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HP Exam 2 > Equine > Flashcards

Equine Flashcards

equine management, equine preventative med, equine behavior.

1
Q

What are the 2 overarching categories for WHY people have horses?

A
  1. industry (breed, race, train, therapy, work)
  2. pleasure (show, ride, companionship)
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2
Q

How does the living environment differ from wild horses to domesticated horses and why/how that could affect their health?

A

in the wild, they have to travel further distances to get their meals, lush grass is sparse. Domesticated horses are put in smaller, cultivated pastures that has lush, calorie-dense grass (travel less, eat more).

In the wild, they travel in herds. Some domesticated horses are in small groups or alone – this can be a big source of behavior and health issues.

In domesticated horses, people utilize them for various activities putting them at greater risk for injury/illness than wild.

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3
Q

T/F: the way horses are kept has a great deal to do with their purpose

A

true

show – kept in stall, limited turnout
breeding – kept in herds
ppl without property – kept in boarding stable

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4
Q

Name the following bedding type:
Advantages: cheap, warm, provides cushion, +/- cleaner
Disadv: not absorbant, ammonia, dusty, will eat it.

A

straw

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5
Q

Name the advantages and disadvantages of shavings as bedding

A

adv: absorbent, provides cushion
disadv: dusty, black walnut laminitis risk

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6
Q

While dirt flooring is absorbent and good cushion for the horses feet, why is it not the best flooring choice?

A

it is impossible to disinfect
if certain diseases (salmonella) get into the dirt, they will be there forever and this poses health risks.

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7
Q

Concrete flooring is very hard and mats are often required to be added for feet cushioning. What is the greatest benefit to concrete flooring?

A

easier to clean and less risk of pathogens staying around.

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8
Q

What type of horses would be best turned out into a “dry lot”? (a small area fenced in with no forage)

A

EMS horses
horses with laminitis

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9
Q

Which fence type is safest for horses?
Which is least safe?

A

safest = planked wood
least safe = barbed wire

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10
Q

Why is conformation important in horses?

A

function may be related to form
therefore poor conformation can predispose them to injury

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11
Q

What is the purpose of a “pre-purchase” examination for horses?

A

to find any and all abnormalities to share with the owner intending the purchase the horse, BEFORE they purchase the horse
This is NOT an opportunity to Pass/Fail a horse and make the decision for the owner, rather to only inform them of medical fact.

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12
Q

Why is it important to know how tack/equipment functions?

A

it can affect the horses “way of going”
ex. incorrect saddle fit, wrong bit, etc.

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13
Q

This type of riding is described as:
- smaller saddle that allows rider to move up and out and have more contact with the horse
- usually used in sport (jumping, etc.)

A

english

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14
Q

This type of riding is described as:
- bigger saddle with horn in front to allow for a more secure, deep-seated rider
- usually used in riding and work

A

western

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15
Q

Thoroughbred racing horses have a plethora of health concerns such as musculoskeletal, respiratory, cardiac, infectious diseases, drug administration, and reproduction.
Most of those can be explained by working at maximum intensity as well as being exposed to other horses/traveling.

Why is reproduction on the list as a concern?

A

these horses require live-cover breedings

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16
Q

What are the 4 big health concerns you’d have for a harness racing horse and why?

A
  1. musculoskeletal
  2. respiratory
  3. cardiac
  4. infectious disease

these are all related to working at maximum intensity, traveling to shows, and being exposed to other horses.

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17
Q

Endurance horses (horses that run at maximum intensity in regard to long-distances) are of concern for cardiac, respiratory, and musculoskeletal health issues. They also suffer from 1 additional problem, what is that problem and why?

A

electrolyte abnormalities
this is because they are exerting themselves for very long distances

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18
Q

Dressage horses are judged based on meeting specific standards. While they are not working at “maximum intensity”, they do need to be able to perform certain motions well.
What are 2 health concerns for this discipline?

A

musculoskeletal
respiratory (the way their head/neck is positioned)

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19
Q

Why do show-jumping horses have musculoskeletal and respiratory health concerns?

A

they are running and jumping as fast as they can. jumping definitely puts strain on the musculoskeletal system and increases risk for injury.

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20
Q

“Hunters” are horses that jump over fences similar to show-jumping horses, but instead they do not do it as fast as possible. They are judged on their conformation during the jump and how easy-going their flow is.
That being said, they still have the same concerns as show-jumping horse (musculoskel and respiratory), but also an additional concern. What is it and why?

