Test 2

Question 1

If x = 3 and y=3, then what is the solution to x^y?
a. 9
b. 27
c. 18
d. 1

Answer 1

b. 27

EXPLANATION

3^3 can be expressed as 3 * 3 * 3 = 9 * 3 = 27

Question 2

The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised is a measure of:
A. general mental ability.
B. work-related motivation.
C. occupational interests.
D. work-related integrity.

Answer 2

A. general mental ability.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-077 Answer A is correct. The Wonderlic Personnel Test – Revised (WPT-R) is a 12-minute test of general mental ability that’s used to predict job success.

Question 3

Violation of the psychological contract between employees and their employers has been identified as a contributor to:
A. work-family conflict.
B. job burnout.
C. low organization-based self-esteem.
D. downsizing survivor syndrome.

Answer 3

D. downsizing survivor syndrome.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-209 Answer D is correct. Downsizing survivor syndrome has been attributed to a sense of unfairness and reduction in trust caused by the organization’s violation of the psychological contract – i.e., of the unwritten expectations that employees and employers have about their responsibilities and obligations to each other.

Question 4

Which of the following is true about obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A. The onset of symptoms is earlier in males and males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
B. The onset of symptoms is earlier in females and females are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
C. The onset of symptoms is earlier in males but females are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
D. The onset of symptoms is earlier in females but males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.

Answer 4

A. The onset of symptoms is earlier in males and males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-142 Answer A is correct. According to DSM-5, “males have an earlier age at onset of OCD than females and are more likely to have comorbid tic disorders” (p. 240).

Question 5

A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery that affects a patient’s dominant hemisphere is most likely to produce which of the following symptoms?
A. contralateral hemiparesis, mutism, apathy, confusion, and impaired judgment
B. contralateral homonymous hemianopia, unilateral cortical blindness, visual agnosia, and memory loss
C. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, dysarthria, and aphasia
D. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, apraxia, and sensory neglect

Answer 5

C. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, dysarthria, and aphasia

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-178 Answer C is correct. The symptoms listed in this answer are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and the dominant hemisphere. You may have been able to identify this as the correct answer as long as you know that aphasia is caused by damage to certain areas of the dominant hemisphere. The symptoms listed in answer D are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and the non-dominant hemisphere; the symptoms listed in answer A are caused by a stroke involving the anterior cerebral artery; and the symptoms listed in answer B are caused by a stroke involving the posterior cerebral artery.

Question 6

When using the _____________ heuristic, people judge the likelihood of an event based on the extent to which it resembles a prototype.
A. confirmation
B. anchoring and adjustment
C. representativeness
D. availability

Answer 6

C. representativeness

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-026 Answer C is correct. Use of the representativeness heuristic involves ignoring base rates and other important information and basing judgments about the frequency or likelihood of an event on the extent to which the event resembles a prototype (typical case).

Question 7

When a patient with schizophrenia is taking a neuroleptic (antipsychotic) drug and develops the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, the drug should be:
A. gradually decreased until the symptoms stop.
B. gradually increased until the symptoms stop.
C. discontinued immediately.
D. gradually decreased or discontinued immediately depending on the severity of the patient’s symptoms.

Answer 7

C. discontinued immediately.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-202 Answer C is correct. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare side effect of neuroleptic drugs that produces hyperthermia, severe muscle rigidity, difficulty swallowing, tachycardia, and altered consciousness. Because NMS is life-threatening, the drug must be discontinued as soon as symptoms develop.

Question 8

According to Sherif and Hovland’s (1961) social judgment theory, which of the following affects the size of a person’s latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and non-commitment?
A. the person’s use of the peripheral or central route to process the information contained in the persuasive message
B. the person’s belief about his/her ability to perform the behavior advocated by the persuasive message
C. the person’s prior exposure to the arguments presented in the persuasive message
D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the persuasive message

Answer 8

D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the persuasive message

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-048 Answer D is correct. Social judgment theory predicts that the more ego-involved a person is with one side of the issue addressed by a persuasive message, the smaller his/her latitudes of acceptance and non-commitment and the larger his/her latitude of rejection. In other words, the greater the person’s ego-involvement in his/her position, the less likely the person is to be persuaded by a message advocating an opposing position.

Question 9

What is most likely to happen when Behavior A and Behavior B are being reinforced on the same reinforcement schedule and the reinforcement for Behavior A is suddenly stopped?
A. Behaviors A and B will both increase.
B. Behaviors A and B will both decrease.
C. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will stay the same.
D. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will increase.

Answer 9

D. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will increase.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LEA-Operant Conditioning-063 Answer D is correct. This question is asking about positive behavioral contrast, which occurs when two behaviors are being reinforced and the reinforcement for one behavior is stopped while reinforcement for the other behavior stays the same. In this situation the behavior that is no longer reinforced will decrease, while the behavior that is still receiving the same amount of reinforcement will increase. Note that behavioral contrast can also be negative: Negative behavioral contrast occurs when two behaviors are being reinforced and the reinforcement for one behavior is increased. In this situation, the behavior that receives more reinforcement will increase, while the behavior that receives the same amount of reinforcement will decrea

Question 10

A realistic job preview is used to:
A. identify newly hired employees who are likely to benefit from training.
B. reduce turnover by ensuring that new employees have accurate job expectations.
C. identify the most important job requirements when conducting a job analysis.
D. help new employees feel as though they’re part of the organization.

Answer 10

B. reduce turnover by ensuring that new employees have accurate job expectations.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-056 Answer B is correct. A realistic job preview involves informing job applicants about the positive and negative aspects of the job in order to reduce the risk for turnover after they’re hired by ensuring they have realistic job expectations.

Question 11

A(n) __________ therapist is most likely to agree that helping a client achieve awareness of his/her thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in the here-and-now is a primary goal of therapy.
A. reality
B. Rogerian
C. interpersonal
D. Gestalt

Answer 11

D. Gestalt

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-031 Answer D is correct. Gestalt therapy is based on the assumption that awareness of one’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in the present is a curative factor that enables a person to make better choices, satisfy his/her needs, and become a unified whole.

Question 12

A therapist believes that depression, anxiety, and other disorders are similar for all individuals regardless of their cultural background and that the same treatment approaches are effective for all clients. This therapist has adopted which of the following perspectives?
A. autoplastic
B. alloplastic
C. emic
D. etic

Answer 12

D. etic

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-213 Answer D is correct. A therapist who has an etic (culturally universal) perspective believes that culture has little or no impact on diagnosis and treatment, while a therapist who has an emic (culturally specific) perspective believes that culture affects how psychological symptoms are experienced and expressed and how clients respond to therapeutic interventions.

Question 13

A client whose symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for dissociative amnesia is unable to recall any events that occurred for about six weeks after she was brutally raped two years ago. This type of dissociative amnesia is referred to in the DSM-5 as:
A. selective.
B. localized.
C. continuous.
D. generalized.

Answer 13

B. localized.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-162 Answer B is correct. Dissociative amnesia is characterized by an inability to recall important autobiographical information that’s often related to exposure to a stressful or traumatic event and is more severe than normal forgetting. As described in DSM-5, memory loss associated with this disorder can take several forms including localized amnesia. This type occurs when the person is unable to recall events that happened during a limited period of time (e.g., for several weeks after the person experienced a traumatic event).

Question 14

You have just moved to Springfield and, to build your private practice, you plan to contact several psychologists in the Springfield area whom you met at a recent APA convention and offer them a fee for referring clients to you. With regard to ethical requirements, this is:
A. acceptable since ethical guidelines do not prohibit the payment or receipt of referral fees.
B. acceptable as long as you do not raise the fee you charge referred clients to obtain reimbursement for the referral fee.
C. acceptable only if the fee represents the psychologists’ actual costs for referring the clients to you.
D. unacceptable under any circumstances since ethical guidelines prohibit the payment or receipt of referral fees.

Answer 14

C. acceptable only if the fee represents the psychologists’ actual costs for referring the clients to you.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-157 Answer C is correct. Standard 6.07 of the APA Ethics Code addresses referral fees. It states that “when psychologists pay, receive payment from, or divide fees with another professional, other than in an employer-employee relationship, the payment to each is based on the services provided (clinical, consultative, administrative, or other) and is not based on the referral itself.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standards I.14 and II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 15

In a negatively skewed distribution of scores, the __________ is the lowest score and the __________ is the highest score.
A. mode; mean
B. mean; mode
C. median; mean
D. mean; median

Answer 15

B. mean; mode

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-058 Answer B is correct. Skewed distributions are asymmetrical with most scores “piled up” in one tail of the distribution and a few scores in the other tail: In a negatively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the distribution); in a positively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution) – i.e., the “tail tells the tale.” In both types of skewed distributions, the mean, median, and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of the scores. Consequently, in a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is the lowest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the highest score. Conversely, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean is the highest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the lowest score.

