?

A

simple squamous

105
Q

what name is given to the muscles that move the tongue?

A

styloglossus muscle

106
Q

what cartilages are evident in the larynx?

A

thyroid, cricoid, tracheal

107
Q

what purpose do the tracheal cartilages serve?

A

support the trachea and prevent collapse

108
Q

what is the function of the epiglottis?

A

prevent food from entering the trachea

109
Q

does the esophagus lie anterior or posterior to the trachea?

A

posterior

110
Q

what are the two serous membranes around the lungs?

A

parietal pleura- covers the cavity wall
visceral pleura- covers the organ in direct contact

111
Q

what is serous fluid?

A

cells of serous membrane secrete serous fluid that keeps membranes moist and allows frictionless movment of organs within the cavities

112
Q

does it take energy to fill the lungs?

A

yes muscle diaphram and intercoastals move as neg pressure fills the lung

113
Q

what is the function of the diaphram?

A

chnage pressure in thoracic cavtiy to enlarge it

114
Q

what type of tissue lines the trachea?

A

psuedostratified ciliated columnar

115
Q

trachea bifurcates?

A

divides to become the right and left primary bronchi

116
Q

what is tidal volume (tv)

A

amount of air exhnaged with single breath, resting condition

117
Q

what is inspiratory reserve volume? irv

A

additional air that can be inhaled over or above tidal volume

118
Q

what is expiratory reserve volume? erv

A

aditional air exhaled after normal resp cycle

119
Q

residual vomume? rv

A

amount of air remianing in lungs after maximum exhalation

120
Q

what is vital capitcy? vc

A

max amount of air moved in and out of lungs with single resp cycle

121
Q

what is total lung capcity?

A

total volume of the lungs

122
Q

what is the FEV1 a measure of?

A

forced expiratory volume in 1 second
volume of air that can be frocefully exhaled in 2 seconds

123
Q

how do you calculate minute respiraoty volume? mrv

A

mulitply average tv by average vr ventilation rate

124
Q

why does cardiovascular activity not influence vital capactiy?

A

main dterminent is body size larger people have bigger lungs
dont grow lungs with excerise

125
Q

how do you calculate FEV%

A

take FEV1/FCV

126
Q

what term is given to the air remaining in lungs after echaltion

A

resiudal volume

127
Q

what is dead air space or anatomic dead space refer to?

A

air unavailable for gas exchange

128
Q

important factors for VC

A

age- expansion/elastic recoil decrese with age and muscle loss
size- bigger lung
sex- males tend to be larger and have biger lungs

129
Q

what is restrictive pulmonary disease

A

lung disease that prevents lungs from expanding
both VC and FEV decrease

130
Q

what is obstructive pulmonary disease?

A

difficulty exhaling airway obstruction inflammation asthma copd cf is loss of elastic recoil and alveolar expansion

biology 152 (28 decks)

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