A

drug administration
these horses are judged on their “relaxed/easy-going” flow, so they are given certain calming drugs.

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21
Q

Why do eventing horses (horses who do dressage, cross-country course, and show jumping) have musculoskeletal and respiratory health concerns?

A

they are performing certain motions (dressage), working at maximal intensity (cc course), and putting their musculoskel system at risk (show jumping).

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22
Q

Saddle seat horses have very animated gaits with smooth strides. This raises concern for musculoskeletal and respiratory systems. What other additional concern can you think of for this discipline?

A

drug administration – helps make these horses “more animated”

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23
Q

Why is drug administration a health concern for the western pleasure discipline?

A

these quarterhorses are expected to move slow around a ring.
They are given drugs to calm the horses.

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24
Q

What are health concerns for a reining horse?

A

musculoskeletal
respiratory

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25
Q

Why do rodeo/ranch horses have musculoskeletal and respiratory health concerns?

A

they are working at maximum intensity.

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26
Q

Use and regulation of drugs during competition is dependent upon what…

A

the organization governing the competition
(racing vs united states equestrian federation, international federation for equestrian sports)

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27
Q

This horse is an endangered wild species.

A

Equus ferus przewalskii (Przewalksi’s horse)

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28
Q

What is a male donkey called? Female?

A

male – jack
female – jinny

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29
Q

T/F: there are many donkey breeds and the biggest difference among them all is the size, except for the Poitou breed that has a dreaded coat and is endangered

A

true

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30
Q

Donkeys are NOT horses. They have big differences in their behavior, nutrition, anatomy, bloodwork intervals, and pharmacology. Additionally, there are differences in assessment of pain. How do donkeys differ in this aspect?

A

they are very stoic animals compared to horses, so it is difficult to identify individuals in pain.

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31
Q

How do you create a mule and what is the biggest consideration to this outcome?

A

cross a horse (female or male) with a donkey (female or male)
They are sterile

if F horse x M donkey = mule
if M horse x F donkey = hinny

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32
Q

What is the “technical differentiation” between ponies and horses?

A

size
horses = 14.3 hands and above
ponies = 14.2 hands and below

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33
Q

T/F: miniature horses are conformationally similar to ponies

A

false – they are similar to horses and are NOT ponies.

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34
Q

How are horses, ponies, and mini horses measured?
Be specific

A

hand-system – from ground to highest point of withers

1 hand = 4 inches

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35
Q

T/F: some breeds require genetic “proof” of being a part of that breed, whereas others just require the animal to meet conformational standards of that breed to be classified within that breed.

A

true

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36
Q

What are the 4 big breeds of horses?

A
  1. coldbloods (clydesdale, belgin, percheron)
  2. warmbloods (european sporthorse breeds)
  3. hotbloods (arabian, thoroughbred)
  4. everything else
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37
Q

Which horse breed is described as:
heavily muscled and compact, calm temperament, used in western disciplines (reigning, cutting, working cows, barrel racing, etc.), and largest breed registry in the world.

A

american quarter horse

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38
Q

Explain why american quarter horses have 2 major health concerns of their feet and muscle?

A

feet – they have small feet in comparison to their large, muscled body
muscle – they have several genetic predispositions

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39
Q

This horse breed is described as:
having quarterhorse genetics but with the addition of white.

A

american paint horse

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40
Q

this horse breed is described as:
having leopard-spots and known for being sturdy, brave, and stubborn. They are conformationally similar to AQH, but smaller.

A

appaloosa

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41
Q

What 2 conditions fall under ocular and skin health concerns of appaloosa horses?

A

ocular – equine recurrent uveitis
skin – SCC (bc of the white color)

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42
Q

This horse breed was bred for speed, used mainly for flat racing but excels in other english sports.

A

thoroughbred

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43
Q

Name the 4 health concerns for the speedy thoroughbred breed

A
  1. development orthopedic disease (OCD, because they grow big really fast)
  2. respiratory disease
  3. cardiovascular disease
  4. musculoskeletal disease
    (last 3 are due to working at maximum intensity for racing)
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44
Q

What horse breed is used as a harness race horse that is able to race at a trot or pace?
They have the usual health concerns assoc. with racing (resp., cardiovasc., and musculoskel.), as well as equine viral arteritis.

A

Standardbred

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45
Q

This horse breed was developed in the desert. They have dished faces, small bodies, and high set tails. They are good-natured, quick learners, and willing to please. They are also high-spirited, alert, and sensitive (animated). This breed is very versatile and excels at endurance sports.

