Infectious Disease Flashcards
(201 cards)
1
Q
Cell cultures with mixed infections of feline calicivirus and feline herpesvirus can sometimes result in feline herpesvirus outgrowing feline calicivirus, resulting in only FHV. T/F?
A
False - it is other way around (feline calici can outgrow FHV)
2
Q
Timeline for blood cultures for:
- acute febrile illness
- acute endocarditis
- nonacute disease
A
acute febrile illness: two sets from separate sites, all within 10 minutes. +/- third set
acute endocarditis: 3 sets from 3 separate sites, within 1-2 hours
nonacute disease: 3 sets from separate sites within 24h, spaced at intervals of at least 3 hours
3
Q
In animals with renal failure, concentration-dependent drugs that require renal clearance should be have reduced (dosage or dosing frequency).
A
Dosing frequency
4
Q
Extended-spectrum beta-lactamase have only been described in what type of bacteria?
A
Gram negative bacilli (E coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae)
5
Q
Dogs with liver disease require dosing adjustments with penicillins. T/F?
A
False (dosing interval extended with renal disease but hepatic impairment has little effect on pharmacokinetics)
6
Q
How is cefpodoxime different than other third generation cephalosporins? (in terms of spectrum)
A
Most active against Staph, less active against gram negative and anaerobic infections
7
Q
What is the benefit of adding cilastatin to imipenem?
A
Cilastatin inhibits dehydropeptidase-1 (brush border enzyme in renal tubules). Dehyropeptidase-1 degrades imipenem into nephrotoxic metabolite.
8
Q
Meropenem is a good treatment option for methicillin resistant staph. T/F?
A
False = MRS are generally resistant to carbapenems.
9
Q
Mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics
A
Bind and inhibit penicillin binding proteins and inhibit cell wall biosynthesis
10
Q
Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones
A
Bind to DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV
11
Q
Topoisomerase II is more common in gram positive/negative bacteria.
A
Negative; topoisomerase IV is more common in positive [and FQs has less affinity for topoisomerase IV, hence why FQs are better for gram negative)
12
Q
Which fluoroquinolone has the highest activity against anaerobes?
A
Pradofloxacin
13
Q
Rapid IV administration of fluoroquinolone can result in what?
A
Hypotension, tachycardia, and cutaneous erythema (suspected due to histamine release)
14
Q
Cephalosporin and fluoroquinolones can cause false positive results on urine test strips for what?
A
Glucose
15
Q
Give physical exam findings and fundic findings for cats with enrofloxacin retinotoxcity.
A
Bilateral mydriasis and tapetal hyperreflectivity. This results due to functional defect in FQ transport protein.
16
Q
Mechanism of action of metronidazole
A
Diffuses into cells as prodrug, activated in cytoplasm. Preferentially accepts electrons and creates free radical that damages DNA.
17
Q
Metronidazole is metabolized by which organ?
A
Liver
18
Q
Mechanism of action of rifampin
A
Inhibit beta-subunit of DNA dependent RNA polymerase in bacteria
19
Q
Drugs like steroids, cyclosporine, itraconazole should be increased/decreased when given with rifampin. Why?
A
Increased. Rifampin is one of the most potent inducers of hepatic microsomal enzymes and efflux proteins, such as P-glycoprotein
20
Q
Mechanisms of action of trimethoprim and sulfonamides? Why administer together?
A
Trimethoprim - inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
Sulfonamides - analogs of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) and competitively inhibit incorporation of PABA = decreased folic acid synthesis.
When administered together = bactericidal (bacteriostatic on their own)
21
Q
What breeds should you use caution before using TMS?
A
Dobermans, Samoyeds, miniature schnauzer
22
Q
Tear tests should be monitored if using TMS drug for more than what period of time?
A
1 week
23
Q
Mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?
A
Bind to outer cell membrane and displace Mg and Ca (which link LPS molecules), then they are taken up into cytoplasm and bind to 30s subunit of ribosome
24
Q
Resistance to 1 aminoglycoside does not imply resistance to others. T/F?
A
True
25
Why are anaerobes resistant to aminoglycosides?
