Test 3

Question 1

The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) includes all of the following except:
A. Personal Styles Scales.
B. Occupational Scales.
C. College Major Scales.
D. Vocational Interest Estimates.

Answer 1

A. Personal Styles Scales.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Interest Inventories-12 Answer A is correct. The KOIS includes Occupational Scales, College Major Scales, and Vocational Interest Estimates. The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) includes the Personal Styles Scales.

Question 2

A child says he doesn’t steal because it’s against the law. Based on this information, you can conclude that this child is in which of Kohlberg’s levels of moral development?
A. preconventional
B. conventional
C. transconventional
D. postconventional

Answer 2

B. conventional

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-23 Answer B is correct. The second stage of Kohlberg’s conventional level is the law and order orientation stage. During this stage, judgments about the acceptability of a behavior depend on whether or not the behavior violates laws and rules that have been established by legitimate authorities.

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT an example of a technostructural intervention?
A. business process reengineering
B. process consultation
C. job enrichment
D. alternative work schedules

Answer 3

B. process consultation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-16 Answer B is correct. Technostructural interventions focus on an organization’s technology or structure and include business process reengineering, downsizing, job enrichment, and alternative work schedules.

Question 4

According to Moffitt (2003), the life-course persistent type of antisocial behavior is due to which of the following?
A. a maturity gap
B. behavioral disinhibition
C. a lack of conscience and empathy
D. neurological deficits

Answer 4

D. neurological deficits

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-24 Answer D is correct. Moffitt distinguishes between two types of antisocial behavior. The life-course persistent type is more serious and is the result of a combination of inherited or acquired neurological deficits and environmental risks, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a maturity gap, which is a gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity. See, e.g., T. E. Moffitt, Life-course persistent and adolescence-limited antisocial behavior: A 10-year research review and research agenda, in B. B. Lahey, T. E. Moffitt, and A. Caspi (Eds.), Causes of conduct disorder and juvenile delinquency (pp. 49-75), New York, Guilford Press, 2003.

Question 5

A high level of expressed emotion has been linked to:
A. an increased risk for relapse for both schizophrenia and major depressive disorder.
B. an increased risk for relapse for schizophrenia but not for major depressive disorder.
C. a decreased risk for relapse for both schizophrenia and major depressive disorder.
D. a decreased risk for relapse for major depressive disorder but not for schizophrenia.

Answer 5

A. an increased risk for relapse for both schizophrenia and major depressive disorder.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-06 Answer A is correct. Expressed emotion refers to the emotional responses of family members to a member with a mental disorder and is characterized by conflict, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement. It has been linked to an increased risk for relapse for individuals with schizophrenia, depression, and several other mental disorders. See, e.g., R. L. Butzlaff and J. M. Hooley, Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, JAMA Psychiatry, 55(6), 547-552, 1998.

Question 6

With regard to gender and leader effectiveness, the research has found that:
A. female leaders are rated as more effective in feminine work settings, while male leaders are rated as more effective in masculine work settings.
B. male leaders are rated as more effective in masculine work settings, while male and female leaders are rated about equally in terms of effectiveness in feminine work settings.
C. male leaders are rated as more effective than female leaders in both masculine and feminine work settings.
D. female leaders are rated as more effective than male leaders in both masculine and feminine work settings.

Answer 6

A. female leaders are rated as more effective in feminine work settings, while male leaders are rated as more effective in masculine work settings.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Organizational Leadership-18 Answer A is correct. The studies suggest that, overall, men and women do not differ in perceived leader effectiveness. There’s evidence, however, that female leaders tend to be rated as more effective in traditionally feminine situations while male leaders tend to be rated as more effective in traditionally masculine situations (Eagly, Karau, & Makhijani, 1995).

Question 7

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Answer 7

D. the future than the past.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-02 Answer D is correct. A teleological approach emphasizes the effects of future goals (rather than past experiences) on current behavior.

Question 8

To compare the effects of three SAT review programs, a researcher randomly assigns a sample of male and female high school students who have high, average, or low test anxiety to one of the three programs. Following completion of the programs, he assesses each student’s level of anxiety and performance on a mock SAT exam. This study has ___ independent variables and ___ dependent variable(s).
A. 2; 1
B. 3; 1
C. 2; 2
D. 3; 2

Answer 8

D. 3; 2

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer D is correct. If you’re having trouble distinguishing between a study’s independent and dependent variables, remember that independent variables are believed to have an effect on the dependent (outcome) variables and that, for questions like this one, anything that varies will be either an independent or dependent variable. Converting the information given in the description of the study to the following question might be helpful: “What are the effects of the [independent variable(s)] on the [dependent variable(s)]?” For this study, the question is, “What are the effects of the three review programs, initial level of test anxiety, and gender on mock SAT exam scores and level of anxiety after participation in the programs?” In other words, this study has three independent variables (program, anxiety level, and gender) and two dependent variables (SAT score and anxiety level).

Question 9

Which of the following is used to estimate the effect of increasing a predictor’s reliability on its criterion-related validity coefficient?
A. Spearman-Brown formula
B. correction for attenuation formula
C. coefficient of determination
D. Cronbach’s alpha

Answer 9

B. correction for attenuation formula

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. Inadequate reliability is one of the factors that reduces a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient, and the correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate the effect of increasing the reliability of the predictor and/or criterion on the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient.

Question 10

When Milgram (1974) asked psychiatrists to predict how many “teachers” would obey the experimenter’s order to deliver the highest levels of shock to the “learner,” the psychiatrists predicted that __________ would do so.
A. 1 in 10
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 500
D. 1 in 1,000

Answer 10

D. 1 in 1,000

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-08 Answer D is correct. Before conducting his initial studies, Milgram asked a group of psychiatrists to predict how many subjects would be willing to deliver the highest levels of shock, and they predicted that only a “pathological fringe” of 1 in 1,000 would do so.

Question 11

Conducting a utility analysis for a new selection test would be useful for:
A. estimating the positive hit rate when the test is added to the current selection procedure.
B. determining the likelihood that use of the test will have an adverse impact on members of racial/ethnic minority groups.
C. obtaining information on the return on investment that can be expected when the test is used to hire job applicants.
D. estimating the degree to which an actual criterion adequately assesses the ultimate criterion.

Answer 11

C. obtaining information on the return on investment that can be expected when the test is used to hire job applicants.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-09 Answer C is correct. Utility analysis is used to obtain information on the monetary value (return on investment) of a selection test, training program, or other employment practice.

Question 12

The word COPYCAT is presented to a split-brain patient so that COPY is projected to the patient’s left visual field and CAT is projected to his right visual field. When the patient is asked what he saw, the patient will say ________. And when the patient is asked to use his left hand to point to what he saw on a computer screen that contains the words COPY and CAT, the patient will point to ________.
A. COPY; COPY
B. CAT; CAT
C. CAT; COPY
D. COPY; CAT

Answer 12

CORRECT ANSWER

C. CAT; COPY

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-06 Answer C is correct. COPY was projected to the patient’s left visual field and went to his right hemisphere, while CAT was projected to the patient’s right visual field and went to his left hemisphere. Because he’s a split-brain patient, the two hemispheres are unable to communicate with each other. Consequently, the patient will say he saw the word CAT because the left hemisphere controls the production of language but will point to the word COPY because the right hemisphere controls the left hand.

Question 13

By the end of the first session with a client, you realize that his symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for antisocial personality disorder. You’ve learned from past experience that clients with this diagnosis often fail to pay their bills and, for this reason, decide not to continue seeing him in therapy. With regard to ethical requirements, this is:
A. unacceptable because it violates the prohibition against discrimination.
B. unacceptable if you have adequate training and experience to treat this client.
C. acceptable as long as you provide the client with referrals to other mental health professionals.
D. acceptable as long as you explain to the client why you cannot continue seeing him in therapy.