A

arabian

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46
Q

Which breed of horse has multiple hereditary disorders as a primary health concern?

A

arabian

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47
Q

American saddlebred horses have steady temperaments with animated gaits. They are mostly used for showing in saddle-seat disciplines and driving.
What health concerns do you predict for this horse?

A

developmental orthopedic disease

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48
Q

This horse breed was bred as a riding horse in the south. They have a smooth, 4-beat running walk and an excellent temperament. They are very tough and stoic animals used for showing, pleasure, and trail riding.

A

Tennessee walking horse

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49
Q

What health concerns are known for tennessee walking horses?

A
  1. inhumane training measures (ppl create sores on the bottom of their feet to encourage a specific animated gait)
  2. stoicism (can lead to missing illness/disease d/t being hard to detect)
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50
Q

Warmbloods originated in Europe as sporthorses. They are athletic and excel as dressage, hunters, and jumpers. What health concern is present for this breed?

A

developmental orthopedic disease (bc they grow big fast)

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51
Q

Draft horses were bred to be work horses (plowing, pulling, farm work). They are large and heavy, but have excellent calm temperaments. What health concerns are present for this breed?

A
  1. muscle – genetic
  2. feet – they are large and flat
  3. laryngeal hemiplegia
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52
Q

T/F: vaccination should be based on: risk of disease in that animal, consequences of contracting the disease, anticipated effectiveness of the product, potential adverse effects, and cost of vxn vs cost of dz.

A

true

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53
Q

T/F: vaccination without proper management factors will NOT prevent disease, it only minimizes the risk.

A

true

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54
Q

T/F: although vaccines are not protective immediately, each horse is protected equally for equal duration.

A

false
vaccines are not protective immediately AND each horse is not protected equally nor for equal duration

these are things you need to inform the client of

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55
Q

The following 3 things are ________ risk factors for infectious diseases:
1. increased population density and of susceptible horses at a facility
2. movement of horses on/off facility
3. environmental and managerial influences

A

external
(meaning not intrinsic to the animal)

56
Q

T/F: additional external risk factors for infectious disease are: stress, overcrowding, parasitism, poor nutrition, inadequate sanitation, contaminated water supply, concurrent disease, inadequate rodent, bird, and insect control, and movement of people/fomites on/off facility during an outbreak.

A

true

57
Q

“This product has been shown to be effective for the vaccination of healthy animals x weeks of age or older against x disease.” is the _____________ on vaccines.

A

USDA statement

58
Q

What are common “less severe” adverse vaccine reactions in horses?

A

local muscle swelling
soreness
transient fever, anorexia, and lethargy

59
Q

What are the more severe/concerning adverse vaccine reactions in horses?

A

abscess formation
clostridial myonecrosis
systemic rxn (urticaria, pupura hemorrhagica, colic, anaphylaxis)

60
Q

Which animals are at highest risk for vaccine reactions and who should you report them to?

A

immunocompromised animals
report ALL adverse rxns to the vaccine manufacturer (with lot and serial #)

61
Q

T/F: most vaccines are required to be given by a veterinarian

A

false – they SHOULD be given by a vet. the only exception to this rule is rabies, which is required to be administered by a veterinarian. otherwise, owners sometimes do them on their own.

62
Q

The following are potential reasons for ____________:
Vaccinating too close to exposure, overwhelming exposure, vaccinating stressed animals, if the product is no good, or the vaccine is only partially protective.

A

vaccine failure

63
Q

What are the 2 routes of administration for horses?

A

intramuscular (cervical, semimem, semitend)
intranasal

64
Q

Which equine vaccine needs to be administered intranasally to allow for the contents to reach the pharyngeal lymphoid tissue?

A

strangles vaccine

65
Q

T/F: specific immunizations needed by a particular horse depend upon: age, use, breed, sex, value, general management, exposure risk, geographical location, and pregnancy status

A

true

66
Q

What makes a vaccine considered “core” by AAEP guidelines?

A

endemic disease
potential public health significance
legal requirements
highly infectious or virulent
potential to cause severe disease

67
Q

What are the 4 “core” equine vaccines?

A
  1. tetanus
  2. eastern and western encephalitides
  3. west nile virus
  4. rabies
68
Q

T/F: risk-based vaccines vary regionally, are population-dependent, and are based on the individual horse within a population.

