CR EOYS6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which factor, if in excess can cause of a hypercoagulable state

Factor X
Factor VII
Factor VIII
Factor IX

A

Which factor, if in excess can cause a of hypercoagulable state

Factor X
Factor VII
Factor VIII
Factor IX

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2
Q

Which one of the following is not a cause of a hypercoagulable state

Elevated factor VIII
Malignancy
Protein C deficiency
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Elevated factor Xa

A

Which one of the following is not a cause of a hypercoagulable state

Elevated factor VIII
Malignancy
Protein C deficiency
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Elevated factor Xa

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3
Q

Which of the following would you prescribe alongside aspirin for NSTEMI treatment

Clopidogrel
Prasugrel
Ticagrelor
Abciximab

A

Which of the following would you prescribe alongside aspirin for NSTEMI treatment

Clopidogrel - (clopidogrel 300mg is an alternative if higher bleeding risk)
Prasugrel
Ticagrelor
Abciximab

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4
Q

Name the receptor on platelets that is activated by ADP

P2Y12
COX-1
TXA2
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

A

Name the receptor on platelets that is activated by ADP

P2Y12
COX-1
TXA2
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

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5
Q

Which of the following acts a receptor for von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
P2Y12
COX-1
TXA2
Glycoprotein Ib

A

Which of the following acts a receptor for von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
P2Y12
COX-1
TXA2
Glycoprotein Ib

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6
Q

This diagram depicts platelet adhesion to endothelium

Which of the following is VWF

A
B
C
D

A

This diagram depicts platelet adhesion to endothelium

Which of the following is VWF

A
B
C
D

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (GPIIb/IIIa) an integrin complex found on platelets. It is a receptor for fibrinogen[1] and von Willebrand factor and aids platelet activation. The complex is formed via calcium-dependent association of gpIIb and gpIIIa, a required step in normal platelet aggregation and endothelial adherence

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7
Q

This diagram depicts platelet adhesion to endothelium

Which of the following is fibrinogen

A
B
C
D

A

This diagram depicts platelet adhesion to endothelium

Which of the following is fibrinogen

A
B
C
D

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8
Q

This diagram depicts platelet adhesion to endothelium

Which of the following is GpIIb/IIIa

A
B
C
D

A

This diagram depicts platelet adhesion to endothelium

Which of the following is GpIIb/IIIa

A
B
C
D

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9
Q

This diagram depicts platelet adhesion to endothelium

Which of the following is GpIb

A
B
C
D

A

This diagram depicts platelet adhesion to endothelium

Which of the following is GpIb

A
B
C
D

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10
Q

Bleeding from mucosal surfaces (epistaxis, gum bleeding, menorrhagia) would indicate

VWD
Factor deficiency

A

Bleeding from mucosal surfaces (epistaxis, gum bleeding, menorrhagia) would indicate

VWD
Factor deficiency - rate

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11
Q

This brusing would indicate

VWD
Factor deficiency

A

This brusing would indicate

VWD - small / multiple
Factor deficiency - one large bruise

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12
Q

What underlying pathologies might cause angina if the problem is occuring from a reduced o2 supply? [2]

A

Reduced O2 demand:

  1. CAD:
    - Atherosclerosis
    - Post radiation therapy
    - Spasm: normal coronary arteries which spasm causing temporary occlusion
  2. Anaemia
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13
Q

What underlying pathologies might cause angina if the problem is occuring from an increased myocardial demand? [3]

A
  1. Left ventricular hypertrophy (from: HTN, aortic stenosis, aortic regurgiation, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)
  2. Right ventricular hypertophy (from: pulmonary HTN, pulmnonary stenosis)
  3. Rapid tachycardiarythmias
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14
Q

Describe the pathway you would undertake to diagnose stable angina

A

Clinical assesment:
How many of the following do they have?
- General chest discomfort lasting 5/10 mins?
- Is this provoked by exercise?
- Is this relieved by rest or nitrates?

