Advanced IFR

Question 1

The Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) is a combination of:

Answer 1

A heading indicator, OBS and a CDI.

Question 2

Flying inbound on an ILS approach, if at the decision altitude the requirements for a landing are not met:

Answer 2

The disengage button should be pressed and the go-around started manually.

Question 3

What are the 3 autopilot types?

Answer 3

1. Single Axis - controls roll
2. Dual Axis - controls roll and pitch
3. Three Axis - controls roll, pitch, and yaw

Question 4

Which autopilot mode should you use when flying an ILS approach or an RNAV/GPS approach with vertical guidance?

Answer 4

APR

Question 5

How can you plan a descent from the instrument approach MDA to the runway at night if there is no visual or electronic glideslope guidance available?

Answer 5

Monitor the distance from the end of the runway using GPS and plan a descent gradient that keeps you at least 400’ above the ground per mile.

Question 6

What does a manifold pressure gauge tell us?

Answer 6

Provides indirect indication of engine output

Question 7

What is a possible cause of pre-ignition or detonation in an engine?

Answer 7

Excessive cylinder head pressure.

Question 8

Most modern aviation engines with a turbocharger uses:

Answer 8

The engine exhaust to drive the system.

Question 9

In a normally aspirated engine, full throttle manifold pressure:

Answer 9

Decreases 1 in./thousand feet of altitude.

Question 10

What does a high altitude endorsement allow?

Answer 10

operate as pic of pressurized plane above 25000’ regardless of if you climb that high, just if the plane can fly that high.

Question 11

What does 91.205 say is required for IFR flight? (grabcard)

Answer 11

1. Two way radio
2. Gyroscopic rate of turn indicator
3. Slip skid indicator
4. Sensitive altimeter
5. Clock with seconds
6. Generator or Alternator
7. Directional gyro (heading indicator)
8. DME or RNAV (FL240 and above)
9. VOR or TACAN or RNAV (in class B)

Question 12

If you lose communications with ATC, as a last resort:

Answer 12

Try calling on the emergency frequency of 121.5.

Question 13

If a pilot has a two-way communications failure approaching a fix with a minimum crossing altitude of 10,000 feet, and the last assigned altitude was 9,000 feet, the pilot:

Answer 13

Must cross the fix at 10,000 feet

Question 14

The transponder code for a two-way radio communications failure is:

Answer 14

7600

Question 15

On a VFR flight, you encounter weather worse than forecast. You can request a:

Answer 15

Pop-up IFR clearance.

Question 16

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain?

Answer 16

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
Except for takeoff or landing, no one may fly IFR in a mountainous area, below an altitude of 2,000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown.
FAR 91.177

Question 17

Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?

Answer 17

Middle compass locator.
Compass locators transmit two letter identification groups. The middle locator transmits the last two letters of the localizer identification group.

Question 18

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

Answer 18

Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.
In an abbreviated IFR departure clearance, expect the name of the destination airport and altitude. If flying a DP, expect the DP name and number, transition name, altitude, and any additional instructions necessary.

Question 19

If you encounter in-flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that you are expected to use?

Answer 19

Trace, light, moderate, severe.

Question 20

What is MALSAR? (mials)

Answer 20

medium-intensity approach lighting system

Question 21

What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?

Answer 21

The date, place, bearing error, and signature.

Question 22

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

Answer 22

The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.

Question 23

A jet stream is defined as wind of

Answer 23

50 knots or greater.

Question 24

What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?

Answer 24

Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
The horizontal lift component is the sideward force that causes an aircraft to turn. The equal and opposite reaction to this sideward force is centrifugal force, which is an apparent force as a result of inertia. In a coordinated turn, these are equal.

Question 25

In icing conditions, if your airplane begins buffeting or vibrating after extending the flaps, what is most likely happening?

Answer 25

A tailplane stall is beginning.
Tailplane stall symptoms include: Elevator control pulsing, oscillations, or vibrations, abnormal nose down trim change, any other unusual or abnormal pitch anomalies (possibly resulting in pilot induced oscillations) reduction or loss of elevator effectiveness, sudden change in elevator force (control would move nose down if unrestrained), sudden uncommanded nose down pitch.

Question 26

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?

Answer 26

From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.

Question 27

You are planning an IFR flight in an airplane with a panel-mounted GPS receiver. What verification must be accomplished before this flight takes place?