Question 16

As described by Piaget, children in the heteronomous stage of moral reasoning base their judgments about a person’s behavior on which of the following?
A. the consequences of the behavior
B. the person’s intentions
C. what they would have done in the same situation
D. their familiarity with the behavior or situation

Answer 16

A. the consequences of the behavior

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-200 Answer A is correct. Piaget distinguished between three stages of moral development: premoral, heteronomous, and autonomous. Children in the heteronomous stage base their moral judgments of a person’s behavior on its consequences, while children in the autonomous stage base their moral judgments on the person’s intentions.

Question 17

Assuming that a woman’s symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for a diagnosis of delusional disorder, the appropriate type of delusion is erotomanic if she’s convinced that:
A. her husband is having sexual relations with several of the neighbors.
B. a local celebrity she met at a fundraiser six months ago is in love with her.
C. every man she meets wants to have sex with her.
D. no “decent man” could ever be in love with her.

Answer 17

B. a local celebrity she met at a fundraiser six months ago is in love with her.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-035 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 states that the erotomanic type “applies when the central theme [of the delusion] is that another person is in love with the individual” (p. 90).

Question 18

The course of ____________ varies and may involve an acute onset of symptoms or a stepwise or progressive decline in functioning with fluctuations in symptoms or plateaus of varying length.
A. vascular neurocognitive disorder
B. alcohol-induced neurocognitive disorder
C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
D. neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease

Answer 18

A. vascular neurocognitive disorder

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-221 Answer A is correct. The course of vascular neurocognitive disorder depends on the nature and severity of the cerebrovascular disease, the areas of the brain that are affected, and other factors, and it may involve an acute onset of symptoms or a stepwise or fluctuating decline in functioning.

Question 19

A meta-analysis of the research led Rhodes and Wood (1992) to conclude that _______________ are associated with the greatest susceptibility to persuasion.
A. low levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
B. moderate levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
C. low levels of self-esteem and moderate levels of intelligence
D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

Answer 19

D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Persuasion-081 Answer D is correct. Rhodes and Wood found an inverted U-shaped relationship between self-esteem and influenceability with moderate levels of self-esteem being associated with the greatest susceptibility to influence. In contrast, they found a linear relationship between intelligence and influenceability, with lower levels of intelligence being associated with greater influenceability.

Question 20

For most infants, separation anxiety begins when the infant is between __________ months of age.
A. 2 and 4
B. 4 and 6
C. 6 and 8
D. 8 and 10

Answer 20

C. 6 and 8

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-188 Answer C is correct. The age at which separation anxiety begins varies somewhat but, for most infants, it’s first evident between the ages of 6 and 8 months, peaks in intensity between 14 and 18 months, and then gradually decreases. See, e.g., D. R. Shaffer and K. Kipp, Developmental psychology: Childhood and adolescence (9th ed.), Belmont, CA, Wadsworth, 2014.

Question 21

The ____________ is based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities and provides scores on five factors derived from that model: knowledge, fluid reasoning, quantitative reasoning, visual-spatial processing, and working memory.
A. SB5
B. WAIS-IV
C. KABC-II
D. WJ-IV

Answer 21

A. SB5

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-011 Answer A is correct. The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive ability integrates Horn and Cattell’s distinction between fluid and crystallized intelligence with Carroll’s three-stratum theory that includes general intelligence (g), several broad cognitive abilities, and multiple narrow cognitive abilities that each contribute to one of the broad abilities. The CHC model is a theoretical foundation for many cognitive ability tests including the SB5, WAIS-IV, KABC-II, and WJ-IV, but only the SB-5 provides scores on the five factors listed in the question.

Question 22

A therapist instructs a woman who constantly starts arguments with her partner and hates cleaning the house to spend one hour cleaning the house every time she initiates an argument. The therapist is using which of the following techniques?
A. an ordeal
B. a ritual
C. positioning
D. prescribing the symptom

Answer 22

A. an ordeal

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-119 Answer A is correct. Ordeals are used by strategic family therapists to reduce or eliminate a client’s undesirable behavior by instructing the client to do an unpleasant task whenever he or she engages in that behavior. Ideally, the client will stop engaging in the undesirable behavior in order to avoid doing the unpleasant task.

Question 23

Which of the following has been found to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and different measures of job performance?
A. structured employment interviews
B. general mental ability tests
C. biographical information blanks
D. assessment centers

Answer 23

B. general mental ability tests

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-045 Answer B is correct. General mental ability tests are among the most frequently used selection techniques and have been found to be the most valid predictors of job performance across a variety of jobs, measures of job performance, and organizations.

Question 24

The dopamine hypothesis attributes __________ to elevated levels of or oversensitivity to dopamine in certain areas of the brain.
A. depression
B. schizophrenia
C. ADHD
D. anorexia nervosa

Answer 24

B. schizophrenia

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-010 Answer B is correct. The dopamine hypothesis predicts that excessive dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathways of the brain are responsible for the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Question 25

Which of the following has NOT been identified as an explanation for bystander apathy?
A. social loafing
B. pluralistic ignorance
C. evaluation apprehension
D. diffusion of responsibility

Answer 25

A. social loafing

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-135 Answer A is correct. Social loafing occurs when members of a group exert less effort when working on a task than they would have exerted when working alone. Unlike pluralistic ignorance, evaluation apprehension, and diffusion of responsibility, social loafing has not been used to explain bystander apathy.

Question 26

As described by Piaget, the ability to conserve emerges during the concrete operational stage and depends on which of the following?
A. transductive reasoning
B. hypothetico-deductive reasoning
C. transformational thinking
D. symbolic thinking

Answer 26

C. transformational thinking

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Cognitive Development-117 Answer C is correct. Piaget proposed that the ability to solve conservation problems develops during the concrete operational stage as the result of the emergence of reversibility of thought, decentration, and transformational thinking.

Question 27

During his first session with a family, a structural family therapist notices that, whenever the father tries to shed some light on the family’s problems, the mother and teenage son interrupt him and contradict what he’s saying. The therapist will describe this interaction as a:
A. detouring coalition.
B. stable coalition.
C. symmetrical interaction.
D. complementary interaction.

Answer 27

B. stable coalition.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-130 Answer B is correct. Practitioners of Minuchin’s structural family therapy distinguish between three rigid family triads – stable coalition, detouring coalition, and triangulation. A stable coalition occurs when two family members (often a parent and child) consistently “gang up” against a third family member (the other parent).

Question 28

To serve as an expert witness in a court case, a psychologist must be:
A. determined to be qualified to do so by the attorney requesting his/her services.
B. determined to be qualified to do so by the judge.
C. certified as an expert witness by a professional forensic organization.
D. certified as an expert witness by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards.

Answer 28

B. determined to be qualified to do so by the judge.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ETH-Professional Issues-219 Answer B is correct. When an attorney representing the plaintiff or defendant in a court case wants a psychologist to provide expert testimony, the judge decides whether or not to allow that testimony. The judge’s decision is based on consideration of the relevance of the psychologist’s knowledge, skills, experience, training, and education.

Question 29

Kluver and Bucy (1938) found that bilateral lesioning of which of the following areas of the brain in rhesus monkeys caused visual agnosia, reduced fear, increased docility, dietary changes, and abnormal sexual behavior.
A. medulla, hippocampus, and frontal lobes
B. medulla, hypothalamus, and frontal lobes
C. amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal lobes
D. amygdala, hypothalamus, and temporal lobes

Answer 29

C. amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal lobes

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-087 Answer C is correct. H. Kluver and P. C. Bucy (1939) state that Kluver-Bucy syndrome was caused by lesioning the temporal lobe, hippocampus, and amygdala of rhesus monkeys. They also note that the hippocampus is part of the Papez circuit which is responsible for emotions and includes the hypothalamus and other structures, and they suggest that lesioning the hippocampus interrupted this circuit, which means that it also interrupted the normal functioning of those structures. However, answer D is not the best answer because Kluver and Bucy did not lesion the hypothalamus, and this question is asking about the areas of the brain that they lesioned [Preliminary analysis of the functions of the temporal lobes in monkeys, Archives of Neurology and Psychiatry, 42(6), 979-100, 1939].

Question 30

Dr. Merritt overhears Alice, one of the interns she’s supervising, making disparaging remarks about people with addictions to a group of friends on two separate occasions. However, Dr. Merritt has never observed Alice acting in an inappropriate way with clients who have any type of addiction and she hasn’t discussed what she overheard with Alice. When Alice receives her performance evaluation, Dr. Merritt has noted that one of the low ratings she assigned was due to her concern that Alice is likely to have trouble working with clients who have an addiction. With regard to ethical guidelines:
A. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is acceptable because of the unacceptability of the disparaging remarks Alice made.
B. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is acceptable as long as it includes an explanation for her concerns about Alice’s ability to work with clients who have an addiction.
C. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is acceptable as long as it was provided to Alice in a timely manner and she’s willing to discuss her concerns with Alice.
D. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is not acceptable because it was not based entirely on Alice’s actual performance as an intern.