The process that aminoglycosides are taken into cell is oxygen dependent
26
Organs that require lipid-soluble drugs to reach are
Eyes, prostate, brain, CSF
27
Risk factors for nephrotoxicity with aminoglycosides?
Older age, reduced renal function, concomitant liver disease, dehydration, Na depletion, hypokalemia, other nephrotoxic drugs
28
Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?
Binds to 50S subunit
29
Reversible bone marrow suppression can occur in cats with chloramphenicol within how many weeks of administration?
Two
30
Mechanism of action of macrolides and lincosamides?
Binds to 50s subunit
31
What is special about azithromycin compared to other macrolides?
Contains a nitrogen and thus is extensively concentrated within cells and retained in tissue for long periods of time (half-life 30h in dog, 35h in cat)
32
Which two oral drugs can cause esophagitis in cats?
Oral doxycycline and clindamycin. In doxycycline it's due to the hyclate salt, not due to the doxycycline itself
33
Erythromycin is secreted in highest concentrations where?
Bile (undergoes enterohepatic recirculation and excreted in feces)
34
Mechanism of action of linezolid?
Binds to 50S ribosome but prevents formation of initiation complex (unlike other 50s protein synthesis inhibitors, which interfere with polyppetide extension)
35
Mechanism of action of tetracyclines?
Bind to 30S subunit
36
How are doxycycline and minocycline anti-inflammatory?
Inhibit nitric oxide synthase and proinflammatory cytokines (like TNF-a)
37
Difference of minocycline from tetracycline?
Minocycline is more lipophilic and better absorbed orally. Dosed similarly.
38
Can doxycycline be used in puppies and kittens?
Yes - binds Ca less avidly than other tetracyclines (use of doxy in human pediatrics is accepted per Sykes). Other tetracyclines should not be administered as they can interfere with bone growth.
39
Mechanism of action of azoles?
Inhibit sterol 14a-demethylase (so ergosterol cannot be formed, which is important part of fungal cell membrane)- cytochrome p450 enzyme (which is why adverse effects/drug interactions happen)
40
What are other uses for ketoconazole besides antifungal treatment?
Potent inhibitor of p450 and has been used to allow reduction of dose of cyclosporine; inhibits testosterone and cortisol synthesis and has been used for pituitary dependent HAC. Caution of this with ivermectin.
41
Drug of choice for dermatophytosis in cats
Itraconazole (accumulates in skin and claws)
42
Side effects of itraconazole
Vomiting, anorexia (first two are most common); hepatotoxicity, ulcerative dermatitis
43
Fluconazole is azole of choice for penetration into which regions?
meningeal and urinary tract fungal infections (more water-soluble than other azoles
44
Fluconazole is primarily excreted through which organ?
Renal (dose decrease needed in renal failure, esp if patient is using other p450-dependent drugs)
45
Mechanism of action of amphotericin
irreversibly binds sterols and forms pores in membrane; also enhances macrophages and enhances macrophage killing capacity
46
5-flucytosine is used for what fungal diseases?
Cryptococcus and Candida; resistance happens quickly so generally given with another agent (like ampho)
47
5-flucytosine should not be given to dogs or cats?
dogs - they will develop severe but reversible drug eruption within 2-3 weeks of treatment
48
Mechanism of action of terbinafine
inhibits fungal squalense epoxidase - blocks fungal ergosterole synthesis and results in accumulation of toxic squalene
49
Mechanism of action of echinocandin
Inhibit formation of beta 1,3 d glucan in fungal cell wall
50
Caspofungin should not be used for treatment of what fungus?
Cryptococcus (do not possess glucan synthase)
51
Caspofungin is fungicidal against which common fungi?
Aspergillus, Candida
52
Mechanism of action of atovaquone? What protozoa is it used for?
inhibits electron transport and targets cytochrome bc1 complex; used for Babesia and cytauxzoon (with azithromycin)
53
Decoquinate is generally used for which protozoa?
Hepatozoon americanum, sarcocystis
54
Mechanism of action of imidocarb? What is it used for?