Answer 13

C. acceptable as long as you provide the client with referrals to other mental health professionals.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-05 Answer C is correct. Standard 3.01 of the APA Ethics Code prohibits psychologists from unfairly discriminating on the basis of age, gender, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or other basis proscribed by law. And Standard I.9 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that psychologists do “not practice, condone, facilitate, or collaborate with any form of unjust discrimination,” which is defined in the Preamble as “activities that are prejudicial to or promote prejudice against persons or peoples because of their culture, nationality, ethnicity, colour, race, religion, sex, gender, marital status, sexual orientation, physical or mental abilities, age, socio-economic status, or any other preference or personal characteristic, condition, or status.” Neither Code requires psychologists to accept all individuals seeking their services, and not seeing clients who may be unwilling or unable to pay their fees would not constitute unfair or unjust discrimination as defined in these standards.

Question 14

A person with bilateral damage to the __________ will have trouble recognizing fear in human facial expressions.
A. caudate nucleus
B. thalamus
C. amygdala
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus

Answer 14

C. amygdala

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-01 Answer C is correct. People with bilateral damage to the amygdala often have difficulty recognizing negative emotions in facial expressions, especially fear. See, e.g., R. Adolphs et al., A mechanism for impaired fear recognition after amygdala damage, Nature, 433(7021), 68-72, 2005.

Question 15

The foot-in-the-door technique is most useful for explaining which of the following?
A. why children belonging to hostile groups in Sherif’s Robber’s Cave study started to cooperate with each other
B. why children in the Lepper, Greene, and Nisbett study were no longer intrinsically motivated to color with felt-tip markers
C. why “teachers” in Milgram’s obedience to authority study complied with the experimenter’s order to increase the level of shock they delivered to the “learner”
D. why subjects in Asch’s conformity studies gave more accurate estimates when making estimates alone than in the group setting

Answer 15

C. why “teachers” in Milgram’s obedience to authority study complied with the experimenter’s order to increase the level of shock they delivered to the “learner”

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-09 Answer C is correct. In his studies, Milgram followed a less objectionable request (delivering a lower level of shock) with a more objectionable request (delivering a slightly higher level of shock). In other words, ordering teachers (subjects) to gradually increase the level of shock they delivered to the learner is similar to use of the foot-in-the-door technique to gain people’s compliance with a large request by starting with a smaller request that most people would agree to.

Question 16

To compare the effectiveness of two brief treatments for social anxiety disorder, you obtain a sample of individuals who have received this diagnosis, determine the severity of each subject’s social anxiety, match the subjects in pairs based on the severity of their symptoms, and randomly assign one member of each pair to one of the treatments and other member to the other treatment. To compare the scores subjects in the two groups receive on a measure of symptom severity after they receive treatment, you will use which of the following?
A. t-test for correlated samples
B. t-test for uncorrelated samples
C. two-way ANOVA
D. single-sample chi-square test

Answer 16

A. t-test for correlated samples

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-11 Answer A is correct. The first steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are to identify the independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study’s independent variable is type of treatment and the dependent variable is score on a measure of severity of anxiety following treatment. More specifically, the dependent variable is score on a measure of symptom severity and, for the exam, you can assume that scores represent an interval or ratio scale. This means that a statistical test will be used to compare the mean scores obtained by two groups. The t-test and two-way ANOVA are both used to compare mean scores but, because there are only two means, the t-test is the appropriate test. To determine which t-test to use, you determine how the means were obtained: In this study, they were obtained from related groups (from groups that consist of subjects who were matched in terms of initial symptom severity). The t-test for correlated samples is the appropriate test when two means are obtained from the same group or from two groups that are related in some way.

Question 17

To teach young nonspeaking children with autism spectrum disorder to communicate verbally, Lovaas (1987) used which of the following?
A. stimulus control and chaining
B. differential reinforcement and overcorrection
C. self-instructional training and positive reinforcement
D. discrimination training and shaping

Answer 17

D. discrimination training and shaping

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-01 Answer D is correct. Lovaas (1987) developed an intensive program for young children with autism that incorporated a variety of behavioral techniques. Discrimination training and shaping were two of the techniques he used to teach the children to communicate verbally.

Question 18

In the context of object relations theory, “object constancy” refers to:
A. the ability to recognize that a significant other continues to exist when he/she cannot be seen or heard.
B. the ability to differentiate oneself from a significant other.
C. the ability to maintain a positive connection to a significant other even when he/she is not gratifying one’s immediate needs.
D. the ability to integrate good and bad aspects of a significant other.

Answer 18

C. the ability to maintain a positive connection to a significant other even when he/she is not gratifying one’s immediate needs.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-03 Answer C is correct. Object constancy is “the capacity to maintain a predominantly positive emotional connection to a significant other independent of one’s need state or the object’s immediate ability to gratify one’s needs” (P. Glickauf-Hughes and M. Wells, Object relations psychotherapy: An individualized and interactive approach to diagnosis and treatment, Lanham, MD, Rowman & Littlefield Publishers, Inc., 1997, p. 12.) Note that answers A, B, and D describe abilities that a child must have in order to develop object constancy, but answer C is the best description of object constancy because it is the outcome of having these abilities.

Question 19

Research has identified which of the Big Five personality traits to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and different measures of job performance?
A. conscientiousness
B. agreeableness
C. openness to experience
D. emotional stability

Answer 19

A. conscientiousness

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-05 Answer A is correct. The Big Five personality traits are neuroticism, extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Of these, conscientiousness has been found to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and performance criteria.

Question 20

At a company party, you first meet a co-worker’s husband whose name is Bill. About twenty minutes later, you meet another co-worker’s husband whose name is Bob. Then, about an hour later, you encounter Bill at the buffet table and call him Bob. Which of the following explains your mistake?
A. retroactive interference
B. proactive interference
C. implicit memory
D. explicit memory

Answer 20

A. retroactive interference

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-14 Answer A is correct. Retroactive interference occurs when more recently acquired information (e.g., “Bob”) interferes with the ability to recall previously acquired information (e.g., “Bill”).

Question 21

Regardless of the distribution of raw scores, when the raw scores are converted to percentile ranks, the resulting distribution will be:
A. normal.
B. rectangular.
C. leptokurtic.
D. platykurtic.

Answer 21

B. rectangular.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Test Score Interpretation-11 Answer B is correct. A percentile rank distribution is always rectangular (flat) because the same percent of scores fall at each percentile rank. In other words, when raw test scores are converted to percentile ranks, 1% of the scores will be converted to each percentile rank: The highest 1% of raw scores will be converted to a percentile rank of 100, the next highest 1% of raw scores will be converted to a percentile rank of 99, etc.

Question 22

Kohlberg’s model of gender-role development distinguishes between three stages, the first of which is:
A. gender stability.
B. gender socialization.
C. gender identity.
D. gender constancy.

Answer 22

C. gender identity.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-15 Answer C is correct. In order, Kohlberg’s three stages of gender-role development are gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy.

Question 23

Research by Sadker and Sadker has found that teachers:
A. pay more attention to boys than girls and give boys more praise and helpful feedback.
B. pay more attention to girls than boys and give girls more praise and helpful feedback.
C. pay more attention to boys than girls but give girls more praise and helpful feedback.
D. pay more attention to girls than boys but give boys more praise and helpful feedback.

Answer 23

A. pay more attention to boys than girls and give boys more praise and helpful feedback.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-School and Family Influences-25 Answer A is correct. Research by Sadker and Sadker and others has consistently confirmed that gender stereotypes bias how teachers respond to boys and girls in the classroom – e.g., they tend to pay more attention to boys and give boys more praise and precise and helpful feedback. See, e.g., D. Sadker, M. Sadker, and K. Zittleman, Still failing at fairness: How gender bias cheats girls and boys in school and what we can do about it, New York, Scribner, 2009.