Answer 27

RAIM availability must be confirmed for the intended route of flight and GPS approach.
RAIM Prediction: If a GPS certified under TSO−C129 equipment is used to solely satisfy the RNAV and RNP requirement, GPS RAIM availability must be confirmed for the intended route of flight (route and time). If RAIM is not available, pilots need an approved alternate means of navigation.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) 5-5

Question 28

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?

Answer 28

After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.
If the DME fails at or above FL240, the pilot must notify ATC immediately and then may continue operations at or above FL240 to the next airport of intended landing at which repairs or replacement of the equipment can be made.
FAR 91.205

Question 29

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is:

Answer 29

a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.
PRM is a radar system to monitor approaches to closely spaced parallel runways whose extended center lines are separated by less than 4,300’.

Question 30

When should a pilot expect airframe icing?

Answer 30

When flying in visible moisture, such as rain or cloud droplets, and the temperature is between +02° and -10° Celsius.

Question 31

What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on Top clearance?

Answer 31

Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected. 91.555

Question 32

During normal operation of a vacuum driven attitude indicator, what attitude indication should you see when rolling out from a 180° skidding turn to straight-and-level coordinated flight?

Answer 32

The miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction opposite the skid.

Question 33

How should a pilot determine when the DME at KPUC is inoperative?

Answer 33

The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.
Facilities with DME are identified by synchronized identifiers transmitted on a time share basis. DME identification should be received approximately every 30 seconds.

Question 34

If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator

Answer 34

may show a slight climb and turn.
Attitude indicators are free from most errors, but there is a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180° turn. This error is due to precession. A slight climb and turn would be indicated.

Question 35

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

Answer 35

The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.
Facilities with DME are identified by synchronized identifiers transmitted on a time share basis. A single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds indicates that the DME is operative.

Question 36

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the

Answer 36

resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc. This is the principal of rigidity.

Question 37

As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?

Answer 37

One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
DME measures the slant range distance from the facility. Slant range error is considered negligible if the aircraft is 1 mile or more from the ground facility for each 1,000’ of altitude above the elevation of the facility.

Question 38

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous

Answer 38

to all aircraft.

Question 39

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

Answer 39

the NAVAIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored.

Question 40

What are the yellow dashed lined areas on a high-level significant weather prognostic chart?

Answer 40

Turbulence

Question 41

How could you know if the vacuum system has failed?

Answer 41

The vacuum gyros disagree with the turn coordinator and the static only instruments.

Question 42

How could you know if the pitot/static system has failed?

Answer 42

The AI, HI, altimeter, and TC are indicating the aircraft is in a climbing right turn. The airspeed is increasing in speed meaning the pitot tube and its drain hole are clogged. To recover, lower the nose and level the wings by use of the AI.

Question 43

How could you know if the electric system is failing?

Answer 43

Turn coordinator disagreeing with gyro instruments

Question 44

Where can you find the en route low altitude navigation chart would you choose for your IFR routing?

Answer 44

In the top right hand corner of the chart

Question 45

Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

Answer 45

deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
Full scale deflection of the CDI from the center position to either side of the dial indicates the aircraft is 10° or more off course and the exact location is no longer known.

Question 46

Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?

Answer 46

Airport Facility Directory and Distant (D) NOTAM’s.

Question 47

What is meant when departure control instructs you to ‘resume own navigation’ after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?

Answer 47

You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.
“Resume own navigation” is used by ATC to advise a pilot to resume his own navigational responsibility using his own equipment. It is issued after completion of a radar vector or when radar contact is lost.

Question 48

What are characteristics of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?

Answer 48

With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.
Wind changes abruptly in the frontal zone and can induce wind shear turbulence. The degree of turbulence depends on the magnitude of the wind shear. The more hazardous wind shear occurs before the passage of a warm front.

The more hazardous wind shear occurs after the passage of a cold front.

Question 49

What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

Answer 49

Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.

Question 50

An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will

Answer 50

allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.

Question 51

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that

Answer 51

the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

Question 52

RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. What should be done?

Answer 52

RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
If RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are prescribed in an instrument approach procedure, but RVR is not reported for the runway of intended operation, convert the RVR minimum into ground visibility using the conversion chart.

Question 53

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?

Answer 53

90° and 270°.
There is no lag or lead on a heading of east or west.