Answer 30

D. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is not acceptable because it was not based entirely on Alice’s actual performance as an intern.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-169 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 7.06(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.06(b) states that “psychologists evaluate students and supervisees on the basis of their actual performance on relevant and established program requirements.”

Question 31

The 22-year-old biological son of taller-than-average parents is shorter than average. Which of the following helps explain the son’s height?
A. genotype
B. phenotype
C. gene expression
D. canalization

Answer 31

B. phenotype

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-007 Answer B is correct. A phenotype is a characteristic that’s directly observable and is the result of a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Consequently, a person whose genotype (genetic inheritance) is consistent with above-average height may be shorter than average due to malnutrition during childhood or other environmental factor(s).

Question 32

Based on the results of his research on learning, ____________ concluded that deriving a solution to a problem can be the result of insight, which involves mentally restructuring the elements of the problem in order to see it in a new way.
A. Hermann Ebbinghaus
B. Wolfgang Kohler
C. Edward Thorndike
D. Edward Tolman

Answer 32

B. Wolfgang Kohler

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-118 Answer B is correct. The results of Kohler’s research with chimpanzees demonstrated that, at least in some situations, problem-solving is not the result of trial-and-error but, instead, sudden insight into the problem – i.e., on having an “aha” experience.

Question 33

In the first phase of one of Pavlov’s experiments with dogs, a tone was repeatedly paired with food so that, eventually, a dog salivated when the tone was presented alone. In the second phase of the experiment, a light was repeatedly paired with the tone so that the dog also salivated when the light was presented alone. The procedure used in this experiment is known as:
A. stimulus generalization.
B. stimulus discrimination.
C. delay conditioning.
D. higher-order conditioning.

Answer 33

D. higher-order conditioning.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LEA-Classical Conditioning-019 Answer D is correct. Higher-order conditioning involves using the initial conditioned stimulus (the tone in the situation described in this question) as an unconditioned stimulus by pairing it with a neutral stimulus (the light) so that the neutral stimulus also becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits a conditioned response (salivation) when it’s presented alone. Note that, when higher-order conditioning involves a second conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as second-order conditioning; and, when it involves a third conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as third-order conditioning.

Question 34

Which of the following is true about the side effects of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and the tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce serious cardiovascular effects, while TCAs are more likely to produce anticholinergic effects and sexual dysfunction.
B. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce anticholinergic effects and sexual dysfunction, while TCAs are more likely to produce serious cardiovascular effects.
C. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce anticholinergic effects, while TCAs are more likely to produce cardiovascular effects and sexual dysfunction.
D. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce sexual dysfunction, while TCAs are more likely to produce anticholinergic effects and serious cardiovascular effects.

Answer 34

D. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce sexual dysfunction, while TCAs are more likely to produce anticholinergic effects and serious cardiovascular effects.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-208 Answer D is correct. TCAs have a higher risk than SSRIs for serious cardiovascular effects (e.g., arrhythmias, congestive heart failure) and anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, constipation, and drowsiness), but SSRIs have a higher risk for sexual dysfunction (e.g., reduced sexual desire, erectile dysfunction).

Question 35

According to Alfred Adler, which of the following is the major determinant of whether a person has a healthy or mistaken style of life?
A. social interest
B. self-efficacy
C. object relations
D. personal constructs

Answer 35

A. social interest

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-009 Answer A is correct. Style of life is a central concept in Adler’s individual psychology and refers to the ways in which a person attempts to overcome feelings of inferiority and strive for superiority. According to Adler, people whose goals and behaviors reflect a high degree of social interest have a healthy style of life, while those whose goals and behaviors reflect a high degree of self-centeredness rather than social interest have a mistaken style of life.

Question 36

Before using a newly developed 10-item screening test to identify people who are depressed, you administer the test to a sample of clinic patients along with an established (validated) 50-item measure of depression and correlate the two sets of scores. In this situation, you are evaluating the screening test’s:
A. content validity.
B. divergent validity.
C. differential validity.
D. concurrent validity.

Answer 36

D. concurrent validity.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-082 Answer D is correct. Concurrent validity is a type of criterion-related validity that involves determining how well a new predictor (e.g., a screening test) estimates current scores on a criterion (e.g., a validated measure of depression).

Question 37

Organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis are components of which of the following?
A. work-oriented job analysis
B. worker-oriented job analysis
C. job evaluation
D. needs analysis

Answer 37

D. needs analysis

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-100 Answer D is correct. A needs analysis is conducted to identify training needs and often includes an organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis.

Question 38

Studies investigating the impact of client-therapist match in terms of race and ethnicity suggest that:
A. clients tend to prefer therapists of the same race or ethnicity and also have significantly better therapy outcomes when their therapists are of the same race or ethnicity.
B. clients tend to prefer therapists of the same race or ethnicity but matching clients and therapists in terms of race and ethnicity has little effect on therapy outcomes.
C. clients experience significantly better therapy outcomes when their therapists are of the same race or ethnicity only when they had a strong preference for a therapist of the same race or ethnicity.
D. clients experience worse therapy outcomes when their therapists are not of the same race or ethnicity, regardless of their stated preferences.

Answer 38

B. clients tend to prefer therapists of the same race or ethnicity but matching clients and therapists in terms of race and ethnicity has little effect on therapy outcomes.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-189 Answer B is correct. Research on the effects of client-therapist matching in terms of race and ethnicity has not produced entirely consistent results. However, the best overall conclusion is that clients often prefer therapists of the same race or ethnicity, but matching clients and therapists in terms of race or ethnicity does not have a significant effect on therapy outcomes. See, e.g., C. B. Smith, A. Soto, D. Griner, and J. E. Trimble, Multicultural counseling foundations: A synthesis of research findings on selected topics, in P. B. Pedersen, W. J. Lonner, J. G. Draguns, J. E. Trimble, and M. R. Scharron-del Rio (Eds.), Counseling across cultures (7th ed.), Los Angeles, SAGE, 2016.

Question 39

Dr. Oz (lmao) conducts a study to compare the effects of three treatments (drug, relaxation, and drug plus relaxation) on the systolic blood pressure of patients who have secondary hypertension as the result of three different conditions (tobacco use, chronic alcohol use, or obesity). To analyze the main and interaction effects of treatment and condition on systolic blood pressure, Dr. Oz will use which of the following statistical tests?
A. chi-square test for multiple samples
B. t-test for independent samples
C. two-way ANOVA
D. MANOVA

Answer 39

C. two-way ANOVA

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-102 Answer C is correct. The first two things to do when choosing an inferential statistical test are to identify (1) the independent and dependent variables and (2) the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study has two independent variables – treatment and condition – and one dependent variable – systolic blood pressure. You may have had trouble with this question because you were uncertain about the scale of measurement of systolic blood pressure. However, a general rule is that most physical measurements (including systolic blood pressure) represent an interval or ratio scale, which means that the appropriate statistical test will be a t-test or analysis of variance. To choose between the t-test, the two-way ANOVA, and the MANOVA, you have to consider how many independent and dependent variables there are. There are two independent variables, which eliminates the t-test because it’s used when there’s only one independent variable; and there is one dependent variable, which eliminates the MANOVA because it’s used when there are two or more dependent variables. That leaves the two-way ANOVA, which is the correct answer. It’s used when a study includes two independent variables and one dependent variable that’s measured on an interval or ratio scale.

Question 40

You would use which of the following to assess the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking 21-year-old?
A. WJ-IV
B. Leiter-3
C. SIT-R3-1
D. KABC-II

Answer 40

B. Leiter-3

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-066 Answer B is correct. The Leiter International Performance Scale, Third Edition (Leiter-3) is a measure of cognitive abilities for individuals ages 3 to 75+. Because of its nonverbal format, it’s useful for non-English speakers and individuals with language impairments.

Question 41

Electrical stimulation of a person’s ascending reticular activating system will have which of the following effects?
A. A sleeping person will wake up and an awake person will become more alert.
B. A sleeping person will have lucid dreams.
C. An awake person will engage in unconscious repetitive motor tics.
D. An awake person will experience a sense of deja vu.

Answer 41

A. A sleeping person will wake up and an awake person will become more alert.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-043 Answer A is correct. The ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) is involved in arousal and the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle. Direct electrical stimulation of the ARAS or stimulation by sensory input can awaken a sleeping person and cause an awake person to become more alert.