Question 24

_____________ is the appropriate method for combining scores on several selection tests when a high score on one or more tests can compensate for a low score on another test.
A. Multiple correlation
B. Multiple hurdle
C. Multiple regression
D. Multiple cutoff

Answer 24

C. Multiple regression

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-06 Answer C is correct. Multiple regression is a compensatory method for combining predictor scores that involves weighting each predictor on the basis of its correlations with the other predictors and with the criterion and then combining the weighted predictor scores to obtain an estimated criterion score. This makes it possible for a high score on one or more predictors to compensate for a low score on another predictor. Multiple hurdle and multiple cutoff are noncompensatory methods.

Question 25

Damon (1988) proposed that children’s friendships develop in three stages, the last of which is:
A. mutual trust and assistance
B. intimacy and loyalty
C. intimate and mutually shared relationships
D. mature friendships

Answer 25

B. intimacy and loyalty

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-22 Answer B is correct. Damon’s three stages of friendship are handy playmate (ages 4 to 7 years), mutual trust and assistance (8 to 10 years), and intimacy and loyalty (11+ years). Intimate and mutually shared relationships and mature friendships are the last two friendship stages identified by Selman (1981).

Question 26

Sue and Sue (2015) illustrate the difference between which of the following by noting that twins who are raised together communicate more economically than two American lawyers do during a trial?
A. high- and low-context communication
B. intrapersonal and interpersonal communication
C. complementary and symmetrical communication
D. deep-structure and surface-structure communication

Answer 26

A. high- and low-context communication

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-25 Answer A is correct. High-context communication relies heavily on group understanding, nonverbal messages, and the context in which the communication occurs, while low-context communication relies on the verbal message and is independent of the context (D. W. Sue and D. Sue, Counseling the culturally diverse: Theory and practice, Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, 2015). Communication between twins raised together is likely to be high-context, while communication between two lawyers in a trial is likely to be low-context.

Question 27

All other things being equal, which of the following tests is likely to have the lowest reliability coefficient?
A. a three-alternative multiple-choice test
B. a four-alternative multiple-choice test
C. a true/false test
D. a fill-in-the-blanks test

Answer 27

C. a true/false test

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-04 Answer C is correct. A test’s reliability is affected by a number of factors including the chance that test questions can be answered correctly by guessing: As the probability of choosing the correct answer by guessing increases, the reliability of the test decreases. For this reason, true/false tests are less reliable than three-item and four-item multiple-choice tests which, in turn are less reliable than a fill-in-the-blanks test.

Question 28

Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction identifies which of the following as an explanation for the positive relationship between attitude similarity and interpersonal attraction?
A. reciprocity
B. reinforcement
C. self-esteem
D. social comparison

Answer 28

B. reinforcement

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-11 Answer B is correct. Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction states that there’s a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction and that this relationship is due to the fact that interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates one’s views and produces good feelings.

Question 29

A young woman started having __________ seizures when she was a child. She does not lose consciousness during a seizure but experiences motor and sensory symptoms that include jerky movements in her arms and legs, eye blinking, and numbness, tingling, and other abnormal sensations.
A. absence
B. myoclonic
C. simple partial
D. complex partial

Answer 29

C. simple partial

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-19 Answer C is correct. Partial seizures are also known as focal seizures and involve one side of the brain and body (although they can spread to the other side of the brain and become generalized seizures). Simple and complex partial seizures both involve sensory and motor symptoms, but simple partial seizures don’t cause a loss of consciousness while complex partial seizures do impair consciousness.

Question 30

The “experimental neurosis” exhibited by Pavlov’s canine subjects was the result of which of the following?
A. backwards conditioning
B. difficult discriminations
C. classical extinction
D. stimulus generalization

Answer 30

B. difficult discriminations

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Classical Conditioning-01 Answer B is correct. Pavlov found that requiring dogs to make difficult discriminations between similar stimuli provoked agitation and aggression, which he referred to as experimental neurosis.

Question 31

To evaluate the effectiveness of a stress reduction technique for alleviating test anxiety, a psychologist administers a measure of test anxiety to Psychology 101 undergraduates, chooses the 50 students with the highest scores on the test, administers the intervention to the students, and then readministers the measure of test anxiety. The biggest threat to this study’s internal validity is:
A. differential selection
B. reactivity
C. statistical regression.
D. instrumentation

Answer 31

C. statistical regression.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-03 Answer C is correct. Whenever subjects are chosen for inclusion in a study because they have extreme scores on the pretest, their scores on the posttest are likely to “regress toward the mean” regardless of the effects of the independent variable. This is referred to as statistical regression, and it threatens a study’s internal validity whenever it’s not possible to ascertain to what extent a change in posttest scores is due to statistical regression or the effects of the independent variable.

Question 32

Anna just started college and is certain that students in her classes already think she’s stupid even though they’re nice to her and a few have attempted to become friends. For a practitioner of Beck’s cognitive-behavior therapy, Anna’s conclusion is an example of which of the following?
A. personalization
B. emotional reasoning
C. arbitrary inference
D. selective abstraction

Answer 32

C. arbitrary inference

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-16 Answer C is correct. Arbitrary inference is one of the cognitive distortions identified by Beck. It occurs when a person draws a conclusion without having evidence to support it.

Question 33

The dichotic listening task is used to obtain information about:
A. short-term memory.
B. hemispheric specialization.
C. processing speed.
D. level of consciousness.

Answer 33

B. hemispheric specialization.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-08 Answer B is correct. The dichotic listening task involves simultaneously presenting a person with two different auditory stimuli by delivering one stimulus to each ear. It’s used to obtain information on selective auditory attention and hemispheric specialization for auditory stimuli.

Question 34

Crick and Dodge’s (1994) social information-processing model attributes high levels of aggression in children to which of the following?
A. observational learning
B. peer pressure
C. a self-control failure
D. a hostile attribution bias

Answer 34

D. a hostile attribution bias

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-21 Answer D is correct. Crick and Dodge’s social information-processing model proposes that highly aggressive children are more likely than their nonaggressive peers to interpret the behaviors of others (including vague and benign behaviors) as intentionally hostile, and they refer to this tendency as a “hostile attribution bias.”

Question 35

All of the following drugs slow the cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease by increasing cholinergic activity except:
A. galantamine.
B. memantine.
C. rivastigmine.
D. donepezil.

Answer 35

B. memantine.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-24 Answer B is correct. All four drugs listed in the answers to this question are used to slow the progress of cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease. Galantamine (Razadyne), rivastigmine (Exelon), and donepezil (Aricept) do so by increasing cholinergic activity (i.e., by preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine), while memantine (Namenda) reduces the negative effects of excessive levels of the neurotransmitter glutamate.

Question 36

For a patient in the early stage of Alzheimer’s disease, an MRI is most likely to reveal degeneration in which of the following?
A. cerebral cortex
B. substantia nigra
C. hypothalamus
D. entorhinal cortex

Answer 36

D. entorhinal cortex

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-27 Answer D is correct. The areas of the brain most affected by Alzheimer’s disease in its early stages are the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus, with degeneration in these areas preceding the onset of cognitive symptoms.

Question 37

An infant with congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) is most likely to develop which of the following?
A. a tic disorder
B. sensorineural hearing loss
C. heart defects
D. an autoimmune disorder

Answer 37

B. sensorineural hearing loss

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-04 Answer B is correct. CMV is caused by exposure to a type of herpes virus during prenatal development. A small proportion of infants with CMV develop long-term problems, with sensorineural hearing loss being most common. See, e.g., J. F. Bale, Congenital cytomegalovirus infection, in M. J. Aminoff, F. Boller, and D. F. Swaab (Eds.), Handbook of clinical neurology (Vol. 123, pp. 319-326), Amsterdam, Elsevier, 2014.