  1. Answer = <1, No diagnostic testing, no medication
  2. Answer = 2 characteristics = atypical angina
  3. Answer = 3 characteristics = typical angina

If Atypical angina or typical angina: initial management and investigations:
- CTCA
- Functional imaging if CTCA inconclusive

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15
Q

Describe the managment pathway for someone with angina

A
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16
Q

How do different drugs / therapies target different physiological areas to relieve angina symptoms?

A

Increasing O2 delivery
Increase coronary blood flow:
- Nitrates
- CCBs
- Revasc.
- Nicorandil (Combination of K+ blocker and nitrate)

Reducing myocardial demand:

1. Reduce HR:
- BB
- ivabradine (funny current (If) inhibitor)

2. Decrease LV wall tension:
- BB
- Nitrates
- Nicorandil
- CCBs
- Ranolazine (Na+ pump inhibitor)

3. Reduce contractility:
- BB
- CCBs

4. Modify energy metabolism
- Trimetazidine

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17
Q

How can you pharmacologically reduce risk of MI for patients who are at risk of angina? [4]

A
  1. Aspirin: this produces an antithrombotic effect that helps to reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
  2. Statins: reduces cholesterol (HMG Reductase inhibitor)
  3. Ace Inhibitor: If there is hypertension or diabetes or other comorbidities
  4. P2Y12 receptor
    antagonist
    : After PCI or if allergic to statins (P2Y12 receptor blockers are another group of antiplatelet drugs. This group of drugs includes: clopidogrel, ticlopidine, ticagrelor, prasugrel, and cangrelor)
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18
Q

What drug is initially used to treat stable angina? [1]

A

glyceryl trinitrate (GTN).

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19
Q

What are 3 risk factors for thromboembolism - what is the name for these factors combined? [4]

A

Virchow’s Triad

Endothelial injury

Stasis or turbulence of blood flow

Blood hypercoagulability

Inflammation: causes procaogulant state - acts in combination with one of the above

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20
Q

Why does vein wall pathology increase chance of DVT / PE?

How can vein wall pathology / damage occur? [3]

A

Heparan sulfate projects out of the endothelial wall. These projections prevent platelet adhesion to intact endothelial membrane. If damaged - less heparan sulfate:
- increases risk of clot formation, especially if combined with reduced blood flow

Vein wall pathology can occur from:
a) smoking / alchohol
b) diabetes
c) chronic inflam disease (RA)

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21
Q

How do you diagnose DVT?

A

Use Wells’ Score:

  1. Add up points on the score: 2 points or more is likely. 1 is unlikely
  2. If 2 or more score: have proximal leg vein ultrasound
    i) have positive scan - give treatment
    iI) have negative scan, repeat in 6-8 days - do a D Dimer test
    a) if D-dimer is positive: repeat scan in 6-8 days
    b) if second sacan D-dimer is negative - consider alternative disease, but discuss symptoms with patient so they can look out for it
  3. Venography - gold standard

* o D-dimer is fibrin degradation product
o Is a marker of fibrin formation
o Raised in VTE and other pathologies
D dimer: fibrin degradation product released when thrombus is degraded by by fibrinolysis low D dimer = low DVT risk.

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22
Q

Why might someone have hypercoaguable blood? [3]

When would you consider hypercoagulable states for DVT?

A

Why might someone have hypercoaguable blood?
- Antithrombin deficiency
- Protein C or S defiency (anti-coagulant proteins)
- Factor V Leiden mutation :causes resistance to activated protein C

Consider when no obvious signs for VTE/ PE

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23
Q

How would you investigate for PE?