Question 42

The results of a factor analysis indicate that a test has a correlation coefficient of .20 with Factor I, .35 with Factor II, and .60 with Factor III. The correlation of .60 indicates that ____% of variability in test scores is explained by Factor III.
A. 60
B. 40
C. 36
D. 64

Answer 42

C. 36

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-071 Answer C is correct. Factor loadings are interpreted like other correlation coefficients for two different measures and are squared to obtain a measure of shared variability. When the correlation between a test and a factor is .60, this means that 36% (.60 squared) of variability in test scores is explained by variability in the factor.

Question 43

Which of the following best describes sensory memory?
A. large capacity and brief duration
B. large capacity and long duration
C. small capacity and brief duration
D. small capacity and long duration

Answer 43

A. large capacity and brief duration

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-129 Answer A is correct. Sensory memory is also known as sensory register and receives information directly from the environment. It has a large capacity for information, but stores it for a very brief period of time (from about one-fourth second to four seconds).

Question 44

The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA Ethics Code states that APA may take action against a member not only when a complaint has been filed against him or her but also when a member:
A. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association.
B. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony.
C. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor.
D. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor that’s related to the practice or profession of psychology.

Answer 44

B. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-006 Answer B is correct. The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA Ethics Code states that “APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure.” As noted by C. B. Fisher, the felony conviction does not have to be related to activities the member performed in his or her role as a psychologist (Decoding the Ethics Code, Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, 2017).

Question 45

Research evaluating the effectiveness of single-session psychological debriefing as a treatment for PTSD has found that it:
A. is a research-supported intervention for PTSD.
B. has beneficial effects only when it’s provided immediately after the individual has been exposed to a traumatic event.
C. is effective only when it’s provided by psychologists or other mental health professionals who have received adequate training in its use.
D. has not been found to be an effective treatment and, in some cases, may actually increase PTSD symptoms.

Answer 45

D. has not been found to be an effective treatment and, in some cases, may actually increase PTSD symptoms.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-156 Answer D is correct. Psychological debriefing is a single session intervention that’s provided by a first responder or mental health professional immediately after an individual has been exposed to a traumatic event. The research has generally found that it does not prevent or reduce the symptoms of PTSD and may actually increase symptoms by interfering with the recovery process. See, e.g., A. A. P. Van Emmerik, J. H. Kamphuls, A. M. Hulsbosch, and P. M. G. Emmelkamp, Single session debriefing after psychological trauma: A meta-analysis, The Lancet, 360, 766-771, 2002

Question 46

Sue and Sue (2015) propose that a White therapist with an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility is likely to encounter the most difficulties when working with clients from an ethnic or racial minority group who have an:
A. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
B. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility.
C. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
D. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility.

Answer 46

B. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-207 Answer B is correct. Sue and Sue describe worldview in terms of two dimensions – locus of control and locus of responsibility. They note that an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility are characteristic of Western approaches to psychotherapy. They also state that White therapists with this worldview are likely to have the most difficult problems when working with clients from racial/ethnic minority groups who have an internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility because these clients are most likely to challenge the therapist’s credibility and trustworthiness.

Question 47

To compare an obtained sample mean to a known population mean, you would use which of the following?
A. ANCOVA
B. one-way ANOVA
C. t-test for a single sample
D. single sample chi-square test

Answer 47

C. t-test for a single sample

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-091 Answer C is correct. The t-test is always used to compare two means and the appropriate t-test depends on how the means were obtained. When an obtained sample mean will be compared to a known population mean, the t-test for a single sample is the appropriate t-test. In this situation, the sample is the treatment group and the population is being used as the control (no treatment) group.

Question 48

A newly promoted manager tells you that most of the employees he manages have high levels of motivation but limited skills, and he asks your advice about the best management style in this situation. As an advocate of ______________, you recommend that he adopt a selling leadership style.
A. Fiedler’s contingency theory
B. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory
C. House’s path-goal theory
D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

Answer 48

B. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Organizational Leadership-173 Answer B is correct. Hersey and Blanchard’s (1988) situational leadership theory distinguishes between four leadership styles (telling, selling, participating, delegating) and proposes that the best style depends on a worker’s motivation and ability.

Question 49

Glasser’s (1998) reality therapy is based on the premise that ____________ leads to the development of a failure identity.
A. a boundary disturbance
B. irresponsible behavior
C. an unresolved intrapsychic conflict
D. incongruence between self and experience

Answer 49

B. irresponsible behavior

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Psychodynamic & Humanistic Therapies-042 Answer B is correct. According to Glasser, when people satisfy their needs in a responsible way (in a way that does not interfere with the ability of other people to satisfy their needs), they have adopted a success identity. In contrast, when people are unable to fulfill their needs or do so in an irresponsible way, they have adopted a failure identity.

Question 50

Which of the following provides global scores that correspond to two theoretical models – the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities and the Luria neuropsychological processing model?
A. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition
B. Slosson Intelligence Test, Revised Third Edition
C. Cognitive Assessment System, Second Edition
D. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, Fourth Edition

Answer 50

A. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-044 Answer A is correct. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (KABC-II) provides five scale scores (Simultaneous, Sequential, Planning, Learning, and Knowledge) and two global scores. The global score based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities includes performance on measures of acquired (crystallized) knowledge, while the global score based on the Luria neuropsychological processing model does not include performance on measures of acquired knowledge.

Question 51

As described by Janis (1982), groupthink is most likely to occur in:
A. highly cohesive groups that have a strong directive leader.
B. heterogeneous groups that have a transformational leader.
C. highly cohesive groups that have a laissez faire leader.
D. autonomous groups that don’t have a designated leader.

Answer 51

A. highly cohesive groups that have a strong directive leader.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-185 Answer A is correct. Janis identified a high degree of group cohesiveness and a strong directive leader as two of the conditions that increase the risk for groupthink.

Question 52

The first step in Meichenbaum’s (1977) self-instructional training is:
A. conceptualization.
B. cognitive modeling.
C. problem identification.
D. orientation.

Answer 52

B. cognitive modeling.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-159 Answer B is correct. Meichenbaum’s self-instructional training was originally developed to help impulsive children have greater self-control when completing tasks by teaching them to use helpful self-statements to guide their behaviors. It involves five steps: cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance, and covert self-instruction.

Question 53

As described by Carl Jung, ____________ involves bringing aspects of the personal and collective unconscious into consciousness.
A. self-actualization
B. introjection
C. individuation
D. separation-individuation

Answer 53

C. individuation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-020 Answer C is correct. Individuation is a key concept in Jung’s personality theory. It refers to the process of integrating the conscious and unconscious aspects of one’s personality in order to develop a unique identity

Question 54

The adoption of a multicultural perspective is characteristic of which stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (2003) racial/cultural identity development model?
A. internalization
B. introspection
C. integrative awareness
D. immersion-emersion

Answer 54

C. integrative awareness

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-220 Answer C is correct. Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s racial/cultural identity development model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. The development of a multicultural perspective is characteristic of the final stage and involves recognizing that there are positive and negative aspects of all cultures.

Question 55

When people are exposed to arguments that address both sides of a controversial issue, a primacy effect is most likely to occur when:
A. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.
B. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.
C. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.
D. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.

Answer 55

B. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Persuasion-070 Answer B is correct. The primacy effect is the tendency to remember or be persuaded most by information that’s presented first. Miller and Campbell (1959) found that the primacy effect is most likely to occur when the two sides of an argument are presented back-to-back and there’s an interval of time between presentation of the second side and attitude assessment.

Question 56

Infants less than three months of age usually begin a sleep period with:
A. transitional sleep.
B. REM sleep.
C. stage 2 sleep.
D. stage 3 sleep.

Answer 56

B. REM sleep.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Memory and Sleep-166 Answer B is correct. Prior to about three months of age, infants usually begin a sleep period with REM sleep, which is followed by NREM sleep. This sequence reverses at about three months of age and the four stages of NREM sleep become apparent by about six months of age.

Question 57

The two most commonly used behavioral interventions for ____________ are the squeeze and start/stop techniques.
A. premature ejaculation
B. erectile dysfunction
C. delayed ejaculation
D. genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder

Answer 57

A. premature ejaculation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-198 Answer A is correct. The squeeze and start/stop techniques are used to help delay ejaculation for men dealing with premature ejaculation.

Question 58

The job characteristics model (Hackman & Oldham, 1980) identifies five core job dimensions that affect worker motivation, satisfaction, and performance. Which of the following is NOT one of these dimensions?
A. feedback
B. task identity
C. autonomy
D. work engagement

Answer 58

D. work engagement

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Theories of Motivation-191 Answer D is correct. The five core job dimensions identified by the job characteristics model are skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback.

Question 59

A researcher has made a Type II error when she:
A. rejects a false null hypothesis.
B. rejects a true null hypothesis.
C. retains a false null hypothesis.
D. retains a true null hypothesis.