Question 38

Following a closed head injury caused by a fall down a flight of stairs, a 54-year-old woman experiences retrograde amnesia for events that occurred during the five years prior to her fall. When her memories begin to return, she will likely remember which of the following first?
A. the family reunion she attended 4-1/2 years ago
B. the birth of her first grandchild three years ago
C. the vacation she took with her husband 1-1/2 years ago
D. the birthday party of her twin grandchildren two months ago

Answer 38

A. the family reunion she attended 4-1/2 years ago

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-21 Answer A is correct. The recovery of long-term memories following a traumatic brain injury ordinarily involves “shrinking retrograde amnesia” in which more distant (remote) memories are recovered first.

Question 39

In the context of Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment, satisfactoriness is the result of the correspondence between the worker’s:
A. interests and the characteristics of the job.
B. vocational identity and ego identity.
C. needs and the reinforcers provided by the job.
D. skills and the skill requirements of the job.

Answer 39

D. skills and the skill requirements of the job.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Career Choice and Development-13 Answer D is correct. As defined by Dawis and Lofquist, satisfactoriness is the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is determined by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.

Question 40

A newly licensed psychotherapist reacts to clients who are members of certain minority groups in ways that are consistent with stereotypes she formed about those groups during her high school and undergraduate years. Gerald Caplan (1970) described this as __________ and as a possible focus of consultee-centered case consultation.
A. projective identification
B. parallel process
C. microinvalidation
D. theme interference

Answer 40

D. theme interference

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-19 Answer D is correct. Caplan described theme interference as a loss of objectivity that occurs when a therapist’s reactions to a particular type of client are affected by his/her previous experiences with that type of client.

Question 41

Diabetes insipidus is usually caused by a low level of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by the:
A. pineal gland.
B. pituitary gland.
C. pancreas.
D. thyroid gland.

Answer 41

B. pituitary gland.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-20 Answer B is correct. The pituitary gland secretes several hormones including ADH, which regulates water balance in the body. A low level of ADH causes diabetes insipidus, which involves extreme thirst and the excretion of excessive and diluted urine.

Question 42

Which of the following statements best describes the requirements of the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations for bartering?
A. Bartering is always unacceptable.
B. Bartering is acceptable only in the “most unusual circumstances.”
C. Bartering may be acceptable when it’s not clinically contraindicated.
D. Bartering may be acceptable when potential conflicts are discussed with the client.

Answer 42

C. Bartering may be acceptable when it’s not clinically contraindicated.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-16 Answer C is correct. Bartering is addressed in Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which both prohibit bartering when it is “clinically contraindicated.”

Question 43

Drugs that reduce __________ activity in certain areas of the brain have been found useful for suppressing tics.
A. serotonin
B. dopamine
C. glutamate
D. GABA

Answer 43

B. dopamine

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-03 Answer B is correct. Knowing that antipsychotic drugs are used to treat tic disorders and that they exert their therapeutic effects by blocking dopamine receptors would have helped you identify dopamine as the correct answer to this question.

Question 44

The lifetime risk for suicide for people with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least _____ times the risk for people in the general population.
A. three
B. six
C. 10
D. 15

Answer 44

D. 15

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-07 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 states that the lifetime risk for suicide for people with bipolar disorder has been estimated to be at least 15 times the risk for people in the general population and that bipolar disorder may be implicated in one-fourth of all completed suicides.

Question 45

Major depressive disorder has been linked to all of the following sleep abnormalities except:
A. increased REM latency.
B. reduced slow-wave sleep.
C. prolonged sleep latency.
D. increased REM density.

Answer 45

A. increased REM latency.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-09 Answer A is correct. Decreased REM latency (shortened latency from sleep onset to REM sleep), reduced slow-wave (stages 3 and 4) sleep, prolonged sleep latency (a longer time to fall asleep), and increased REM density (more rapid eye movements per unit of time) have been linked to major depressive disorder, especially in adults.

Question 46

Compared to effectiveness research on psychotherapy outcomes, efficacy research has:
A. better internal and external validity.
B. better internal validity but worse external validity.
C. worse internal validity but better external validity.
D. worse internal and external validity.

Answer 46

B. better internal validity but worse external validity.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-21 Answer B is correct. Efficacy research is conducted in highly controlled conditions and, as a result, has good internal validity; however, the results have limited external validity because they can’t be generalized to less well-controlled conditions. In contrast, effectiveness research is conducted in conditions that are similar to situations in which therapy actually occurs and has limited internal validity due to limited experimental control but tends to have better external validity.

Question 47

Linking the requirements for successful job performance to organizational values, goals, and strategies is characteristic of which of the following?
A. job evaluation
B. job analysis
C. competency modeling
D. performance feedback

Answer 47

C. competency modeling

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-01 Answer C is correct. Competency modeling is similar to job analysis but focuses on the core competencies that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and are linked to the organization’s values, goals, and strategies.

Question 48

Bateson and his colleagues (Bateson et al., 1956) linked schizophrenia to which of the following?
A. circular communication
B. double-bind communication
C. complementary interactions
D. symmetrical interactions

Answer 48

B. double-bind communication

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-10 Answer B is correct. As originally defined by G. Bateson, D. Jackson, J. Haley, and J. Weakland, double-bind communication involves contradictory messages, with one message often being expressed verbally and the other nonverbally. In addition, the recipient of the contradictory messages is not allowed to comment on them (Toward a theory of schizophrenia, Behavioral Science, 1, 251-264, 1956).

Question 49

A practitioner of reality therapy would agree that psychopathology is the result of:
A. adoption of a failure identity.
B. adoption of a mistaken style of life.
C. a boundary disturbance.
D. defective reality testing.

Answer 49

A. adoption of a failure identity.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-05 Answer A is correct. According to reality therapists, when a person chooses to fulfill his/her needs in irresponsible ways, the person has adopted a failure identity which, in turn, causes depression and other problems.

Question 50

An interviewee would be classified as ________ using the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) when she describes early relationships with her parents in very positive terms but is unable to give examples that support her evaluation.
A. autonomous
B. dismissing
C. preoccupied
D. disorganized

Answer 50

B. dismissing

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-19 Answer B is correct. The AAI is used to assess an adult’s early attachment experiences and classifies interviewees as autonomous, dismissing, or preoccupied. Individuals are classified as dismissing when they provide positive descriptions of their early relationships with their parents, but their descriptions are not supported or are contradicted by their actual memories.

Question 51

Practitioners of Milan systemic family therapy would be least likely to use which of the following techniques?
A. circular questions
B. hypothesizing
C. fixed-role therapy
D. positive connotation

Answer 51

C. fixed-role therapy

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-13 Answer C is correct. Of the techniques listed in the answers, only fixed-role therapy is not associated with Milan systemic therapy. It’s used by practitioners of Kelly’s personal construct therapy and involves having clients adopt roles that will let them “try out” personal constructs that differ from their own.

Question 52

Response cost is an application of which of the following?
A. positive reinforcement
B. negative reinforcement
C. positive punishment
D. negative punishment

Answer 52

D. negative punishment

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-10 Answer D is correct. Response cost is used to reduce or eliminate a behavior and does so by using negative punishment – i.e., by removing a positive reinforcer whenever the behavior occurs.

Question 53

The research has found that suicide attempters with low levels of __________ metabolites in their cerebrospinal fluid are at higher risk than those with higher levels for repeated suicide attempts and completed suicide.
A. serotonin
B. glutamate
C. epinephrine
D. acetylcholine

Answer 53

A. is random.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer A is correct. Classical test theory is based on the assumption that an examinee’s obtained test score is due to a combination of “truth” and measurement error, with truth referring to the “true” amount of the characteristic measured by the test that the examinee has and measurement error being random (unsystematic).