Classification system? [1]
ECG? [3]
CXR? [1]
ABG [1]

A

o Wells Score greater than 4

ECG - sinus tachycardia, right heart strain. T-wave inversion on anterior leads (V1-V3). Classic finding: S (deep S wave in lead I), Q ( present in lead III) and T (inverted T in lead III).

o CXR- possible small pleural effusion, peripheral wedge shaped density above diaphragm, focal oligemia. Most common finding with PE patients is a normal CXR, but used to excludes other diagnoses

o ABG - often hypoxic, low CO2 (due to hyperventilation)

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24
Q

What Wells score would indicate PE? [1]

A

greater than 4

25
Q

Explain how PE can cause cardiac failure xx

A
  • Right ventricle has thin muscle (pulmonary vasculature is a low pressure system)
    - Increased pressure in the pulmonary vasculature due to PE
    - Thin right ventricle has to work harder / dilates and is understrain
    - Dilatation of right ventricle gets in the way of the left ventricle (pushes through interventricular septum) – less filling of the LV: fall in BP / decreased CO
    - This causes release of adrenaline / noradrenaline: causes PE to vasoconstrict.
    - Repeats cycle – can lead to MI / arrthymia
    - So main cause of death is right sided heart failure leading to left sided heart failure  cardiac arrest
    - ALSO get patent foramen ovale in 1/3 patients: severe hypoxaemia & increased risk of stroke
    -
26
Q

Explain mechanism of how heparin works to treat PE [3]

Name a drug that is a synthetic heparin [1]

A

Heparin binds to antithrombin and activates it; activated complex then inactivates factor Xa, preventing conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin - integral step in clot formation)

Fondaprinux

27
Q

Why is heparin treatment potentially dangerous? [2]

A

Can cause bleeding in brain; retroperitoneal; site of fall [1]

Causes thrombocytopenia: platelet count drops, but increased risk of thrombus [1]

28
Q

What are specific treatments for pregnant; breast feeding and patients with cancer assosciated thrombosis? [3]

A

Specific treatments:

· During pregnancy:
o LMWHeparin throughout pregnancy - NOT warfarin or DOACs as they cross the placenta

During breast feeding
o LMWH and warfarin can be used.

Patient with cancer-associated thrombosis
o LMWH more effective than warfarin
o DOACs being evaluated.

29
Q

Which artery is occluded here? Explain what type of ACS is causing this ECG [1]

a) LAD
b) RCA
c) LCA
d) circumflex artery

A

Which artery is occluded here? Explain what type of ACS is causing this ECG [1]

a) LAD
b) RCA
c) LCA
d) circumflex artery: ST depression in V5 & V6

30
Q

After patient examination, what would suggest an ACS? (risk factors)

(name two signs of high lipids) [2]

A

Could be no signs

Risk factors:
- hypertension
- smoking / tabacco stains
- high lipids: Xanthelasma (harmless, yellow growth that appears on or by the corners of your eyelids next to your nose), Arcus lipidus (white, light grey, or blueish ring around the edge of the cornea)

31
Q

What is the treatment if a STEMI is detected? [3]

A

Open the occluded artery as soon as possible to restore blood flow to the heart (Time is Muscle) (angioplasty) at heart attack centre. less than120 mins is aim

If can’t open artery via stent aim to thromboylse (but want to avoid because have high risk of bleeding).

Reperfusion therapy:
- Aspirin + ticagrelor or pragural (dual antiplatelets)
- Heparin
- PCI

32
Q

What is the treatment if a non- STEMI is detected? [5]

A

· Treatment:

o Aspirin + ticagrelor

o +/- GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor (prevent platelet aggregation by blocking glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on their platelet’s)

o Fondaparinux - factor Xa inhibitor

o Anti-ischemic drugs - BB/nitrates

o Angiography, followed by +/- PCI within 24-96 hrs.

· Idea is to thin blood to fit through the semi-occluded gap - then use angiography within 24 hours of presentation to resolve the partial occlusion.

BATMAN

B – Beta-blockers unless contraindicated

A – Aspirin 300mg stat dose

T – Ticagrelor 180mg stat dose (clopidogrel 300mg is an alternative if higher bleeding risk)

M – Morphine titrated to control pain

A – Anticoagulant: Fondaparinux (unless high bleeding risk)

N – Nitrates (e.g. GTN) to relieve coronary artery spasm

Give oxygen only if their oxygen saturations are dropping (i.e. <95%).