Answer 59

C. retains a false null hypothesis.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-069 Answer C is correct. There are two decision errors a researcher can make when interpreting the results of a research study: A Type I error occurs when a researcher rejects a true null hypothesis – i.e., when he/she erroneously concludes that the independent variable had an effect on the dependent variable. A Type II error occurs when a researcher retains a false null hypothesis – i.e., when he/she erroneously concludes that the independent variable did not have an effect on the dependent variable.

Question 60

Tajfel and Turner’s (1986) social identity theory proposes that prejudice and discrimination are attributable to:
A. competition between groups for valuable resources.
B. displaced hostility onto members of outgroups.
C. a natural tendency to categorize people into groups.
D. conformity to social norms.

Answer 60

C. a natural tendency to categorize people into groups.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-143 Answer C is correct. Tajfel and Turner’s social identity theory is based on the assumption that people have a natural tendency to categorize people into groups, to identify with one or more groups, and to favor in-groups and disparage out-groups.

Question 61

The overjustification effect occurs when:
A. a person attributes the positive outcomes of his/her behavior to dispositional factors when they were actually due to situational factors.
B. a person attributes the negative outcomes of his/her behavior to situational factors when they were actually due to dispositional factors.
C. obtaining external rewards for engaging in a behavior reduces intrinsic motivation to perform that behavior.
D. obtaining external rewards for engaging in a behavior increases intrinsic motivation to perform that behavior.

Answer 61

C. obtaining external rewards for engaging in a behavior reduces intrinsic motivation to perform that behavior.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-059 Answer C is correct. The overjustification effect predicts that, when people are externally reinforced for engaging in an intrinsically rewarding behavior, their intrinsic motivation declines (Lepper, Greene, & Nisbett, 1973).

Question 62

Researchers using the mirror task have found that most infants begin to recognize themselves in a mirror by about ____ months of age.
A. nine
B. twelve
C. fifteen
D. eighteen

Answer 62

D. eighteen

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-164 Answer D is correct. The mirror task involves putting a mark on an infant’s head before placing the infant in front of a mirror. Infants demonstrate self-recognition when they see the mark in the mirror and touch their own foreheads rather than the forehead of the image in the mirror. For most infants, this occurs when they reach 18 months of age. See, e.g., J. Brooks-Gunn and M. Lewis, The development of early self-recognition, Developmental Review, 4, 215-239, 1984.

Question 63

One of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability is the presence of deficits in intellectual functioning. As described in the DSM-5, deficits are suggested by a score of about _____ or more standard deviations below the mean on an individualized, standardized intelligence test.
A. 1-1/2
B. 2
C. 2-1/2
D. 3

Answer 63

B. 2

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-002 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 states that individuals with intellectual disability obtain scores of about two or more standard deviations below the mean on an individualized, standardized intelligence test. When the standard error of measurement is considered, this means an IQ score of 65 to 75 or lower on a test that has a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15.

Question 64

The item discrimination index (D) provides information on how well a test item discriminates between examinees who obtain a high or low score on the entire test. It ranges in value from:
A. 0 to +1.0
B. -1.0 to +1.0.
C. 0 to 100
D. -.50 to +.50

Answer 64

B. -1.0 to +1.0.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-005 Answer B is correct. The item discrimination index (D) is calculated by subtracting the percent of examinees in the low scoring group (those who obtained a low score on the entire test) who answered the item correctly from the percent of examinees in the high scoring group (those who obtained a high score on the entire test) who answered the item correctly. D ranges from -1.0 to +1.0 and, the closer D is to 0, the weaker its ability to discriminate.

Question 65

To ensure she obtains a sufficient number of volunteers for her research, Dr. Turay offers volunteers a gift card to the local restaurant of their choice. With regard to ethical guidelines, this is:
A. unacceptable under any circumstances.
B. acceptable since the inducement is a gift card rather than cash.
C. acceptable only if volunteers can choose either cash or a gift card.
D. acceptable as long as a gift card is not likely to coerce participation.

Answer 65

D. acceptable as long as a gift card is not likely to coerce participation.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-175 Answer D is correct. Offering inducements to research participants is addressed in Standard 8.06 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.29 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.06 states that “psychologists make reasonable efforts to avoid offering excessive or inappropriate financial or other inducements for research participation when such inducements are likely to coerce participation.”

Question 66

Providing patients who have just completed substance abuse treatment with training in coping and relapse prevention skills is an example of:
A. primary prevention.
B. secondary prevention.
C. tertiary prevention.
D. quaternary prevention.

Answer 66

C. tertiary prevention.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-171 Answer C is correct. Prevention programs are often classified as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Tertiary preventions are aimed at reducing the severity or duration of a disorder and/or reducing the risk for relapse.

Question 67

Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy’s (1989) hopelessness model of depression proposes that hopelessness is a proximal cause of depression and that a sense of hopelessness is the result of:
A. a lack of response contingent reinforcement.
B. stable and global attributions for negative life events.
C. depressogenic cognitive schemata.
D. deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

Answer 67

B. stable and global attributions for negative life events.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-090 Answer B is correct. According to L. Y. Abramson, G. I. Metalsky, and L. B. Alloy, the tendency to attribute negative life events to stable and global factors produces hopelessness (an expectation that desirable outcomes will not occur and/or that undesirable outcomes will occur). Hopelessness then leads to a specific type of depression, which they refer to as “hopelessness depression” (Hopelessness depression: A theory-based subtype of depression, Psychological Review, 96, 358-372, 1989).

Question 68

The core components of transformational leadership include all of the following except:
A. individualized consideration.
B. idealized influence.
C. intellectual stimulation.
D. group consensus.

Answer 68

D. group consensus.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Organizational Leadership-179 Answer D is correct. As defined by Bass and Steidlmeier (1999), the four core components of transformational leadership are idealized influence, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration.

Question 69

As described by Vygotsky, “scaffolding” refers to which of the following?
A. existing cognitive schemas
B. assistance from adults and more experienced peers
C. rehearsing a new skill past the point of mastery
D. reinforcers that are used to shape a desired behavior

Answer 69

B. assistance from adults and more experienced peers

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Cognitive Development-128 Answer B is correct. According to Vygotsky, assistance from adults and more experienced peers (scaffolding) helps a learner advance within his/her zone of proximal development.

Question 70

In the context of operant conditioning, ________ refers to the systematic and gradual removal of prompts.
A. desensitization
B. habituation
C. fading
D. thinning

Answer 70

C. fading

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LEA-Operant Conditioning-085 Answer C is correct. Fading refers to the gradual removal of prompts so that, eventually, the desired behavior occurs without prompts. Be careful not to confuse fading with thinning, which refers to the reduction of reinforcement.

Question 71

An adolescent says, “I’m trying real hard to figure out what I want to do with my life and haven’t decided whether I want to get married and have children or what college major or career I want to pursue.” These comments are most consistent with Marcia’s (1966) __________ status.
A. diffusion
B. foreclosure
C. moratorium
D. upheaval

Answer 71

C. moratorium

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-176 Answer C is correct. Marcia identified four identity statuses (diffusion, moratorium, foreclosure, and achievement) that describe identity development in adolescence, with each status being determined by whether or not the adolescent has experienced an identity crisis and made a commitment to a specific identity. The adolescent described in this question is currently experiencing an identity crisis (he’s trying to figure out what he wants to do with his life) and has not made a commitment to a particular identity in terms of college major, career, or marriage. The combination of currently experiencing an identity crisis and a lack of commitment to a particular identity is characteristic of the moratorium status.

Question 72

Damage to certain areas of the dominant parietal lobe can produce Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes all of the following symptoms except:
A. finger agnosia.
B. agraphia.
C. left-right confusion.
D. ataxia.

Answer 72

D. ataxia.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-120 Answer D is correct. Gerstmann’s syndrome involves four symptoms: finger agnosia, left-right confusion, agraphia (difficulty writing), and acalculia (difficulty performing simple mathematical operations). Even if you’re not familiar with Gerstmann’s syndrome, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you know that ataxia (loss of muscle control) is usually caused by damage to the cerebellum.

Question 73

When a client’s symptoms meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for both panic disorder and agoraphobia, she would receive which of the following diagnoses?
A. agoraphobia
B. agoraphobia with panic attacks
C. panic disorder with agoraphobia
D. panic disorder and agoraphobia

Answer 73

D. panic disorder and agoraphobia

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-123 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 notes that, when a person’s symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for panic disorder and agoraphobia, both diagnoses should be assigned.

Question 74

To evaluate the test-retest reliability of a newly developed measure of intelligence, a test developer administers the test to the same sample of examinees on two separate occasions. When he correlates the two sets of scores, he obtains a reliability coefficient of .60. To increase this reliability coefficient, the test developer should:
A. increase the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is heterogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.
B. increase the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is homogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.
C. decrease the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is heterogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.
D. decrease the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is homogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.