Question 54

Which of the following is true about dreams?
A. They occur only during REM sleep.
B. They occur during REM and non-REM sleep but are more bizarre and emotional and more likely to be recalled when they occur during REM sleep.
C. They occur during REM and non-REM sleep but are more bizarre and emotional and less likely to be recalled when they occur during REM sleep.
D. They occur during REM and non-REM sleep

Answer 54

B. They occur during REM and non-REM sleep but are more bizarre and emotional and more likely to be recalled when they occur during REM sleep.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Memory and Sleep-15 Answer B is correct. Dreams occur during REM and non-REM sleep, but they occur more often during REM sleep. In addition, dreams that occur during REM sleep are longer, more bizarre and emotional, and more likely to be recalled [E. F. Pace-Schott, Neuropsychology of sleep, in G. Koob, M. Le Moal, and R. Thompson (Eds.), Encyclopedia of behavioral neuroscience (pp. 448-455), San Diego, Academic Press, 2010].

Question 55

Decisional balance, self-efficacy, and temptation are core constructs of which of the following?
A. reality therapy
B. acceptance and commitment therapy
C. EMDR
D. transtheoretical model

Answer 55

D. transtheoretical model

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Brief Therapies-07 Answer D is correct. The transtheoretical model identifies decisional balance, self-efficacy, and temptation as factors that affect a person’s motivation to change.

Question 56

Helms’s (1995) model of White racial identity development predicts that a White therapist in which of the following stages is likely to be most effective when working with clients from racial or ethnic minority groups?
A. integrative awareness
B. autonomy
C. internalization
D. reintegration

Answer 56

B. autonomy

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-28 Answer B is correct. Helms’s model of White racial identity development distinguishes between six stages: contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. A White therapist in the final stage (autonomy) has non-racist attitudes and a stable White identity that’s not rooted in privilege and is likely to be more effective than White therapists in other stages when working with clients from racial or ethnic minority groups.

Question 57

__________ is used to establish a complex behavior that consists of a sequence of components by establishing the components one at a time.
A. Chaining
B. Shaping
C. Differential reinforcement
D. The Premack principle

Answer 57

A. Chaining

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-11 Answer A is correct. Chaining is used to establish a complex behavior that consists of a sequence of responses that occur in a fixed order. In contrast, shaping is used to establish a behavior by reinforcing successive approximations to (not components of) the behavior.

Question 58

Structural family therapists use which of the following to identify and alter the family’s dysfunctional family structure and reassure family members that they’re supported and understood?
A. enactment
B. joining
C. therapeutic paradox
D. therapeutic triangle

Answer 58

B. joining

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-12 Answer B is correct. Joining involves entering the family system by adopting its behaviors and its communication style and content. Joining allows the therapist to develop a therapeutic alliance with family members and obtain the information needed to identify what changes should be made to the family’s structure.

Question 59

The original version of which of the following provided a decision tree to help leaders determine the optimal leadership style in a particular situation?
A. Fiedler’s contingency theory
B. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory
C. House’s path-goal theory
D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

Answer 59

D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Organizational Leadership-19 Answer D is correct. The original version of the Vroom-Yetton-Jago (Vroom & Jago, 1988, Vroom & Yetton, 1973) leadership model provided a decision tree to help leaders determine the optimal leadership style for a given set of conditions. The current version replaces the decision tree with decision matrices.

Question 60

Which of the following is not required for a DSM-5 diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?
A. significantly low body weight
B. dieting or fasting to maintain low body weight
C. intense fear of becoming fat
D. disturbance in self-perceived weight or shape

Answer 60

B. dieting or fasting to maintain low body weight

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-19 Answer B is correct. The diagnosis of anorexia nervosa requires a restriction in energy intake that leads to a significantly low body weight, but the restriction can involve dieting or fasting or binge-eating and purging. In other words, the diagnosis can be assigned even when the person is not engaging in dieting or fasting.

Question 61

Damage to the arcuate fasciculus can produce conduction aphasia which is characterized by which of the following?
A. fluent spontaneous speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition.
B. fluent spontaneous speech, impaired comprehension, and normal repetition.
C. nonfluent spontaneous speech, normal comprehension, and normal repetition.
D. nonfluent spontaneous speech, impaired comprehension, and impaired repetition.

Answer 61

A. fluent spontaneous speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-07 Answer A is correct. Conduction aphasia is a rare type of aphasia that’s usually caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which is the bundle of fibers that connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas. People with this type of aphasia have relatively intact comprehension, fluent (but paraphasic) spontaneous speech, and impaired ability to repeat phrases, especially lengthy and complex phrases.

Question 62

You’ve just moved to a new town and want to “drum up” business for your private practice. As an ethical psychologist, you will keep in mind that in-person solicitation of business:
A. is always unacceptable.
B. is always unacceptable when it’s uninvited.
C. may be acceptable if it’s uninvited as long as it does not target people who are vulnerable to undue influence.
D. may be acceptable if it’s uninvited as long as it’s done in an appropriate manner.

Answer 62

C. may be acceptable if it’s uninvited as long as it does not target people who are vulnerable to undue influence.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-13 Answer C is correct. This issue is explicitly addressed in Standard 5.06 of the APA Ethics Code, which prohibits psychologists from engaging “in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from actual or potential therapy clients/patients or other persons who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence.” This answer is also consistent with Standard I.27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics which requires that consent for professional services not be obtained “under any conditions of coercion, undue pressure, or undue reward.” Note that answer D is not the best answer because it’s too vague.

Question 63

Frame-of-reference training is a type of training that focuses on:
A. helping raters recognize the multidimensionality of job performance and what constitutes different levels of performance.
B. helping raters recognize the rater biases that are affecting the accuracy of their employee performance ratings.
C. helping new employees feel as though they’re part of the organization by familiarizing them with all aspects of their jobs.
D. helping supervisors identify essential task requirements when conducting a job analysis.

Answer 63

A. helping raters recognize the multidimensionality of job performance and what constitutes different levels of performance.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-04 Answer A is correct. Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training that involves (a) ensuring that trainees understand the multidimensional nature of job performance and the organization’s definition of successful and unsuccessful performance and (b) giving trainees opportunities to practice assigning ratings and receive feedback about their rating accuracy. Frame-of-reference training has been found to be more effective than training that focuses on rater biases.

Question 64

Implosive therapy uses which of the following to eliminate a fear response to an object or situation?
A. classical extinction
B. counterconditioning
C. stimulus control
D. higher-order conditioning

Answer 64

A. classical extinction

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-06 Answer A is correct. Implosive therapy is based on the assumption that the object or situation that elicits a fear response is a conditioned stimulus and presenting the object or event without the unconditioned stimulus results in extinction of the conditioned (fear) response.

Question 65

All of the single-subject designs share which of the following characteristics?
A. The independent variable is not withdrawn during the course of the study once it’s been applied.
B. The independent variable is applied to two or more baselines.
C. The dependent variable is measured multiple times during each phase.
D. The dependent variable is measured before and after the independent variable is applied.

Answer 65

C. The dependent variable is measured multiple times during each phase.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-05 Answer C is correct. All of the single-subject designs involve measuring the dependent variable multiple times at regular intervals during each baseline phase and each treatment phase. The other answers apply to some, but not all, of the single-subject designs.

Question 66

According to Howard et al.’s (1986) dose-effect model, about ____% of therapy clients experience an improvement in symptoms by the 26th therapy session.
A. 35
B. 50
C. 75
D. 90

Answer 66

C. 75

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-20 Answer C is correct. K. I. Howard, M. S. Krause, and D. E. Orlinsky found that about 50% of psychotherapy clients show improvement by the sixth to eighth therapy session, 75% by the 26th session, and 85% after a little over a year (The dose-effect relationship in psychotherapy, American Psychologist, 41, 159-164, 1986).

Question 67

A parent who is using positive reinforcement to establish a desirable behavior in her child will switch from a continuous schedule of reinforcement to an intermittent schedule in order to reduce the risk for:
A. habituation.
B. satiation.
C. experimental neurosis.
D. fading.