Inhibit DNA synthesis. Used mainly for large Babesia and Hepatozoon canis, can also be used for monocytic ehrlichiosis and feline cytauxzoon
55
Toltrazuril/ponazuril are used for which protozoal diseases?
Toxoplasma, neospora; toltrazuril also for Hepatozoon (canis)
56
Meglumine antimoniate is mainly used to treat which disease? What is it used with?
Leishmaniasis. Used with allopurinol.
57
Disinfectant classes that do NOT get nonenveloped viruses?
Alcohol, chlorhexidine, QUATs (these also don't get bacterial spores)
58
Three most common causes for pericardial effusion in cats?
Cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, FIP
59
Which neoplasia is most commonly reported with FIV?
B cell lymphoma
60
Which immune cell is most commonly infected by FIV?
CD4 T cell
61
A positive FIV test is consistent with infection unless
There is history of vaccination or cat is <6 mo
62
What retroviral drug can be used in FIV cats with stomatitis or neurologic disease? What hematological sign would indicate discontinuation?
Zidovudine; monitor weekly CBC for1 mo and monthly thereafter for HCT < 20% (but a recent study found this wasn’t very effective)
63
Vaccination policy for FIV + cats?
Inactivated vaccines; only for FIV + cats likely to be exposed to other cats (as vax with core vaccines may activate viral transcription)
64
FeLV-associated lymphomas are of what cell origin?
T cell (unlike FIV which is B)
65
A healthy cat testing positive on FeLV test should have results confirmed how?
Couple of options:
- Perform another ELISA from different manufacture (but see below)
- Retest in 6 mo (as cats that have single positive result may have regressive infection and may clear FeLV)
- Perform IFA assay on blood smears (if positive > almost always progressive infection)
- Evaluate CBC
66
Development of anemia in FeLV cats implies infection of which FeLV subtype?
FeLV-C
67
A feline patient with facial edema, fever, lingual and footpad ulceration, abdominal pain, and petechia should have concern for what viral disease
feline calicivirus (virulent systemic disease)
68
E canis can't be differentiated from what other ehrlichia? E. ewingii morulae have to be differentiated from what other diease?
E canis can't be differentated from E chaffeensis (monocytes); E ewingii can't be differentiated from Anaplasma phagocytophilum (granulocytes)
69
English Springer Spaniels with PFK deficiency may have more severe forms of what rickettsial disease?
RMSF; activation of PFK may be important in maintaining vascular integrity and energy metabolism in endothelial cells under stress
70
Best diagnostic tool for Neorickettsial helminthoaeca?
Fecal sedimentation combined with flotation to confirm eggs
71
Enterococcus are resistant to what antibiotic even if they appear susceptibility in vitro?
TMS -they are able to use exogenously produced folate (most labs do not report TMS with Enterococcus)
72
Dogs with concurrent endocarditis and polyarthritis are more likely to be infected from which organism?
Streptococcus
73
Which Mycoplasma species is most associated with anemia in cats?
Mycoplasma haemofelis (not Ca. M. haemominutum or Ca. M. turicensis)
74
Single or multiple firm cutaneous nodules with associated lymphadenomegaly in cats is the most common PE finding in what infectious disease?
Mycobacterium bovis or microti
75
Triple antibiotic therapy for mycobacterium (MTuberculosisComplex) in cats includes
Combinations of FQ, doxy, rifampin, or macrolide (clarithromycin/azithromycin)
76
Combination drug therapy for human mycobacterium (MTuberculosisC) infections includes
Rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, isoniazid
77
The inclusion of what antibiotic is included important for treatment of mycobacterium avium complex?
Macrolide (clarithromycin)
78
The majority of cutaneous mycobacterial disease in cats are from rapid growing or slow growing mycobacterium? What is the combination of antibiotics used for treatment?
Rapidly growing (generally in inguinal fat pad); tx options include doxy/aminoglycoside/+/-FQ.
79
A single high IgG for T gondii is consistent with active infection. T/F?
False (some cats can have as high as 1:10k 6y after induction)
80
Neospora has a predilection for which site in the canine brain?