A

true

69
Q

T/F: equine herpes virus is a core vaccine

A

false – this is a risk-based vaccine

70
Q

This non-required core vaccine is for a pathogen that is found in the soil. All horses are at risk for severe disease, but there is no public health risks. The vaccine is an inactivated toxoid that is safe and produces a strong serologic response.

A

tetanus

71
Q

This vaccine is for a virus that is endemic and has public health risks. It is not a required vaccine, however there is risk of fatality. This vaccine is an inactivated/killed vaccine that is safe and induces a strong serologic response.

A

rabies

72
Q

How often should you give a previously vaccinated adult horse a tetanus vaccine?

A

annually

73
Q

How often should you give a previously vaccinated adult horse a rabies vaccine?

A

annually

74
Q

This vaccine is to protect against an agent that is endemic in bird and mosquito populations. While all horses are at risk, there are no public health risks. The organism is highly virulent and infectious and there is risk of severe disease. The vaccine itself only comes as inactivated, is safe, and is HIGHLY efficacious.

A

eastern/western equine encephalitides

75
Q

how often and when should you give an eastern/western equine encephalitides vaccine?

A

annually (prior to vector season which is spring/summer)

give biannually if you are in an area at higher risk (warmer areas)

76
Q

This vaccine protects against a virus that is endemic within bird and mosquito populations. All horses are at risk and there are no public health risks. It is not required, but the virus is highly virulent and risk of severe disease is present. The vaccine comes in inactivated, canary pox vector, or flavivirus chimera. This vaccine is safe and HIGHLY efficacious.

A

west nile virus

77
Q

How often and when should you give a west nile virus vaccine?

A

annually (prior to vector season which is spring/summer)

give biannually if you are in an area at higher risk (warmer areas)

78
Q

This vaccine is to protect against rhinopneumonitis. There is no public health risk for this pathogen, but it is highly virulent and can lead to severe disease such as rhinopneumonitis, abortion, and myeloencephalopathy. This vaccine comes as inactivated or modified live. This vaccine is not considered very effective because it does not prevent disease it only decreases clinical signs.

A

equine herpes virus vaccine

79
Q

T/F: equine herpes virus vaccine is protective against Equine Herpes Myeloencephalopathy (EHM).

A

false – it might reduce shedding but does not protect against.

80
Q

How often should a horse be vaccinated for equine herpes virus?

A

twice a year (<5yo, on breeding farm, high-traffic facilities, performance horse)

otherwise, only once per year.

81
Q

This vaccine is protective against an endemic organism that has no public health significance, but is highly virulent. There is no risk for severe disease. It comes as inactivated or modified-live (intranasal).

A

equine influenza

82
Q

how often should an equine influenza vaccine be given?

A

annually

facility/show might require every 6 months.

83
Q

This vaccine protects against Neoricketsia risticii. This pathogen has no public health risks, but is highly virulent and has risk for causing severe disease. This vaccine comes as an inactivated vxn, but is not highly effective.

A

potomac horse fever

84
Q

how often should you give a horse a vaccine against potomac horse fever?

A

2 shots, annually

if in endemic area, give biannually (3-4 months apart) PRIOR to peak season.

85
Q

This vaccine is for a pathogen that is not endemic and has no public health risks. However, the pathogen is highly virulent and causes severe disease risk. The vaccine comes as inactivated and/or modified live typically given as an intranasal vaccine

A

strangles

86
Q

how often should you vaccinate a horse against strangles?

A

annually

87
Q

The modified live strangles vaccine can induce non-infectious disease and will affect testing. Describe this phenomena

A

the vaccine attempts to stimulate local mucosal Ig-A-mediated immunity to prevent bacteria from colonizing. This can cause the animal to mimic having strangles. The horse will test positive for up to 6 weeks post-vaccination.

88
Q

Why do they recommend to give the strangles vaccine on a different day that you give other IM vaccines OR do the IM vaccines first?

A

this is because if the modified live bacteria from the intranasal strangles vaccines happens to get on your hands or on the vaccination equipment, it can get accidentally vaccinated into the next IM injection and create an abscess. S. equi loves to form abscesses.

89
Q

What is an example of an “outside” influence that would affect which vaccines an animal gets and how often they get them?

A

barn owners and their own rules

90
Q

T/F: there are many combination vaccine products for horses (EWT/Flu/Rhino, etc.)

A

true

91
Q

T/F: if your horse needs to attend a competition/show, you should vaccinate them imediately before going.

A

false – at least 2 weeks prior to exposure.

92
Q

When should you and should you NOT vaccinate a pregnant mare? Which vaccines should you also avoid?