Answer 67

B. satiation.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Operant Conditioning-08 Answer B is correct. Satiation occurs when a reinforcer is no longer reinforcing because the person is satiated (no longer desires the reinforcer). Switching from a continuous schedule to an intermittent schedule once the behavior is occurring at the desired level helps reduce the risk for satiation.

Question 68

When providing psychotherapy to employees through their company’s employee assistance program (EAP), psychologists should let the employees know that:
A. they will not release any confidential information to the employees’ supervisors without the employees’ authorization to do so.
B. they can provide the employees’ supervisors with confidential information only if the supervisors referred them to the EAP.
C. the only information they can release to the employees’ supervisors without the employees’ authorization is that they’re receiving therapy through the EAP.
D. the only information they can release to the employees’ supervisors is information directly related to their work-related activities.

Answer 68

A. they will not release any confidential information to the employees’ supervisors without the employees’ authorization to do so.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-09 Answer A is correct. Clients of EAPs have the same right to confidentiality as other therapy clients do, and they should be reassured that confidential information will not be shared with their supervisors or employers without their authorization.

Question 69

When designing and conducting a research study, you can increase statistical power by doing which of the following?
A. reducing the size of alpha
B. decreasing the effect size
C. randomly selecting subjects from the population
D. using a parametric test when it’s appropriate to do so

Answer 69

D. using a parametric test when it’s appropriate to do so

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-09 Answer D is correct. Increasing the size of alpha, increasing the effect size (the magnitude of the effects of the independent variable), and using a parametric test when it’s appropriate to do so are methods for increasing statistical power, which is the ability to reject a false null hypothesis. Randomly selecting subjects from the population increases a study’s external validity but does not affect statistical power.

Question 70

The administration of the SB5 begins with two routing subtests, which are:
A. picture absurdities and verbal absurdities.
B. procedural knowledge and vocabulary.
C. object series/matrices and vocabulary.
D. procedural knowledge and verbal analogies.

Answer 70

C. object series/matrices and vocabulary.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-04 Answer C is correct. The two routing subtests (object series/matrices and vocabulary) are used to determine the appropriate entry level for the other subtests.

Question 71

Research has linked a chronically elevated level of the hormone __________ to a loss of neurons in the hippocampus and memory impairment.
A. glutamate
B. cortisol
C. thyroxine
D. insulin

Answer 71

B. cortisol

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-24 Answer B is correct. A chronically elevated level of the stress hormone cortisol has been linked to a number of undesirable consequences. One consequence is impaired memory, which is due to its effects on the hippocampus.

Question 72

The utterance of single consonant-vowel combinations (e.g., “ba”) ordinarily begins at about ____ months of age and includes __________.
A. 3 to 6; sounds from various languages
B. 3 to 6; sounds from their caregivers’ languages only
C. 6 to 9; sounds from various languages
D. 6 to 9; sounds from their caregivers’ languages only

Answer 72

A. 3 to 6; sounds from various languages

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Language Development-08 Answer A is correct. Babbling emerges between 3 and 6 months of age and initially involves the repetition of single vowel-consonant combinations (e.g., “ba” and “ga”) and includes sounds from different languages, even sounds that do not occur in the language of the baby’s caregivers.

Question 73

Before assigning a DSM-5 diagnosis of disinhibited social engagement disorder to a child, you would want to make sure the child:
A. has a developmental age of at least 12 months.
B. has had symptoms for at least six months.
C. has a history of extreme insufficient care.
D. has one or more developmental delays.

Answer 73

C. has a history of extreme insufficient care.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-15 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for disinhibited social engagement disorder are inappropriately overly familiar behavior with unfamiliar adults, evidence that extreme insufficient care is responsible for the disturbed behavior, and a developmental age of at least nine months.

Question 74

Based on their research, Kagan and his colleagues (Kagan et al., 2007) concluded that __________ is a temperament characteristic that has a biological basis and is relatively stable over time.
A. behavioral inhibition
B. negative affectivity
C. adaptability
D. rhythmicity/regularity

Answer 74

A. behavioral inhibition

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-16 Answer A is correct. Kagan and his colleagues found that behavioral inhibition is relatively stable over time and concluded that it has biological roots but can be affected by certain environmental factors (e.g., parental overprotectiveness and insensitivity).

Question 75

According to Vygotsky, children’s ______ play provides them with a zone of proximal development.
A. parallel
B. make-believe
C. onlooker
D. associative

Answer 75

B. make-believe

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Cognitive Development-13 Answer B is correct. Vygotsky believed that make-believe play is a sociocultural activity that provides children with a zone of proximal development in which they can adopt roles and engage in behaviors associated with those roles that they can’t do in everyday life.

Question 76

For a test that consists of 50 true/false questions, the optimal average item difficulty level (p) is:
A. 1.0
B. .75
C. .50
D. .25

Answer 76

B. .75

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-01 Answer B is correct. The optimal difficulty level for test questions depends on several factors including the chance that examinees can choose the correct answers just by guessing. With regard to this factor, the optimal difficulty level falls halfway between 100% and the probability of choosing the correct answer by guessing: For true/false questions, the probability of guessing correctly is 50%, so the optimal difficulty level is halfway between 1.0 and .50, which is .75.

Question 77

One of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia is the presence of _____ or more characteristic symptoms during a one-month period, with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or __________.
A. two; disorganized speech
B. three; disorganized speech
C. two; disorganized behavior
D. three; disorganized behavior

Answer 77

A. two; disorganized speech

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-04 Answer A is correct. For the diagnosis of schizophrenia, the DSM-5 requires (a) the presence of at least two of five characteristic symptoms during a one-month period with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech and (b) continuous signs of the disorder for at least six months.

Question 78

A psychologist routinely administers a measure of clinical symptomology to most of his clients, who are young and middle-aged adults. Several older adults have been recently referred to him, but the measure he routinely uses has little or no information about its validity for members of this population. With regard to ethical requirements:
A. it would be acceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients as long as alternative measures are unavailable.
B. it would be acceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients if alternative measures are unavailable and he explains the possible limitations of its results to the clients.
C. it would be acceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients as long as he obtains informed consents from the clients before doing so.
D. it would be unacceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients under any circumstances.

Answer 78

B. it would be acceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients if alternative measures are unavailable and he explains the possible limitations of its results to the clients.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-24 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.02(b) states that, when the reliability and validity of the tests they use haven’t been established for members of the population being tested, psychologists “describe the strengths and limitations of test results and interpretations.” And Standard III.8 requires psychologists to acknowledge the limitations of their findings.

Question 79

Which of the following best describes the requirements of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations regarding the release of test data and other client information to adult clients?
A. Psychologists must always release a client’s test results to the client when asked to do so.
B. Psychologists must always release a client’s test results to the client unless not doing so was discussed during the informed consent process.
C. Psychologists may refuse to release a client’s test results to the client when they believe that doing so may cause imminent serious physical harm to the client.
D. Psychologists may refuse to release a client’s test results to the client when they believe the client is not capable of understanding them.

Answer 79

C. Psychologists may refuse to release a client’s test results to the client when they believe that doing so may cause imminent serious physical harm to the client.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-25 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.04 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.04(a) states that “psychologists may refrain from releasing test data to protect a client/patient or others from substantial harm or misuse or misrepresentation of the data or the test, recognizing that in many instances release of confidential information under these circumstances is regulated by law.” And Standard I.45 states that psychologists may refrain from sharing confidential information “in circumstances of possible imminent serious bodily harm.” Note that answer D is not the best answer because a client’s lack of understanding of test results does not necessarily mean that releasing the results to the client will result in serious harm.

Question 80

The WAIS-IV General Ability Index (GAI) score can be used to obtain a measure of an examinee’s intelligence that minimizes the effects of:
A. working memory and processing speed.
B. verbal comprehension and processing speed.
C. working memory and perceptual reasoning.
D. verbal comprehension and perceptual reasoning.