Cerebellum
81
What type of immunologic conditions can dogs with leishmaniosis develop?
IMPA, glomerulonephritis, myositis, uveitis, vasculitis (immune complexes); 50% are positive on ANA and have positive Coombs
82
Treatment options for Babesia canis?
- Imidocarb
- Diminiazene aceturate
- Azithromycin + atovaquone
- Clinda +doxy + metro
83
Most effective treatment for Babesia gibsoni + Babesia conradae?
Atovaquone + azithromycin for 10d
84
Boney lesions are more commonly seen with which Hepatozoon disease and present on proximal or distal bones?
H americanum; proximal
85
What drug is required to prevent relapse in Hepatozoon americanum infections?
Decoquinate - arrests development of merozoites after release from meronts (recommend 2 years of daily treatments! OR until PCR is negative)
86
Triple therapy for H americanum is
Pyrimethamine, TMS, clindamycin
87
How can you rule out Giardia infection from a previously infected animal?
Three negative centrifugal flotation assays run within 5 days
88
Resolution of diarrhea from cryptosporidium is confirmed by a negative test result. T/F?
False - resolution of clinical signs. It is difficult to acquire true negative and dogs/cats can return to normal without having a negative result
89
Emphysematous cholecystitis is usually associated with what bacteria in dogs and cats?
Clostridium spp and/or E coli
90
What kinds of dogs are considered high risk for Babesic canis vogeli?
Greyhounds; dogs with exposure to Rhipicephalus tick
91
Hallmark of tick-borne relapsing fever?
High numbers of spirochetes on blood smear (Borrelia - treat with doxycycline) - JVIM 2016
92
Survivors of Babesia canis all had what in common? Nonsurvivors had what in common?
Normal leukocyte count. Nonsurvivors - hyperlactemia and leukopenia (JVIM 2016)
93
Process by which tritrichomonas invades epithelium?
Alters microenvironment > interaction with mucus and surface glycoconjugates > amoeboid transformation and adhesion and promotes permeability of tight cell junction > secretions induce cytotoxicity > invasion > induce inflammation and evade immune system (JVIM review 2016)
94
Most sensitive method to detect Bordetella bronchiseptica in BAL?
qPCR (JVIM 2016)
95
What percent of dogs with Coccidioides had ICGN?
54% - JVIM 2016
96
Sinoorbital aspergillus in cats is most often caused by which aspergillus species?
Aspergillus felis
97
WITNESS (Zoetis) testing identifies what Ig more sensitively than SNAP Lepto (IDEXX)?
IgM. In JVIM 2018 study it also detected things sooner than MAT testing but study was funded by Zoetis
98
What pattern of hepatitis does leptospirosis cause?
Chronic granulomatous hepatitis (JVIM 2019)
99
What marker of endothelial activation may be able to identify dogs at risk for pulmonary hemorrhagic syndrome in dogs with lepto?
sICAM-1 (also higher in non-survivors); VEGF was also higher in non-survivors (JVIM 2021)
100
Leptospirosis was not found to have an association with feline CKD based on MAT testing. T/F?
True (JFMS 2016)
101
Recommendation for treatment of leptospirosis in cats?
IV ampicillin; doxycycline for 6 weeks, then rtPCR on urine to rule out carrier state (JFMS 2020)
102
Dogs seropositive for Bartonella are most likely to be also be positive for which other disease?
Ehrlichia sp (then Borrelia, then Anaplasma) - JVIM 2018)
103
Bartonella rochalimae is associated with what disease process in dogs?
Infective endocarditis (JVIM 2020)
104
Seropositivity for Borrelia is more common in what breed in Europe?
Bernese Mountain Dog (JVIM 2018 consensus)
105
Compounded atovaquone is effective for treatment of Babesia gibsoni. T/F?
True (JVIM 2017)
106
The iiPCR for dogs is extremely specific for Babesia Gibsoni. T/F?
True - 99% specificity (90% sensitivity) for gibsoni. JVIM 2018
107
Coyote hunting dogs are more at risk for testing positive for which two pathogens?