A

should NOT – vaccinate during 1st 90 days of pregnancy

should– vaccinate 1 month prior to parturition
rhinopneumonitis – vaccinate at 5, 7, 9 months of gestation
EWT, flu, WNV – vaccinate at 10 months of gestation

Avoid MLVs

93
Q

When should you start vaccines in a foal? Are there any exceptions to this rule?

A

start between 4-6 months

exceptions
- flu (start at 6-9 months old)
- foal from unvxnated mare or FPT (start vxns earlier)

94
Q

What is the annual test required for horses that co-mingle detecting equine infectious anemia?

A

coggins test

95
Q

_____________ ensures a horse has been examined by a vet recently and was healthy at that time. This is required for interstate travel and most equine events. It is only valid for 30 days.

A

certificate of veterinary inspection

96
Q

What are the 6 things that need to be included within an equine wellness visit?

A
  1. physical exam (including BCS and nutrition discussion)
  2. vaccines
  3. coggins test
  4. dentistry
  5. sheath cleaning
  6. fecal float
97
Q

Where can a horse NOT see? (multiple answers)

A

directly behind them
directly beneath their nose

98
Q

What is the purpose of the vomeronasal organ and flehmen response?

A

the organ helps process pheromones and the flehman response is usually in response to being around mares in heat or can even be a sign of pain

99
Q

T/F: horses ears are moveable 360 degrees and they can move independently of one another.

A

false – 180 degrees but yes they can move independently of one another.

100
Q

What is the “warning” a horse gives when they are afraid or worried about something?

A

they start listening more intensly, looking (w/ head tilted) at whatever has caught their attention, and can even snort.

101
Q

What is the classic “fight” response of a horse that occurs when they cannot use their “flight” response to get away from a threat?

A

kicking
striking
biting

102
Q

Describe the hierarchy (pecking order) of horse herds?

A

there is always a leader, but it is not always the same horse. they tend to not have a linear hierarchy.
Ex. horse 1 may be in charge of horse 2, but then horse 3 is in charge of horse 1.

103
Q

Why are vets concerned with the hierarchy of horse herds?

A

because this influences the access the resources and risk of injuries

104
Q

What are the 3 biggest results of horse domestication?

A
  1. increased inactivity
  2. decreased social time
  3. increased consumption of calories
105
Q

T/F: almost all equine behavioral problems and majority of health problems are attributed to domestication

A

true

106
Q

A horse that has its ears flattened, lips retracted, tail moving rapidly, is snaking, pawing, squealing, or threatening to kick is a horse that is exhibiting __________.

A

aggression

107
Q

In what instances does aggression against people typically occur for horses?

A
  1. fear
  2. pain
  3. sexual (hormonal)
  4. learned
  5. dominance-related
108
Q

In what instances would a horse typically show aggression towards other horses?

A
  1. sexual competition
  2. fear
  3. dominance
  4. territory (protecting a group or resource)
109
Q

What type of aggression is normal post partum and usually does not require treatment?

A

maternal aggression

110
Q

A _________ is a repetitive behavior that serves no purpose. These can be movement-related or oral behaviors. They are undesirable for cultural or economic reasons. Behaviors like such are usually caused by confinement or management issues.

A

stereotypic or compulsive behavior

111
Q

social isolation, restriction of movement, boring environments, novel environments, frustration and conflict, lack of dietary fiber, and infrequent meals can cause what type of behavior?

A

stereotypic or compulsive behavior

112
Q

You are called to a horse farm because the owner reports that their horse has been standing and swaying back in forth. You classify this as a locomotory compulsive behavior and inform the owner that this behavior can be learned from other horses.
You also tell the owner that behaviors like this might seem harmless, but there are actually concerns for musculoskeletal damage, fatigue, and hoof wear. What treatment recommendations do you give the owner?

A

turn out more often
exercise more often
increase forage
socialization / stimulation (toys, companion animals, mirrors, etc.)
decrease anxiety

113
Q

You are called to a horse farm because the owner reports that their horse has been making a very weird sound while biting the fence posts. You classify this as a aerophagia/cribbing/windsucking (an oral compulsive behavior) and inform the owner that this behavior can reduce stress and be learned from other horses.
You also tell the owner that behaviors like this might seem harmless, but there are actually concerns for dental wear, colic (epiploic foramen entrapment, gastric ulcer syndrome), undernourishment (d/t being preoccupied by the fence), and property damage.