Answer 74

A. increase the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is heterogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-049 Answer A is correct. A test’s reliability coefficient is affected by several factors including the length of the test and the degree of similarity of examinees with regard to the attribute(s) measured by the test: In general, longer tests are more reliable than shorter tests and reliability coefficients are larger when they’re derived from a sample that has an unrestricted range of scores – i.e., when examinees in the sample are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute(s) measured by the test.

Question 75

Francis Galton was surprised when he found that a group of contestants at a country fair produced a more accurate estimate of an oxen’s weight when their individual estimates were averaged than the estimate made by any one cattle expert. Averaging the estimates provided by a group of contestants is an example of which of the following tasks?
A. disjunctive
B. conjunctive
C. discretionary
D. compensatory

Answer 75

D. compensatory

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-114 Answer D is correct. Steiner (1972) distinguished between five types of group tasks: additive, compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, and discretionary. When working on a compensatory task, the group’s output is the average of each member’s estimate, judgment, or other input.

Question 76

The DSM-5 diagnosis of gender dysphoria requires marked incongruence between one’s experienced/expressed gender and one’s assigned gender for at least:
A. 12 months for children and six months for adolescents and adults.
B. 18 months for children and 12 months for adolescents and adults.
C. 12 months for children, adolescents, and adults.
D. six months for children, adolescents, and adults.

Answer 76

D. six months for children, adolescents, and adults.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-192 Answer D is correct. The symptoms of gender dysphoria differ somewhat for children and adolescents/adults, but the DSM-5 requires a minimum duration of symptoms of six months regardless of the individual’s age.

Question 77

The concordance rate for schizophrenia for non-twin siblings is:
A. 41%.
B. 23%.
C. 18%.
D. 9%.

Answer 77

D. 9%.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-057 Answer D is correct. In his frequently cited review of the research, I. Gottesman reported a concordance rate for schizophrenia of 9% for non-twin siblings (Schizophrenia genesis, New York, W. H. Freeman & Co., 1991).

Question 78

In a research study, Halloween trick-or-treaters were assigned to one of four conditions: alone and identifiable, alone and unidentifiable, group and identifiable, or group and unidentifiable. For children in each condition, the researcher left the room after instructing them to take only one piece of candy from the bowl on the table. The results indicated that children took the most candy from the bowl when they were in a group and unidentifiable. These results provide support for which of the following?
A. deindividuation
B. insufficient justification
C. behavioral willingness
D. groupthink

Answer 78

A. deindividuation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-103 Answer A is correct. The study described in this question is similar to the one conducted by E. Diener, S. C. Fraser, A. L. Beaman, and R. T. Kelem (Effects of deindividuation variables on stealing by Halloween trick-or-treaters, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 33, 178-183, 1976). Consistent with other research on deindividuation, Diener et al. found that children took the most candy when they were in a group and could do so anonymously.

Question 79

Some investigators interested in peer relationships have compared the outcomes for children who are either rejected or neglected by their peers. Their studies have found that:
A. rejected children have worse outcomes than neglected children and are less likely to experience a change in status when they change peer groups.
B. rejected children have better outcomes than neglected children and are more likely to experience a change in status when they change peer groups.
C. rejected and neglected children have similar outcomes, but neglected children are more likely to experience a change in status when they change peer groups.
D. rejected and neglected children have similar outcomes, but rejected children are more likely to experience a change in status when they change peer groups.

Answer 79

A. rejected children have worse outcomes than neglected children and are less likely to experience a change in status when they change peer groups.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-212 Answer A is correct. The studies have found that rejected and neglected children both experience negative outcomes because of their peer status but that neglected children tend to be less lonely, less aggressive, more prosocial, and more likely to experience a change in status when they change classes, schools, or play groups. See, e.g., J. D. Coie and K. A. Dodge, Continuities and changes in children’s social status: A five-year longitudinal study, Merrill-Palmer Quarterly, 19, 261-282, 1983.

Question 80

The development of which of the following tests was based on Murray’s personality theory?
A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B. Thematic Apperception Test
C. Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire
D. NEO Personality Inventor

Answer 80

B. Thematic Apperception Test

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-110 Answer B is correct. Development of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was based on Murray’s theory of personality, which describes personality as being the result of internal and external forces – i.e., biological and psychological needs and environmental presses (pressures).

Question 81

B. F. Skinner (1948) delivered food pellets to pigeons every 15 seconds regardless of their behavior. After a brief period of time, the pigeons began performing unusual behaviors such as bowing, turning, and hopping on one foot. Skinner referred to the pigeons’ unusual behaviors as:
A. experimental neurosis.
B. superstitious behaviors.
C. the result of one-trial learning.
D. the result of two-factor learning.

Answer 81

B. superstitious behaviors.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LEA-Operant Conditioning-074 Answer B is correct. Skinner concluded that noncontingent reinforcement not only accounted for the unusual behaviors of the pigeons but might also explain superstitious behaviors in humans.

Question 82

Which of the following combines elements of Bandura’s self-efficacy theory, Rogers’s person-centered therapy, and the transtheoretical model?
A. acceptance and commitment therapy
B. motivational interviewing
C. interpersonal therapy
D. stress inoculation training

Answer 82

B. motivational interviewing

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Brief Therapies-086 Answer B is correct. Motivational interviewing (Miller & Rollnick, 2012) was originally developed for individuals with alcohol and other substance abuse problems but has since been applied to other disorders and conditions. Like the transtheoretical model, it’s based on the assumption that interventions are most effective when they match the client’s stage of change. It also incorporates Rogers’s emphasis on the importance of empathy and elements of Bandura’s self-efficacy theory.

Question 83

A 20-year-old who has received a diagnosis of ADHD would likely obtain the highest score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?
A. Working Memory
B. Verbal Comprehension
C. Processing Speed
D. Perceptual Reasoning

Answer 83

B. Verbal Comprehension

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-022 Answer B is correct. The WAIS-IV Technical and Interpretive Manual (Psychological Corporation, 2008) reports the following mean scores on the test’s Indexes for individuals with ADHD: Verbal Comprehension 100.9, Perceptual Reasoning 98.6, Working Memory 94.7, and Processing Speed 94.0.

Question 84

When a child learns the word “dada,” she initially applies it to all adult males. This is an example of which of the following?
A. accommodation
B. regularization
C. overextension
D. overregularization

Answer 84

C. overextension

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Language Development-145 Answer C is correct. Overextension occurs when children use a word too broadly – i.e., when they apply it to people, objects, or events it does not apply to. It’s distinguished from underextension, which occurs when children apply a word only to a specific person, object, or event rather than to all of the people, objects, or events it applies to.

Question 85

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder, an adult must have experienced depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode and hypomanic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode for at least __________, while a child or adolescent must have experienced symptoms for at least __________.
A. 12 months; 6 months
B. 18 months; 9 months
C. 24 months; 12 months
D. 36 months; 18 months

Answer 85

C. 24 months; 12 months

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-079 Answer C is correct. The diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for at least two years for adults and one year for children and adolescents.

Question 86

Berscheid’s (1991) emotion-in-relationships model identifies which of the following as a cause of strong emotions in close relationships?
A. unexpected behaviors that interrupt usual behavioral routines
B. coercive interactions that gradually escalate over time
C. behaviors that fulfill each partner’s most prepotent needs
D. internal working models of acceptable and unacceptable behaviors

Answer 86

A. unexpected behaviors that interrupt usual behavioral routines

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-125 Answer A is correct. According to Berscheid’s emotion-in-relationships model, strong emotions are elicited in close relationships when a partner engages in an unexpected behavior that interrupts the couple’s usual behavioral routines. When the interruption has a desirable outcome, it elicits a positive emotional reaction; when it has an undesirable outcome, it elicits a negative emotional reaction.

Question 87

You have been hired by a company to assist with its hiring process by administering, scoring, and interpreting a battery of tests to applicants for sales jobs. The director of human resources has asked you to include a personality test that you know has not been validated as a predictor of job performance for salespeople. As an ethical psychologist, you will tell the director that:
A. you cannot comply with this request.
B. you’ll administer the test but will not base your evaluation of applicants on its results.
C. you’ll have to get consent from applicants before administering the test to them.
D. the test has not been validated as a predictor of job performance but you’ll let her make the final decision about whether or not to include it in the evaluation process.