Babesia conradae (55%) and Mycoplasma haemocanis or Mycoplasma haematoparvum (60-65%) - JVIM 2018
108
What was prevalence of atovaquone resistant Babesia gibsoni in a JVIM 2018 study?
3.5% (not warranted to genotype before treating). Mutation was in cytochrome b (m128 position) (JVIM 2018)
109
What other Babesia species besides gibsoni may also be transmitted via dog fighting and is found more commonly in Pitties?
Babesia vulpes (JVIM 2019)
110
Unlike humans and rodents, ApoA-1 (which is main apoprotein of HDL) increases or decreases with Babesia canis infection?
Increases (JVIM 2019)
111
Cribiform lysis is considered a contraindication to topical therapy for sinonasal aspergillosis. T/F?
False - according to JVIM 2018 topical therapy did not result in complications in lytic lesions as large as 16x22mm!
112
What is the median amount of debridement/clotrimazole treatments needed for cure (endoscopy, fungal culture, and histopath) for sinonasal aspergillosis?
2 (JVIM 2018)
113
Alternative treatment to topical treatment for sinonasal asperigllosis?
Surgical debridement + voriconazole (JAVMA 2019)
114
Signs of voriconazole toxicity?
Neurologic signs and liver enzyme elevation (JAVMA 2019)
115
What are odds of resolving mycotic rhinosinusitis on first treatment with topical debridement and clotrimazole cream?
68% (overall success rate with more treatments was 94%)
Oral itraconazole or trephination did not influence number of treatments
116
Long-term administration of zidovudine (nucleoside transciptase reversen inhibitor) aka zidovudine is effective for FIV cats.
False (JFMS 2016)
117
Retesting for FeLV/FIV if you are concerned for exposure should be done in __ days for FeLV and _ days for FIV
30, 60 (JFMS 2020)
118
A FIV positive cat on antibody testing should have what follow up confirmatory test?
FIV PCR , Western blot, or POC test from another manufacturer (JFMS 2020)
119
Cats with clinical suspicion of FeLV that tests positive for p27 antigen is likely to be progressively infected. T/F?
True (JFMS 2020)
120
A cat with concern for FeLV that tests negative on p27 antigen should have what follow-up testing?
Test for proviral DNA (at same visit) - JFMS 2020
121
Significance for positive result on proviral PCR for FeLV?
Indicates progressive or regressive infection. Indicates provirus is integrated into genome.
122
Risk factors for testing positive for FeLV/FIV?
Age, outdoor access, clinical disease, sexually intact male (JAVMA 2017)
13.9% of sick cats were seropositive for one or both compared to 3.6% of healthy cats
123
What hemogram finding on a CBC can be consistent with FIP if clinical signs are consistent?
Microcytosis with no anemia (JFMS 2016)
124
What is specificity of RT PCR for feline coronavirus on CSF? What is sensitivity in a cat with neurologic signs?
100% according to this study. With neuro signs, sensitivity is 85% (JFMS 2016)
125
If an FIP possible cat has no effusion, is RT-PCR on peripheral blood mononuclear cells or serum better?
Peripheral blood mononuclear cells - sens of 28% vs 15% in serum. In effusion- sens was 89%. Specificity was 100% in all samples (JFMS 2017)
126
Is a positive finding on immunocytochemical staining of FCoV antigen on macrophages in CSF diagnostic for FCoV? How about on effusion?
No - specificity of this test (83%) not good enough alone - need additional testing and features. (JFMS 2017) Also not diagnostic in effusion (even worse specificity) - JFMS 2017 | however this is confusing because JFMS 2018 review says that positive finding is diagnostic for FCoV if it is accompanied by compatible cytological or histo signs so...`
127
Elevated a1-acid glycoprotein in peritoneal effusion is diagnostic for FIP. T/F?
False - some septic processes and disseminated neoplasias also had high levels (JFMS 2017)
128
Presence of what amino acid substitution in FCoV spike protein may be consistent with FIP?
Substitution 1058L (JFMS 2019). Targeted with RT-PCR
129
What two findings were noted on ROTEMs of dogs infected with French heartworm (angiostrongylus vasorum)?