What treatment recommendations do you give the owner?

A

increase dietary fiber
increase exercise
increase social activity
cribbing collar
remove ledges
electric fence

114
Q

This condition is described as chewing wood and swallowing it d/t lack of roughage in the diet, confinement, high concentrate diets, and overall lack of exercise/stimulation.

A

lignophagia

115
Q

This condition is characterized as ingestion of sand or dirt and can be normal for horses. It can also indicate lack of roughage or trace minerals in diet. It can lead to sand colic or intestinal obstructions.

A

geophagia (pica)

116
Q

You are called to a horse farm because the owner reports that their horse has been snorting, sneezing, has some facial twitching, and is flipping its head. You classify this as head shaking. What should you rule out BEFORE considering this as a behavioral problem?

A

medical causes
1. seizures
2. respiratory tract dz
3. ear dz
4. eye dz
5. pain
6. trauma
7. nasal foreign bodies
8. trigeminal neuropathy

117
Q

This condition is characterized by a sudden itching, burning, tingling, or electric sensation that causes photic (light-induced) head shaking. The onset of this condition is typically 7-9yo horses (geldings overrep) and it tends to be seasonal and/or exercise-induced.

A

trigeminal neuropathy

118
Q

What is the treatment for trigeminal neuropathy?

A
  1. avoid sunlight
  2. nose nets (creates constate stimulation to trigeminal nerve)
  3. pharmaceuticals – Gabapentin, cyproheptadine, carbamazepine
  4. surgery – caudal compression of infraorbital nerve
119
Q

_____________ is a behavior caused by an initial frustration being displaced and directed towards themselves. This can be caused by skin or musculoskeletal diseases or neuropathic pain.

A

self-mutilation

120
Q

What creates stallion-like behavior in geldings?

A

late castration or crytorchidism

121
Q

A client calls you because her mare just gave birth to a first-time foal. They are concerned that the mare is going to injure the foal because she is acting aggressively towards it and will not allow it to suckle. What is the diagnosis and how do you treat this situation?

A

foal rejection

tx: protect foal, supplement colostrum or restrain mare to allow for nursing +/- sedation; give high-dose prostaglandin

122
Q

how often are horse feet trimmed?

A

every 4-8 weeks

123
Q

What are the 5 reasons that we trim horse feet?

A
  1. remove excess length
  2. remove distortion
  3. improve base of support
  4. prevent chipping
  5. remove diseased/deteriorated areas
124
Q

What are the 4 reasons horses wear shoes?

A
  1. protection (hoof is wearing faster than it can grow)
  2. traction (increase of decrease)
  3. treatment (aid in dz tx or compensate for conformational defect)
  4. alter gait (increase animation, prevent interference problems)
125
Q

how are horse shoes attached?

A
  1. nails
  2. glue (direct or indirect)
126
Q

What are clenchers used for?

A

to squeeze and fold down the nail into the hoof to make for a smoother surface

127
Q

what tools do you need for the removal of a horse shoe?

A

Cutting clenchers (unfold nail)
shoe-puller (pulls shoe off)

128
Q

difference between shoe pullers and nippers?

A

nippers are used for cutting nails; they have very sharp and narrow blades

shoe pullers are used for pulling off shoes; they do not have sharp blades.

129
Q

what is the purpose of a rasp tool?

A

smooths down hoof surface to…
prevents chipping
protects boots
protects bandages

130
Q

T/F: farrier education is not regulated by any national program and opportunities range from 2 weeks to 2 months

A

true

131
Q

_____________ is the certified farrier level that can be achieved by having 1 year of farrier experience, completing a written exam, and a 2-part practical exam.

A

AFA certified farrier (CF)

132
Q

___________ is the certified farrier level that first requires AFA CF recognition and at least 2 years of experience. Additionally, there is a more in-depth written exam and 2-part practical.

A

AFA Certified Journeyman Farrier (CJF)

133
Q

The angle of a horses heel should match the angle of ________________.

A

the dorsal hoof wall

134
Q

A “matched hoof-pastern axis” is described as ….

A

the dorsal surface of the hoof matching the dorsal surface of the pastern

135
Q

the growth rings of a horses hoof should be parallel to….

A

the coronet

136
Q

describe the orientation/placement of a nail into a horses hoof for shoe application

A

the nail should be placed into the OUTER EDGE of the white line, but should NEVER enter the stratum internum or dermis itself.
If placed improperly, can create lameness of subsolar abscess.

HP Exam 2 (8 decks)

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