Answer 80

A. working memory and processing speed.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-06 Answer A is correct. The GAI score is determined by scores on the core Verbal Comprehension Index and Perceptual Reasoning Index subtests and is useful when it’s desirable to obtain a measure of intelligence that minimizes the effects of working memory and processing speed.

Question 81

People who have received which of the following diagnoses may express some unhappiness about not having any close friends but avoid developing relationships due to anxiety related to suspiciousness about the motivations of other people?
A. schizotypal personality disorder
B. avoidant personality disorder
C. borderline personality disorder
D. schizoid personality disorder

Answer 81

A. schizotypal personality disorder

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Personality Disorders-30 Answer A is correct. One of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for schizotypal personality disorder is excessive social anxiety that’s related to “paranoid fears.” In addition, the DSM-5 notes that people with schizotypal personality disorder “may express unhappiness about their lack of relationships, [but] their behavior suggests a decreased desire for intimate contacts” (p. 656).

Question 82

When using __________ to increase a behavior, the presence of a discriminative stimulus indicates that the behavior will be reinforced.
A. reciprocal inhibition
B. stimulus generalization
C. stimulus control
D. differential reinforcement

Answer 82

C. stimulus control

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Operant Conditioning-09 Answer C is correct. As its name suggests, stimulus control involves bringing a behavior under the control of a stimulus. When the stimulus signals that a behavior will be reinforced, it’s referred to as a discriminative stimulus.

Question 83

To determine the correlation between college graduate (yes or no) and yearly income in dollars, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?
A. phi coefficient
B. Pearson r
C. point biserial coefficient
D. Spearman rho

Answer 83

C. point biserial coefficient

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Correlation and Regression-08 Answer C is correct. The point biserial correlation coefficient is used when one variable is a true dichotomy (e.g., college graduate or nongraduate) and the other variable is continuous (e.g. yearly income in dollars).

Question 84

Cattell (1943) used which of the following methods to develop the Sixteen Personality Factor (16PF) Questionnaire?
A. logical content
B. empirical criterion keying
C. theoretical
D. lexical

Answer 84

D. lexical

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-03 Answer D is correct. Cattell used a combination of the lexical method and factor analysis to develop the 16PF. The lexical method is based on the assumption that “each language contains words describing all of the main personality traits” [M. W. Eysenck, Simply psychology (2nd ed.), New York, Taylor & Francis, p. 217).

Question 85

A psychologist designs a study to compare the effects of mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT) and mindfulness-based stress reduction (MBSR) on the anxiety symptoms of clinic patients who have just received a diagnosis of social anxiety disorder. The study will involve randomly assigning patients to one of the two treatments and measuring their level of social anxiety during the first treatment session and one week, one month, and three months following the end of treatment. The psychologist is using which of the following research designs?
A. counterbalanced
B. between subjects
C. multiple baseline
D. mixed

Answer 85

D. mixed

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-06 Answer D is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that this study has two independent variables: type of treatment and time. (Time is an independent variable when the dependent variable is measured on multiple occasions during the course of the study.) Type of treatment is a between-subjects variable because each subject will participate in only one of the two interventions (MBCT or MBSR), while time is a within-subjects variable because each subject’s level of anxiety will be measured four times. When a study includes at least one between-subjects variable and one within-subjects variable, the study has a mixed design.

Question 86

A rat is reinforced with a food pellet whenever it presses Bar A or presses Bar B. If reinforcement is stopped for pressing Bar B, the rat will:
A. continue to press Bar A and Bar B with the same frequency.
B. press both Bar A and Bar B with less frequency.
C. press Bar A with the same frequency and Bar B with less frequency.
D. press Bar A with greater frequency and Bar B with less frequency.

Answer 86

D. press Bar A with greater frequency and Bar B with less frequency.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Operant Conditioning-07 Answer D is correct. This question is asking about behavioral contrast, which occurs when two behaviors are reinforced and reinforcement for one behavior is stopped. In this situation, the behavior that’s still being reinforced increases in frequency, while the behavior that’s no longer being reinforced decreases.

Question 87

Hovland and Sears (1940) found that, as the market price for cotton decreased between 1882 and 1930 in the Deep South, the number of lynchings of African American men increased. This result is best predicted by which of the following?
A. deindividuation
B. the ultimate attribution error
C. social identity theory
D. scapegoat theory

Answer 87

D. scapegoat theory

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-14 Answer D is correct. C. Hovland and R. Sears concluded that the correlation they found between the market price of cotton and the incidence of lynching Black men confirmed their hypothesis that Black men became the targets of White men because White men were angry and frustrated because of the low market price of cotton in the Deep South (Minor studies of aggression: VI. Correlation of lynchings with economic conditions, The Journal of Psychology, 9, 301-310, 1940). Their conclusion is most consistent with scapegoat theory, which predicts that people tend to blame others for their own problems and is used to explain why members of a dominant group discriminate against or act aggressively toward members of a subordinate group. (Note that, while Hovland and Sears’s conclusion has been used as an example of scapegoat theory, some investigators have challenged their research and the conclusion they drew from it on methodological grounds. For the exam, you do NOT need to be familiar with this challenge.)

Question 88

Which of the following would be useful for assessing the intelligence of a 26-year-old who has limited English proficiency?
A. Cognitive Assessment System
B. Cognitive Abilities Test
C. Kaufman Assessment Battery
D. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices

Answer 88

D. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-08 Answer D is correct. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices (SPM) is a measure of nonverbal intelligence for individuals 6 years of age and older. Because instructions are simple and can be pantomimed, it’s useful for examinees who have hearing or speech impairments, physical disabilities, or limited English proficiency.

Question 89

Longitudinal research has found that the job satisfaction of individuals is:
A. stable over time only for those who stay in the same job.
B. stable over time only for those who stay in the same job or career.
C. stable over time and across jobs and careers.
D. unstable over time regardless of job or career stability.

Answer 89

C. stable over time and across jobs and careers.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-23 Answer C is correct. The research has found that a person’s level of job satisfaction tends to be the same over time even when he/she changes jobs and careers (e.g., Staw, Bell, & Clausen, 1986).

Question 90

Studies using functional neuroimaging techniques have found that which of the following areas of the brain is essential for prospective memory?
A. ascending reticular activating system
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. prefrontal cortex
D. hippocampus

Answer 90

C. prefrontal cortex

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Memory and Sleep-16 Answer C is correct. Prospective memory is memory for things that must be done in the future (e.g., remembering that you have to pick up a friend at the airport at 10 am next Saturday). Studies using functional neuroimaging techniques have found that activity in the prefrontal cortex increases when individuals perform prospective memory tasks. See, e.g., I. Mommenejad and J. D. Haynes, Human anterior prefrontal cortex encodes the “what” and “when” of future intentions, Neuroimage, 61(1), 139-148, 2012.

Question 91

Maslow’s (1954) need hierarchy theory predicts that, when a person’s physiological and safety needs have been satisfied, the person will be motivated primarily by his or her __________ needs.
A. achievement
B. esteem
C. self-determination
D. social

Answer 91

D. social

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Theories of Motivation-21 Answer D is correct. Maslow’s need hierarchy theory predicts that people have five basic needs that emerge in a hierarchical order that ranges from most basic to most complex, with behavior being motivated primarily by the lowest unfulfilled need. In order, the five needs are physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization.

Question 92

Of the core characteristics of the Type A behavior pattern, ________ has been most closely linked to an increased risk for heart disease and other health problems.
A. hostility
B. competitiveness
C. time urgency
D. cynicism

Answer 92

A. hostility

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer A is correct. As described by Friedman and Rosenman (1959), the Type A behavior pattern is characterized by a chronic sense of time urgency, excessive competitiveness, and hostility. Of these, hostility is most associated with an increased risk for heart disease and other health problems.