Hyperfibrinolysis and hypofibrinogenemia. (JVIM 2017)
130
The two predominant hospital acquired isolates in a Switzerland study were:
ESBL E coli and beta-lactamase producing Klebsiella pneumoniae (JVIM 2021)
131
What two factors were associated with developing opportunistic cutaneous invasive fungal infection?
Male dogs, cyclosporine (JVIM 2017)
132
Dogs with Ramsamsonia argillacae can test positive for what other fungus and what test?
Aspergillus galactomannan antigen EIA (JVIM 2021)
133
What body system was the most commonly involved in dogs with Ramsamsonia?
Discospondylitis (6/8 dogs) - JVIM 2021
134
Dogs with blastomycosis had a lower or higher vitamin D and lower or higher ionized calcium than normal dogs?
Lower Vitamin D, higher serum Ca (also lower PTH) - JVIM 2018
135
All dogs with blastomyces antigen concentration in urine under what value was alive at time of follow up?
5.0
Basically lower the antigen concentration, the less severe pulmonary radiographic findings and it seems a better outcome (JVIM 2021)
136
What was associated with a decreased survival in dogs with pulmonary blastomycosis?
Supplemental O2. (But no difference in dogs that received NSAID, steroids, both, or those that didn't receive any) - JVECC 2017
137
The IMMY EIA test for Histoplasma can have a false negative with in disease localized to what organ in dogs?
GI (dogs) - the Mira Vista EIA was better. (JVIM 2021)
138
EIA testing for Histoplasma can lead to false negatives in disease in which body system in cats?
Ocular (JFMS 2017) and bones/joints (JFMS)
139
What three clinpath variables were more commonly associated with decreased survival to ANY time point in cats with histoplasmosis?
Fungemia, hyperbilirubinemia and lymphopenia (other signs included respiratory disease, neurologic disease, severe anemia, higher CK). Cats with severe resp dz less likely to survive to hospital discharge - JFMS 2018
140
Histoplasma EIA antigen is predictive of outcome in cats. T/F?
False. Also EIA was lower in cats with renal compromise! JFMS 2018
141
Working and herding breed dogs more commonly get disseminated histoplasmosis while toy breeds have GI form. T/F?
True JAVMA 2018
142
Which breed was associated with a negative prognostic indicator with histoplasmosis?
Great Pyrenees JAVMA 2018
143
The IMMY lateral flow assay (point of care assay)for Coccioidies can be false negative with low AGID but has excellent correlation with positive results. T/F?
True (JVIM 2021)
144
The majority of dogs tested Leishmania cases detected in the US were from non-foxhounds. T/F?
True (JVIM 2021)
145
What % of cats diagnosed with coccidioides presented with disseminated infection? What body system was the most common area of dissemination?
31/50 (around 60%); 22/51 (around 40%) had skin involvement (JFMS 2020)
146
Different ways Leishmaniosis can present in cats?
Asymptomatic, cutaneous (papule and nodules if dry; crust and ulcers if exudative), visceral, ocular. Generally if visceral it is also cutaneous though this is not always the rule. Lymphadenomegaly usually noted. Immunosuppression was noted in 56% of cats. (JFMS 2016, 2020)
147
What % of dogs with abnormalities consistent with immune-mediated disease had evidence of exposure or infection with vector born pathogen in Southern California? Which two species were most common?
33%; Ehrlichia and Babesia (JVIM 2017)
148
Differences in treatment for E canis with doxy vs minocycline?
All dogs were treated successfully but minocycline may take longer for negative test (latest time for doxy was 3 weeks, latest time for mino was 4 weeks; all dogs tested neg 7d after finishing 28 d treatment) - JVIM 2018
149
Intracranial coccidioimycosis generally have positive prognosis, with 82% of dogs alive 1 year after diagnosis. T/F?
True JVIM 2021
150
Dogs with coonhound paralysis were 9.4x times more likely to be positive for what enteropathogen than normal dogs? Consumption of what was this associated with?
Campylobacter; raw chicken (JVIM 2018)
151
What was the most frequently isolated bacterium associated with IV catheter complications?