Answer 87

A. you cannot comply with this request.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-193 Answer A is correct. Standard 9.02(a) of the Ethics Code requires psychologists to “administer, adapt, score, interpret, or use assessment techniques, interviews, tests, or instruments in a manner and for the purposes that are appropriate in light of the research on or evidence of the usefulness and proper application of the techniques.” Since you know the personality test has not been validated as a predictor of job performance for salespeople, you would not want to use it to evaluate job applicants. This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standards II.13, II.14, and II.18 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 88

Thorndike’s research with ____________ led to his development of the law of effect.
A. mice in a maze
B. chimpanzees in a cage
C. cats in a puzzle box
D. pigeons in an operant-conditioning chamber

Answer 88

C. cats in a puzzle box

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LEA-Operant Conditioning-041 Answer C is correct. Thorndike found that, through trial-and-error, hungry cats in a puzzle box eventually performed the behavior that opened a door and gave them access to food. He also found that the successful behavior was quickly “stamped in” and repeated, which led to his development of the law of effect. It predicts that behaviors that are followed by satisfying consequences are more likely to recur.

Question 89

The self-serving bias is the tendency to:
A. attribute our successes to controllable factors and our failures to uncontrollable factors.
B. attribute our successes to dispositional factors and our failures to situational factors.
C. seek out information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and ignore information that contradicts them.
D. bolster our self-esteem by focusing on our successes and minimizing or denying our failures.

Answer 89

CORRECT ANSWER

B. Participants should ordinarily be debriefed as soon as possible but, in some cases, debriefing may not be necessary.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-181 Answer B is correct. Debriefing is addressed in Standard 8.08 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.47 and III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.08(a) requires psychologists to promptly debrief research participants “about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research.” However, Standard 8.08(b) states that “if scientific or humane values justify delaying or withholding this information, psychologists take reasonable measures to reduce the risk of harm.”

Question 90

When differentiating between conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder, the presence of which of the following suggests that oppositional defiant disorder is the correct diagnosis?
A. The child’s symptoms do not negatively affect his/her academic, social, or other area of functioning.
B. The child’s symptoms create conflicts between the child and his/her parents and other adults.
C. The child’s symptoms include problems related to emotional dysregulation.
D. The child’s defiant behavior is often performed to gain attention.

Answer 90

C. The child’s symptoms include problems related to emotional dysregulation.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-204 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 notes that conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder both involve conduct problems and conflicts between the child and his/her parents and other adults. However, the symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder are less severe and the diagnostic criteria include an angry/irritable mood (i.e., emotional dysregulation) which is not included in the criteria for conduct disorder.

Question 91

Your new client’s symptoms developed soon after the death of his wife, and you are trying to determine if they meet the criteria for major depressive disorder or uncomplicated bereavement. Which of the following symptoms is more consistent with uncomplicated bereavement?
A. The client’s feelings of emptiness and sadness have lasted for at least one month.
B. The client says he never experienced depressive symptoms before the death of his wife.
C. The client’s symptoms include an inability to anticipate happiness or pleasure.
D. The client’s depressive symptoms become worse whenever he thinks about his wife.

Answer 91

D. The client’s depressive symptoms become worse whenever he thinks about his wife.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-101 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 does not specify a time limit for uncomplicated bereavement, which eliminates answer A; the diagnosis of major depressive disorder does not require more than one depressive episode, which eliminates answer B; and an inability to anticipate happiness or pleasure is more characteristic of major depressive disorder than grief, which eliminates answer C. In addition, the DSM-5 notes that the dysphoria associated with grief varies in intensity and is usually most intense when the person is thinking about or is reminded of the deceased person, while dysphoria associated with major depressive disorder is persistent and not tied to particular thoughts.

Question 92

The method of loci is most useful for:
A. memorizing a short speech.
B. remembering how to pronounce foreign-language words.
C. remembering a list of unrelated words.
D. linking a list of words to their definitions.

Answer 92

C. remembering a list of unrelated words.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-146 Answer C is correct. The method of loci uses a visual image to help encode and recall a list of unrelated words. It involves choosing a familiar location and visually placing each word in a different place in that location. For example, to remember a shopping list, you might visualize your kitchen and place each item in the list in a different place – on the stove, on the counter next to the stove, next to the coffee maker on the counter, etc. Then, to recall the items, you visually “walk through” the kitchen.

Question 93

Presbyopia is an inability to:
A. perceive high-frequency sounds.
B. focus on close objects.
C. distinguish between different tastes.
D. distinguish between different colors.

Answer 93

B. focus on close objects.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LIF-Physical Development-095 Answer B is correct. Presbyopia (farsightedness) is the inability to focus on near objects and, for many adults, is first evident at about 40 years of age.

Question 94

When two variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale and their relationship is nonlinear, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients to assess their degree of association?
A. Spearman rho
B. contingency
C. eta
D. biserial

Answer 94

C. eta

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-RMS-Correlation and Regression-113 Answer C is correct. An assumption that must be met for most bivariate correlation coefficients is that there’s a linear relationship between the two variables that will be correlated. An exception is eta, which is used when both variables are measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale and the relationship between the variables is nonlinear.

Question 95

Tourette’s disorder, ADHD, and obsessive-compulsive disorder have been linked to abnormalities in which of the following?
A. basal ganglia
B. hypothalamus
C. amygdala
D. medulla

Answer 95

A. basal ganglia

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-065 Answer A is correct. The basal ganglia are involved in the regulation of voluntary movement and consist of the caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus. A number of disorders have been linked to abnormalities in these structures including Tourette’s disorder, ADHD, and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 96

Although ____________ personality disorder usually has a chronic course, its symptoms may become less severe as the person gets older, especially during the fourth decade of life.
A. schizoid
B. paranoid
C. obsessive-compulsive
D. antisocial

Answer 96

D. antisocial

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Personality Disorders-224 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 notes that the symptoms of antisocial personality disorder “may become less evident or remit as the individual grows older, particularly by the fourth decade” (p. 661) and that the decrease in symptoms is especially evident for criminal behaviors.

Question 97

A father is concerned because his son just wants to play video games and never finishes his homework. To ensure his son does his homework, the father tells him he can play video games only after he finishes his homework. The father is using which of the following techniques?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. differential reinforcement
D. stimulus control

Answer 97

B. Premack principle

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-096 Answer B is correct. The Premack principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high-frequency behavior (a highly desirable activity) is used as a reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior (an undesirable activity) in order to increase the low-frequency behavior.

Question 98

Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) conducted a meta-analysis of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies that compared the outcomes of individuals in treatment groups and no-treatment control groups. Their analysis produced an effect size of .85, which means that the average individual who received therapy was “better off” than about _____% of individuals who needed therapy but did not receive it.
A. 50
B. 60
C. 80
D. 90

Answer 98

C. 80

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-183 Answer C is correct. The effect size calculated by Smith, Glass, and Miller is a type of standard score that has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1.0. This means that an effect size of .85 indicates that the mean score obtained by individuals who received treatment was slightly less than one standard deviation above the mean score obtained by individuals who did not receive treatment. In a normal distribution, 84% of scores fall below the score that is one standard deviation above the mean, so slightly less than 84% of scores fall below a score that is .85 standard deviations above the mean. Therefore, answer C (80%) is the best answer.

Question 99

Dr. Frank, an organizational psychologist, is hired by a company to develop new performance appraisal measures for maintenance technicians. Dr. Frank’s initial step in developing these measures will be to conduct a:
A. person analysis.
B. needs analysis.
C. job analysis.
D. job evaluation.

Answer 99

C. job analysis.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-001 Answer C is correct. The first step in developing a new performance appraisal measure is to conduct a job analysis to identify the knowledge and skills that are required to perform the job successfully.

Question 100

Atkinson, Thompson, and Grant’s (1993) three-dimensional model of multicultural counseling provides guidelines for choosing the optimal role for therapists when working with clients from ethnic/racial minority groups. For example, it recommends that therapists adopt which of the following roles when a client’s level of acculturation is low, the client’s problem is external, and the primary goal is remediation?
A. consultant
B. adviser
C. advocate
D. change agent

Answer 100

C. advocate

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-195 Answer C is correct. D. R. Atkinson, C. E. Thompson, and S. K. Grant’s three-dimensional model identifies eight roles therapists can adopt when working with clients from ethnic/racial minority groups, with the optimal role depending on the client’s level of acculturation to the dominant society, the locus of the client’s problem, and the primary goal of treatment – i.e., advisor, advocate, facilitator of indigenous support systems, facilitator of indigenous healing systems, consultant, change agent, counselor, and psychotherapist. For example, the model identifies the role of advocate as the optimal one when the client’s level of acculturation is low, the problem is external (e.g., is related to discrimination), and the primary goal of treatment is remediation (A three-dimensional model for counseling racial/ethnic minorities, The Counseling Psychologist, 21, 257-277, 1993).

Question 101

When an occupational interest test provides ipsative scores, this means that an examinee’s scores indicate:
A. the degree of consistency of his/her interests.
B. his/her likelihood of success in different occupations.
C. the relative strength of each occupational interest assessed by the test.
D. the absolute strength of each occupational interest assessed by the test.