Question 93

____________ review of the psychotherapy outcome research indicated that people who participate in psychotherapy often show less improvement than do people with similar symptoms who do not participate in therapy.
A. Smith, Glass, and Miller’s
B. Howard, Krause, and Orlinsky’s
C. Seligman’s
D. Eysenck’s

Answer 93

D. Eysenck’s

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-22 Answer D is correct. Based on his review of the research, Eysenck (1952) concluded that 44% of patients who received psychodynamic psychotherapy and 66% of patients who received eclectic therapy showed an improvement in symptoms, while 72% of patients with similar initial symptoms who did not receive psychotherapy improved.

Question 94

Your new clients are married partners who have been arguing more often since their youngest child left home two months ago to attend college. They say that all three of their children are no longer living at home and they don’t seem to have much in common any more. As the partners describe their daily lives, you learn they just joined the same church that you belong to. As an ethical psychologist, you should:
A. continue seeing them in therapy but take special precautions to protect their confidentiality.
B. tell them you belong to the same church they belong to and that you’ll have to refer them to another therapist.
C. tell them you belong to the same church they belong to and ask them what they would like to do.
D. consider if their church membership is likely to impact your effectiveness as a therapist before deciding what to do.

Answer 94

D. consider if their church membership is likely to impact your effectiveness as a therapist before deciding what to do.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-06 Answer D is correct. Standard 3.05 of the APA Ethics Code prohibits multiple relationships that “could be reasonably expected to impair the psychologist’s objectivity, competence, or effectiveness … or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person.” And Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics requires psychologists to “avoid dual relationships … that are not justified by the nature of the activity, by cultural or geographic factors, or where there is a lack of reasonably accessible alternatives.” Neither Code prohibits all types of multiple relationships; and, in the situation described in this question, your first action would be to determine if belonging to the same church as your clients constitutes a multiple relationship that’s likely to have an adverse impact on therapy.

Question 95

A practitioner of which of the following types of therapy would most likely agree that a goal of therapy is to replace “dirty discomfort” with “clean discomfort”?
A. acceptance and commitment therapy
B. reality therapy
C. solution-focused therapy
D. rational-emotive behavior therapy

Answer 95

A. acceptance and commitment therapy

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-18 Answer A is correct. Practitioners of acceptance and commitment therapy distinguish between clean and dirty discomfort. Clean discomfort is unpleasant or painful but is a normal and inevitable part of daily life, while dirty discomfort occurs when a person tries to control clean discomfort, which has the effect of intensifying the discomfort. A goal of therapy is to replace dirty discomfort with clean discomfort.

Question 96

Which of the following produces the most rapidly progressing neurocognitive disorder?
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
C. Lewy body disease
D. frontotemporal lobar degeneration

Answer 96

B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-28 Answer B is correct. Neurocognitive disorder due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in DSM-5 as neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease and, like other prion diseases, typically progresses very rapidly. Most other types of neurocognitive disorders (including the three listed in the wrong answers to this question) have a gradual worsening of symptoms.

Question 97

A person taking which of the following drugs should avoid eating foods containing tyramine?
A. SSRI
B. MAOI
C. TCA
D. SNRI

Answer 97

B. MAOI

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-22 Answer B is correct. Ingesting foods containing tyramine (e.g., aged cheese and processed meat) while taking an MAOI can cause a life-threatening hypertensive crisis. Consequently, these foods must be avoided.

Question 98

Which of the following is ordinarily one of the first self-conscious emotions to emerge?
A. embarrassment
B. shame
C. disgust
D. guilt

Answer 98

A. embarrassment

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-20 Answer A is correct. Embarrassment, envy (jealousy), and empathy are the first self-conscious emotions to emerge at about 18 to 24 months of age. These emotions are followed by pride, shame, and guilt at about 30 to 36 months of age.

Question 99

The treatment-of-choice for agoraphobia is in vivo exposure with:
A. response prevention.
B. applied relaxation.
C. cognitive restructuring.
D. applied tension.

Answer 99

A. response prevention.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-12 Answer A is correct. In vivo exposure and response prevention is considered the first-line treatment for agoraphobia, and the research has found that combining exposure with applied relaxation, breathing retraining, or cognitive techniques does not significantly improve outcomes.

Question 100

A child explores the use of a block by banging it against the tray on his highchair, using it to push another block across the tray, and dropping it while sitting in his high chair. As described by Piaget, this is an example of which of the following?
A. primary circular reaction
B. secondary circular reaction
C. coordination of secondary circular reactions
D. tertiary circular reaction

Answer 100

D. tertiary circular reaction

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Cognitive Development-11 Answer D is correct. Piaget described the substages of the sensorimotor stage as including primary, secondary, and tertiary circular reactions. Tertiary circular reactions emerge between 12 and 18 months of age and involve exploring the properties of objects by, for example, using it to move another object and seeing what happens to it when it’s dropped.

Question 101

A practitioner of narrative family therapy will focus on:
A. each member’s contribution to the presenting problem.
B. each member’s beliefs about solutions to the presenting problem.
C. how family interactions are supporting the presenting problem.
D. how the presenting problem has affected the family.

Answer 101

D. how the presenting problem has affected the family.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-14 Answer D is correct. Narrative family therapy is based on the assumption that the presenting problem is the problem. Consequently, therapy involves obtaining a description of the problem from family members, separating the family from the problem by externalizing it, and determining how the problem has affected family members.

Question 102

During your second therapy session with Nancy N., she tells you she stopped seeing her previous therapist because of the inappropriate things he said to her during several sessions. After telling you what he said, Nancy looks embarrassed and emphatically states she doesn’t want you to contact him or tell anyone what happened. From what Nancy has told you, you believe the therapist’s remarks constitute sexual harassment. Assuming that the therapist is a licensed psychologist, you will:
A. advise Nancy to file a complaint against the therapist with the ethics committee or licensing board.
B. explain the seriousness of the therapist’s behavior to Nancy and urge her to sign an authorization to allow you to file a complaint against him.
C. explain the seriousness of the therapist’s behavior to Nancy and tell her that you’re ethically required to take action.
D. discuss Nancy’s options with her and reassure her that you won’t breach confidentiality without her consent.

Answer 102

D. discuss Nancy’s options with her and reassure her that you won’t breach confidentiality without her consent.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-01 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.43 and II.44 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to take action when they believe another psychologist has acted unethically as long as doing so does not violate client confidentiality. Nancy has asked you not to reveal what she told you about the other therapist, so you would maintain confidentiality. Also, because of the power differential inherent in a therapeutic relationship, “advising” Nancy to file a complaint or “urging” her to sign an authorization so you can do so (answers A and B) would not be the best course of action.

Question 103

The DSM-5 diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder requires the presence of delusions or hallucinations for at least _____ weeks without symptoms of a major depressive or manic episode.
A. eight
B. six
C. four
D. two

Answer 103

D. two

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-05 Answer D is correct. Schizoaffective disorder involves concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and a major depressive or manic episode for most of the duration of the illness, but with the presence of delusions or hallucinations for two or more weeks without mood symptoms.

Question 104

A score ___ on the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) indicates normal functioning:
A. below 4.
B. below 14.
C. above 24.
D. above 44.

Answer 104

C. above 24.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Clinical Tests-10 Answer C is correct. The MMSE is a screening test for cognitive impairment, and scores range from 0 to 30. A score of 24 or higher is interpreted as normal functioning. Lower scores indicate cognitive impairment and, the lower the score, the greater the impairment.

Question 105

The research has found that, when people estimate the frequency of a particular event, they tend to give more weight to anecdotal information about that event than to statistical data. This is referred to as:
A. the gambler’s fallacy.
B. counterfactual thinking.
C. the illusory correlation.
D. the base rate fallacy.

Answer 105

D. the base rate fallacy.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-02 Answer D is correct: The base rate fallacy is the tendency to be influenced more by information about an individual case (e.g., anecdotal information about a single event) than by base rate data.