Acinetobacter (20%) - JVIM 2018
Also associated with students and junior staff placing IVC...
152
Tracheal stent placement does not increase the frequency of pathogenic bacterial infections in dogs. T/F?
True - JVIM 2020
153
Prevalence of T. cruzi in shelter dogs in Texas?
18% (comparable to heartworm at 16%) - JVIM 2019
154
What was associated with shorter survival time in dogs with T.cruzi?
R ventricular enlargement (JVIM 2021)
155
What are most frequent cardiac abnormalities associated with Chagas?
Ventricular arrhythmias, AV blocks, myocarditis (JVIM 2019, 2021)
156
Administration of what combination of medications resulted in a longer MST and generally PCR negative status in dogs with Chagas?
Amiodarone and itraconazole
157
In-clinic immunoassays for Giardia have similar sensitivities when combined with other diagnostic test?
Zn sulfate flotation (JVIM 2019)
158
What medication regimen successfully treated colonic pythiosis in 3 dogs?
Itraconazole, terbinafine, anti-inflammatory prednisone (JVIM 2019)
159
Among acute phase proteins, cholesterol, and total thyroxine - what value on intake was associated with decreased survival in cats with panleukopenia virus?
Low serum total thyroxine (JVIM 2020)
160
Administration of what medications in shelter cats with panleukopenia virus infection was associated with survival?
Clavamox, maropitant, anti-parasitics (NOT interferon)
161
What % of tritrichomonas cats still had a positive PCR test result following treatment with ronidazole?
Around 20% (JVIM 2020)
162
M128 mutation can impart resistance to atovaquone in which vector-born diseases?
Babesia gibsoni (JVIM 2018) and cytauxzoon (JVIM 2020)
163
Fipronil can take up to how long to kill ticks?
48h. (Which means not good choice for vector borne diseases that can be transmitted shorter than that - like cytauxzoon in Amblyomma)
164
What was the prevalence of vector-borne pathogen exposure in a group of proteinuric dogs? What were most common pathogens?
1/3; Rickettsia, Ehrlichia, Borrelia burgdorferi (JVIM 2020)
165
What breed seemed to do more poorly (have signs of systemic illness) than other breeds with Cuterebra infection?
Yorkshire terrier (JAVMA 2017) - small breed dogs do more poorly - all dogs that died were < 4.5kg
166
Compare spectrum of meropenem to imipenem.
Meropenem gets more gram negative. (JFMS 2016)
167
What % of dogs had enlarged lymph nodes in tularemia infection? What% were positive on initial titers?
20%; only 5% were positive initially > need convalescent (4x) titer increase. JAVMA 2020. Dogs are less likely than cats to become ill. All dogs survived.
168
Mycobacterium avium species in cats were commonly resistant to which classes of antibiotics?
FQs and aminoglycosides
169
Most common thoracic radiographic sign of Rhodoccoccus equi infection in cats?
Pleural effusion (JFMS 2020)
170
Feline papillomaviruses can be associated with what type of tumors in what body system?
Skin tumors (SCCs) - JFMS 2018/2019
171
Most common sign associated with Heterobilharzia infection on ultrasound?
Pinpoint hyperechoic foci were noted in intestines, liver, or mesenteric lymph nodes during transabdominal ultrasonography - 2/3 of dogs (JVIM 2021)
172
Dogs with H3N2 influenza should be isolated for how long from onset of illness?
21 days (JAVMA 2016)
173
Modified live vaccinations can cause false positives on respiratory PCR on dogs for up to 28 days after vaccination. T/F?
True. Highest 3-10 days after. JVIM 2016
174
Prevalence of which virus was higher in cats with chronic gingivostomatitis?
Calicivirus (JFMS 2019)
175
Tests directed towards internal cytoplasmic protein antigens for Brucella canis are considered highly specific. T/F?
