Advanced IFR 2

Question 1

How do you read the cdi needle?

Answer 1

Full displacement is 10 degrees (from center to either side) each dot is 2 degree increments.

Question 2

Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to

Answer 2

friction between the wind and the surface.
In the northern hemisphere, Coriolis force deflects the pressure gradient force wind to the right until the wind blows approximately parallel to the isobars. Surface friction reduces this deflection so that a southwesterly wind becomes southerly.

Question 3

Frontal waves normally form on

Answer 3

slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
Frontal waves and cyclones (areas of low pressure) usually form on slow-moving cold fronts or on stationary fronts.

Question 4

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur when landing?

Answer 4

During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.

Question 5

In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?

Answer 5

An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.

FAR 91.131

Question 6

During IFR en route operations using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation, what must the aircraft have additionally?

Answer 6

the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
Aircraft using un-augmented GPS (TSO-C129 or TSO-C196) for navigation under IFR must be equipped with an alternate approved and operational means of navigation suitable for navigating the proposed route of flight.

Question 7

A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is

Answer 7

periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane.
Pilots may consider periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane when operating in icing conditions. When the autopilot is engaged, it can mask changes in handling characteristics due to aerodynamic effects of icing that would be detected by the pilot if the airplane were being hand flown.

Question 8

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

Answer 8

The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
An initial turn from either east or west will show a correct indication if the turn is done smoothly.

Question 9

What frequency is normally available at all FSS?

Answer 9

122.2

Question 10

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

Answer 10

The point of first intended landing.

Question 11

Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

Answer 11

MRA.
The minimum reception altitude, is the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.

Question 12

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

Answer 12

700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
There are Class E airspace areas beginning at either 700 or 1,200’ AGL used to transition to/from the terminal or en route environment. These extend upward to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. 700’ is the more common base.
FAR 71.71

Question 13

A ‘CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET’ clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

Answer 13

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.
The term “cruise” may be used instead of “maintain” to assign a block of airspace to a pilot. Climb / descent within the block is to be made at the discretion of the pilot.

Question 14

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should

Answer 14

swing freely and indicate known headings.

Question 15

A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

Answer 15

ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.
An inversion is an increase in temperature with altitude - the lapse rate is inverted. It often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

Question 16

How can you know what the MOCA is on an IFR chart?

Answer 16

It has an asterik.

Question 17

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant

Answer 17

the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.

Question 18

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

Answer 18

The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

Question 19

Are military training routes above 1500 feet depicted on high or low altitude ifr charts?

Answer 19

High

Question 20

What is indicated by the term ‘embedded thunderstorms’?

Answer 20

Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.
When moist, unstable, warm air overrides a shallow front, there can be hidden thunderstorms among the usual clouds – embedded thunderstorms. They are more common with warm or stationary fronts.

Question 21

What is the maximum forecast period for AlRMETs?

Answer 21

6 hours

Question 22

The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that

Answer 22

the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, D, or E airspace.

Question 23

When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

Answer 23

A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

Question 24

fDuring an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

Answer 24

(AIM) Section 6-4-1, “Lost Communications” procedure.

At the EFC time or clearance limit, proceed to the fix specified in the approach clearance or, if none is specified, to the initial approach fix (IAF) of the approach you intend to fly.

Begin the approach as close as possible to the published or assigned ETA, and use the last assigned altitude until the final approach fix (FAF) is reached.

If the clearance limit is a holding fix, leave the fix on the outbound course in accordance with the last clearance received, and proceed as specified in step 2 above.

If you are unable to begin the approach at the specified time, hold as close as possible to the clearance limit until the specified time, and then proceed as specified in step 2 above

Question 25

What does the ATC term ‘Radar Contact’ signify?

Answer 25

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

Question 26

Under which condition does advection fog usually form?

Answer 26

Moist air moving over colder ground or water.

Question 27

You are in IMC making a prolonged constant rate turn. If you make an abrupt head movement, which illusion could this cause?

Answer 27

Coriolis illusion.
An abrupt head movement in a prolonged constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis. This most overwhelming of all illusions in flight may be prevented by not making sudden, extreme head movements, particularly while making prolonged constant-rate turns under IFR conditions.

Question 28

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.

Answer 28

Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.
When an early missed approach is executed, pilots should fly the IAP as specified on the approach plate to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.

Question 29

During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

Answer 29

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
When the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received.

Question 30

How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be a penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?

Answer 30

The published visibility for the ILS is no lower than 3/4 SM.

Question 31

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

Answer 31

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
On a turn from the north, the compass will indicate a turn in the opposite direction. It lags the turn.

Question 32

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become blocked, the indicated airspeed will

Answer 32

increase during a climb.
Since both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, the airspeed indicator may respond as an altimeter. It will increase when the aircraft is put in a climb and decrease when the aircraft is descending.

Question 33

For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than

Answer 33

200 NM.
The standard high altitude service volume between 14,500’ and 18,000’ is 100 NM. Therefore, between two “H” VORTACs the useful range is 200 NM.

Question 34

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

Answer 34

Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing.

Question 35

While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?

Answer 35

Advise “unable” and remain clear of clouds.

Question 36

What does 00000KT indicate?

Answer 36

Calm

Question 37

No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least

Answer 37

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.

Question 38

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

Answer 38

The start of rain at the surface.

Question 39

If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?

Answer 39

Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.

Question 40

At what point are VOR and LNAV approaches terminated?

Answer 40

Missed approach point.

Question 41

If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will

Answer 41

increase and true altitude will increase.

Heat expands the atmosphere and vertically raises the pressure levels. True altitude and true airspeed will increase with the raised levels.

Question 42

When making a Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) approach, there is a special requirement for it. What is it?

Answer 42

Listening on two PRM frequencies, a tower PRM frequency and a final controller PRM frequency.
Approval for PRM approaches requires the airport to have a precision runway monitoring system and a final monitor controller who can only communicate with aircraft on the final approach course. Additionally, two tower frequencies are required to be used and the controller broadcasts over both frequencies to reduce the chance of instructions being missed. Pilot training is also required for pilots using the PRM system. IPH

Question 43

What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?

Answer 43

Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

Question 44

How can you tell from in IFR chart what the minimum altitude should be when crossing a way point or vor?

Answer 44

There will be a list of the routes under the information box marked

Question 45

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

Answer 45

Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.

Question 46

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above

Answer 46

the standard datum plane.

Question 47

What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 milli-bar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180?

Answer 47

Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be approximated.

Question 48

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

Answer 48

Fixes selected to define the route.
The compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways are all the fixes the pilot selects to define the route of flight.

Question 49

How do you find minimum rate of climb?

Answer 49

GS * Climb rate/60 = minimum rate of climb

Question 50

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

Answer 50

LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.
When the glide slope component of the ILS system fails, the approach becomes a nonprecision approach, and the pilot should use LOC minimums.

Question 51

As a first step in planning an instrument cross-country in actual IFR conditions, you should:

Answer 51

Investigate the big picture, using the surface analysis chart.
Surface analysis, weather depiction, and significant weather prognostic charts are sources of current weather information. It shows the areas of high and low pressure, fronts, temperatures, dew points, wind directions and speeds, local weather, and visual obstructions.

Question 52

Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?

Answer 52

Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.