Answer 101

C. the relative strength of each occupational interest assessed by the test.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-088 Answer C is correct. Ipsative scores are also known as intraindividual scores and provide information on the examinee’s relative (rather than absolute) strengths with regard to the interests or other characteristic measured by the test.

Question 102

The symptoms of ____________ are sometimes mistaken for a bad case of influenza.
A. opioid withdrawal
B. stimulant withdrawal
C. phencyclidine intoxication
D. inhalant intoxication

Answer 102

A. opioid withdrawal

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-215 Answer A is correct. Many of the symptoms of opioid withdrawal are also associated with influenza – e.g., nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle aches, and fever.

Question 103

A criticism of behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) is that:
A. they’re useful only for managerial-level jobs.
B. they’re time-consuming to develop.
C. they’re time-consuming to use when there are many employees to assess.
D. they focus on extreme (rather than typical) behaviors.

Answer 103

B. they’re time-consuming to develop.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-023 Answer B is correct. Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) are a type of graphic rating scale in which each point on a scale is “anchored” with a description of a specific job-related behavior. Disadvantages of BARS are that they’re time-consuming to develop and they’re job-specific, which means that different scales must be developed for different jobs.

Question 104

In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of ____ is one standard deviation above the mean of the distribution.
A. 50
B. 68
C. 84
D. 97

Answer 104

C. 84

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-TES-Test Score Interpretation-115 Answer C is correct. A percentile rank is a transformed score that indicates the percentage of scores that fall at or below a given score. In a normal distribution, when an examinee’s percentile rank is 84, this means that his/her score is one standard deviation above the mean.

Question 105

To evaluate the inter-rater reliability of a test when scores or ratings on the test represent a nominal scale of measurement, you would use which of the following?
A. coefficient alpha
B. kappa coefficient
C. KR-20
D. Spearman-Brown

Answer 105

B. kappa coefficient

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-038 Answer B is correct. The kappa coefficient is also known as Cohen’s kappa statistic and is used to measure inter-rater reliability when scores or ratings represent a nominal scale of measurement. An advantage of the kappa coefficient as a measure of inter-rater reliability is that, unlike percent agreement, the kappa coefficient corrects for chance agreement between the raters.

Question 106

To estimate the effect of shortening or lengthening a test on the test’s reliability coefficient, you would use which of the following?
A. coefficient of determination
B. coefficient alpha
C. Spearman-Brown formula
D. Kuder-Richardson formula 20

Answer 106

C. Spearman-Brown formula

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-027 Answer C is correct. The Spearman-Brown formula is also known as the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula and is used to estimate the effect of adding or subtracting items to a test on the test’s reliability coefficient.

Question 107

A problem with the paired comparison method of performance assessment is that it:
A. focuses on what employees are likely to do rather than what they’ve actually done.
B. focuses on extreme (rather than typical) job-related behaviors.
C. is susceptible to the social desirability bias.
D. is time-consuming to use when there are many employees to rate.

Answer 107

D. is time-consuming to use when there are many employees to rate.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-012 Answer D is correct. The paired comparison technique requires the rater to compare each employee to all other employees in pairs on each dimension of job performance. A disadvantage of this technique is that it can be very time-consuming to use when there are many employees to rate.

Question 108

According to self-verification theory (Swann, Pelham, & Krull, 1989), people who are insecure about their physical appearance and have other negative self-views are most likely to be drawn to potential romantic partners who:
A. verify their negative self-views.
B. challenge their negative self-views.
C. avoid making any positive or negative comments about them.
D. talk mostly about themselves.

Answer 108

A. verify their negative self-views.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-015 Answer A is correct. Self-verification theory predicts that, regardless of whether a person’s self-concept is positive or negative, the person will seek feedback from and prefer to spend time with people who confirm his/her self-concept.

Question 109

Research on the Fagan Test of Intelligence has confirmed that ____________ in infancy is a good predictor of IQ in childhood, adolescence, and young adulthood.
A. socio-emotional behavior
B. language production and comprehension
C. sensorimotor development
D. selective attention to novel stimuli

Answer 109

D. selective attention to novel stimuli

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-055 Answer D is correct. The Fagan Test of Intelligence is a measure of selective attention to novel stimuli, and research has found that performance on the Fagan Test is a good predictor of IQ scores in childhood, adolescence, and early adulthood. See, e.g., J. F. Fagan, C. R. Holland, and K. Wheeler, The prediction, from infancy, of adult IQ and achievement, Intelligence, 35(3), 225-231, 2007.

Question 110

Krumboltz’s (1979) social learning theory of career decision-making identifies four factors that influence decision-making. Which of the following is NOT one of the four factors?
A. genetic endowment
B. environmental conditions and events
C. task approach skills
D. self-efficacy beliefs

Answer 110

D. self-efficacy beliefs

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Career Choice and Development-141 Answer D is correct. Krumboltz proposed that career decision-making is affected by the person’s genetic endowment and special abilities, environmental conditions and events, learning experiences, and task approach skills.

Question 111

The symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (e.g., restlessness, difficulty concentrating, irritability) are similar for individuals of all ages, but the content of an individual’s worries are often related to his/her age. For example children with generalized anxiety disorder are most likely to worry about:
A. abandonment by friends and family members.
B. academic and athletic performance.
C. safety and physical health.
D. everyday hassles.

Answer 111

B. academic and athletic performance.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-134 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 states that children with generalized anxiety disorder are most likely to worry about academic and athletic performance and about earthquakes, tornados, and other catastrophic events.

Question 112

Data collected by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) have shown that, among people 18 to 24 years of age, the suicide rate is highest for ____________ males.
A. White
B. Hispanic/Latino
C. Black/African American
D. American Indian/Alaska Native

Answer 112

D. American Indian/Alaska Native

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-225 Answer D is correct. Data collected by the CDC have shown that, for males ages 18 to 24, American Indians/Alaska Natives have had the highest rates of suicide in recent decades (National Center for Health Statistics, Health, United States, 2015: With special feature on racial and ethnic disparities, Hyattsville, MD, 2015).

Question 113

Following removal of his medial temporal lobes to treat severe epilepsy, the patient known as H. M. experienced which of the following?
A. an inability to recall recent and remote long-term memories
B. an inability to recall remote (but not recent) long-term memories
C. an inability to form new long-term declarative memories
D. an inability to form new procedural memories

Answer 113

C. an inability to form new long-term declarative memories

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PHY-Memory and Sleep-154 Answer C is correct. Following surgery, H. M. (Henry Molaison) exhibited an inability to form new long-term declarative memories and to recall recent long-term memories. However, he could recall remote long-term memories and form new procedural memories.

Question 114

According to Donald Super, the primary determinant of a person’s occupational choice is which of the following?
A. self-concept
B. dominant interest(s)
C. life experience
D. prepotent needs

Answer 114

A. self-concept

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Career Choice and Development-122 Answer A is correct. According to Super (Super, Savickas, & Super, 1996), a person’s self-concept develops throughout the lifespan. It influences and is influenced by the career development process and is the major determinant of a person’s career decisions.

Question 115

The WISC-V is appropriate for individuals ages:
A. 2.6 to 7.7.
B. 6.0 to 16.11.
C. 7.6 to 18.11.
D. 12.0 to 20.11.

Answer 115

B. 6.0 to 16.11.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-033 Answer B is correct. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, Fifth Edition (WISC-V) is a downward extension of the WAIS-IV for individuals ages 6.0 to 16.11.

Question 116

Mayo (1933) found that, no matter what changes were made to lighting and other physical work conditions, factory workers’ productivity increased. They attributed this to the special attention the workers received as research participants and referred to it as the:
A. placebo effect.
B. confirmation effect.
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Barnum effect.

Answer 116

C. Hawthorne effect.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-ORG-Organizational Theories-149 Answer C is correct. Mayo and his colleagues conducted a series of studies at the Hawthorne plant of the Western Electric Company to evaluate the effects of physical work conditions on worker productivity. An unexpected finding was that productivity increased regardless of changes in physical conditions and that this was due to the attention workers received as research subjects. Mayo referred to this as the Hawthorne effect.

Question 117

The theory of planned behavior (Ajzen & Fishbein, 2005) predicts that a person’s behavior intention is affected by all of the following except:
A. current attitude.
B. need for cognitive constancy.
C. subjective norms.
D. perceived behavior control.

Answer 117

B. need for cognitive constancy.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P2-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-037 Answer B is correct. According to the theory of planned behavior, attitudes influence a person’s behavior intention which, in turn, affects the person’s behavior. In addition, three factors influence a person’s behavior intention: the person’s attitude toward the behavior, what the person thinks others believe he/she should do (subjective norms), and the person’s confidence in his/her ability to perform the behavior (perceived behavior control).