True. Test directed towards cell-wall lipopolysaccharide antigen are NOT specific (this includes ELISAs, AGID, tube agglutination, 2ME-RSAT)
176
What is most common lungworm in cats and what are some treatment options?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus; fenbendazole, moxidectin, emodepiside, +/- milbemycin (JFMS 2017)
177
Most effective fecal test for identifying Platynosomum fastosum (liver fluke) in cats?
double centrifugation with Sheather's sugar flotation solution (compared to two other tests) - JFMS 2020
178
Presence of anti-Osp A antibodies is consistent with recent natural infection. T/F?
False - OspC is (becomes undetectable 3 mo after infection)
179
What component does the ELISA in the 4Dx for Borreliosis detect?
C6
180
Antibiotic regimen for Bartonella endocarditis cats?
High dose doxy, clavamox, FQ, azithromycin (sykes)
181
Antibiotic regimen for Bartonella endocarditis dogs?
High dose doxy (+/- rifampin); azithromycin; FQ +/- amoxicillin(sykes)
182
RSAT testing for Brucellosis can be falsely negative in dogs if the infection is where?
Discospondylitis
183
When does seroconverstion for Brucella occur after infection?
2-12 weeks
184
Recommended treatment for Brucella canis?
Combination dosage recommended: High dose doxy alongside with either aminoglycoside or rifampin or enro
185
Treatment for tetanus?
+/- tetanus immune globulin (equine or human)
Metronidazole or pen G (metronidazole is preferred due to penetration and since pen G can also antagonize GABA receptors)
Wound debridement/flush
186
Other differentials for botulism? How to differentiate?
Polyradiculoneuritis, myasthenia gravis
EMG will be abnormal in polyradiculoneuritis (normal/subnormal in botulism)
Reflexes should be normal in myasthenia gravis
187
Antibiotics indicated for Yersinia pestis?
Aminoglycosides or tetracycline
Chloramphenicol and TMS also have activity
188
Differentiation of clinical signs in plague vs tularemia in cats?
Plague - high fever and big lymph nodes
Tularemia - big lymph nodes, icterus
Note: but signs are still very variable!
189
What is significance of BAD-1 in blastomycosis?
Adhesin that binds to hots cell receptors on macrophages and may contribute to yeasts' ability to evade host immune response
190
General difference between infections with cryptococcus neoformans vs gatti
Neoformans - generally dogs; more systemic/disseminated; neurologic involvement common in dogs from California
Gatti - generally cats; more pulmonary/nasal
191
The most common radiographic finding in dogs with pulmonary coccidiomycosis is
Hilar lymphadenopathy
192
Histopathology is not considered a sensitive test to diagnose sporothrix in dogs. T/F?
True (at least in terms of skin biopsies) - Sykes
193
Which test is insensitive for localized aspergillosis in dogs but sensitive if disseminated?
Galactomannan antigen assay (ELISA)
194
Approximately what percent of dogs with disseminated aspergillosis have positive urine cultures for Aspergillus?
50% (Sykes)
195
Causes for false positives in aspergillosis galactomannan?
Other fungal diseases (crypto), neoplasia, recent Plasmalyte fluid therapy (sodium gluconate in Plasmalyte can carry over small amounts galactomannan during production of fermentation product), any treatment with penicillin drug or penicillin derivative
196
Aspergillus species are intrinsically resistant to which antifungal drug?
Fluconazole
197
Enlarged regional lymph nodes in cutaneous pythiosis are generally infected, while the opposite is true with gastrointestinal pythiosis. True or false?
True. But you should still get biopsies of affected lymph nodes intra-op if you see enlarged ones
198
Unlike pythium and langenidium, Zygomycosis generally is transmitted how?
Inhalation/ingestion/cutaneous exposure to organisms in soil or decaying organic matter
The others are generally from exposure to standing freshwater
199
Other breed involved with Pneumocystis infection besides Miniature Dachshund?
Cavie
200
Gradual weight loss and progressive respiratory difficulty in a young Miniature dachshund is consistent with what disease?
Pneumocystis
201
Negative CD3 staining and positive CD79a staining would be consistent with which lymphocyte? Immunodeficiency lacking this cell is found in some dogs infected with what fungal disease?
B cell. Some Pneumocystis infected dogs have this pattern of immunodeficiency