33
Q

What does this ECG indicate? [2]

A

T wave depression in V1-V3
Occlusion in LAD

34
Q

How do you chose which antiplatelet should use for unstable angina, NSTEMI [3] or STEMI? [2]

A

Acute STEMI: Prasugrel & Aspirin

Unstable angina and NSTEMI who are having coronary angiography: Prasugrel or ticagrelor, as part of DAPT with aspirin

35
Q

What are the two types of treatment for haemophilia? [2]

What type of medication can you give for haemophilia? [3]

A

Two types of treatment:
Prophylaxis
On-Demand

Medication:
Factor VIII/ IX- recombinant or plasma (IV)
Desmopresssin / DDAVP (S/C) - causes the release of von Willebrand’s antigen from the platelets and the cells that line the blood vessels where it is stored. Von Willebrand’s antigen is the protein that carries factor VIII.
Tranexamic Acid (IV and Oral) - Antifibrinolytic (stops fribrinlysis)

36
Q

Symptoms of VWD? [6]

A

Frequent nose bleeds
Easy bruising
Gum bleeds (Teeth falling out & extractions)
Menorrhagia
Menstrual bleeding lasting more than 7 days
Intestinal/gut bleeding
Symptoms and their severity vary greatly

37
Q

What are the two types of treatment for VWD? [2]

What type of medication can you give for VWD? [3]

A

Two types:
Prophylaxis (Type 3 only)
On-Demand

Medication:
(Von Willebrand disease does not require day to day treatment. Management is required either in response to major bleeding or trauma (to stop bleeding) or in preparation for operations (to prevent bleeding):)

  • Wilate and Voncento: FVIII and vWF (IV)
  • DDAVP (S/C) Desmopressin (Inducing synthesis of the von Willebrand factor (VWF) by endothelial cells)
  • Tranexamic Acid (IV and Oral) - stops heavy bleeding
38
Q

Explain the basic overview from vessel injury –> stable haemostatitc plug

A
  1. Vasoconstriction occurs to reduce blood loss
  2. Collagen released is also. This causes platelet released, which in turn causes release of serotonin, TXA ADP & platelet phospholipids.
  3. Serotonin then helps with vasoconstriction, whilst TXAADP helps with platelet aggregation.
  4. Together they help to make a primary plug
  5. Through vasoconstriction, shear stress is increased. This cause various molecules to be release, including VWF (important in platelets adhering to vessel walls)
  6. Simultaneously to vasoconstriction: tissues factor is exposed. This causes coagulation cascade.
  7. Platelet Phospholipid is the surface for many of the coagulation cascade that occurs.
  8. Thrombin is created  fibrin
  9. together makes stable hameostatic plug
39
Q

Give brief overview on how primary haemostasis occurs to make platelet plug

A
  1. Vessel injury causes collagen to be exposed
  2. VWF binds to collagen one side, and the otherside to platelets via glycoprotein 1b receptor
  3. Platelets become activated, start clump other platelets. Through glycoprotein IIb, IIIa and fibrin, form stable haemostatic plug.
40
Q

Fill in the differences

A
41
Q

Which chemoreceptors detect change in CO2?

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid bodies detect pO2 / hypoxiaemia

Central chemoreceptors in medulla detect pH & paCO2, not O2!

42
Q

Describe how the kidney reabsorbs bicarbonate if there is respiratory alkalosis

A
  1. Decreased carbonic anhydrase activity within the cell: less CO2 converted to bicarbonate and protons. Less protons in cell means less protons excreted by sodium-proton exchange ATPase in luminal wall into urine to be excreted.
  2. This results in less bicarbonate is converted to CO2 in tubule and filtered bicarbonate is excreted in urine
  3. Leads to decreased excretion protons and decreased bicarbonate reabsorption
43
Q

Name 4 physiological response that occur for acclimatisation to occur? [5]

A
  1. Pulmonary vascular resistance falling
  2. EPO raises - increase in Hb
  3. blood pH adjustment
  4. CSF pH normalised
  5. 2,3 DPG levels increase
44
Q

How do you treat AMS? if mild? [1]
How do you treat AMS? if severe? [4]

A

A) If mild, rest (no further ascent !) for 24-48 hours
B) If more severe then:
Immediate Descent
Oxygen
Acetazolamide 250mg tds (three times daily) - carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Dexamethasone 4mg qds, (four times daily) oral or iv (steroid): corticosteroid medication used to prevent brain swelling and inflammation.

45
Q

Explain the MoA behind HACE

A

In hypoxaemia ATP supply in nerve cells decreases and sodium pumps run down
Sodium leaks into nerve cellpulling water with it brain cells swell.
Raises intracranial pressure (icp) and blocks cerebral veins
Cerebral circulation fails, hypoxia worsens, neurons, starved of oxygen and squashed together, start to die.
Dead neurons release ions and fluids – worsen cerebral oedema

46
Q

Treatment of HACE [4]

A

Recognition!
Descend immediately
Dexamethasone orally or intravenously (prevents brain swelling)
Acetazolamide (reduces intracranial pressure by reducing cerebrospinal fluid volume)
Oxygen
Hyperbaric oxygen treatment (portable chambers now available)

47
Q

Treatment of HAPE? [6]

A

Descend immediately
Sit patient upright
Oxygen
Acetazolamide
Dexamethason
Nifedipine: calcium channel blocker that relaxes vascular smooth muscle
Hyperbaric oxygen chamber
Sildenafil (Viagra): relaxes pulmonary vascular smooth muscle (it increases levels of cGMP & decreases intracellular calcium)

48
Q

Explain the mechansim of action of an ADP receptor antagonist [2]

Name three of the most common [3]

A

The ADP receptor antagonists bind to the P2Y12 receptor to prevent ADP-induced platelet activation

Clopidogrel
Prasugrel
Ticagrelor

49
Q

Which of the following prevents the conversion of arachidonic acid to thromboxane A2

Heparin
Warfarin
Aspirin
Dabigatran
Edoxaban

A

Which of the following prevents the conversion of arachidonic acid to thromboxane A2

Heparin
Warfarin
Aspirin
Dabigatran
Edoxaban

50
Q

Explain the mechanism of action of aspirin [3]

A

Non-selective for COX-1 and COX 2 enzymes (prevent aggregation)

COX 2 inhibition prevents arachidonic acid conversion to Thromboxane A2

Thus preventing Thromboxane A2 formation, preventing platelet aggregation.

51
Q

Which of the following can cause thrombocytopenia

Heparin
Warfarin
Aspirin
Dabigatran
Dipyridamole

A

Which of the following can cause thrombocytopenia

Heparin
Warfarin
Aspirin
Dabigatran
Dipyridamole

52
Q

Which of the following should not be used in pregnancy

Heparin
Warfarin
Aspirin
Dabigatran
Dipyridamole

A

Which of the following should not be used in pregnancy

Heparin
Warfarin: teratogenic
Aspirin
Dabigatran
Dipyridamole

53
Q

Name a drug that is a synthetic Factor Xa inhbitor [1]

A

Fondaprinux

54
Q

Which of the following is a non-specific phosphodiesterase inhibitor

Heparin
Warfarin
Aspirin
Dabigatran
Dipyridamole

A

Which of the following is a non-specific phosphodiesterase inhibitor

Dipyridamole

Inhibits both adenosine deaminase and phosphodiesterase, preventing the degradation of cAMP, an inhibitor of platelet function

55
Q

Name four DOACs [4]

A

Dabigatran
Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Edoxaban

56
Q

Describe MoA of the DOACs:

Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Edoxaban

A

Direct factor Xa inhibitor (more modern version of heparin)

57
Q

Explain mechanism of action of Dabigatran [1]

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

58
Q

Which of the following is not a direct factor Xa inhibitor

Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Edoxaban
Dabigatran

A

Which of the following is not a direct factor Xa inhibitor

Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Edoxaban
Dabigatran: direct thrombin inhibitor