Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

bds3 osce prep > PAST PAPER STATIONS > Flashcards

PAST PAPER STATIONS Flashcards

1
Q

What are the criteria for good bitewing radiographs?

A
  • show buccal teeth from MESIAL OF FIRST PREMOLAR to DISTAL OF LAST TOOTH (upper and lower equally)
  • MUST be able to see enamel dentine junction
  • no overlap of teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the criteria for good periapical radiographs?

A
  • FULL LENGTH of (at least) one tooth
  • surrounding anatomical features (e.g apex, bone, sinus, nerve canals)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Patient attends with NUG, what do you prescribe and what instructions do you give?

A

Prescribe = 1x 400mg Metronidazole, 3 times a day, for 3 days AND 0.2% Chlorhexidine mouthrinse
- finish course
- unsuitable for pregnant patients and warfarin patients
- avoid alcohol

Instructions = clean teeth as normal, be careful around punched out papillae, rince twice a day with 10ml of 0.2% Chlorhexidine do this at a separate time from brushing as toothpaste will make it not work, use 1450ppm toothpaste 2x per day, interdental cleaning if possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mini-sickle? What is it used for?

A

Double-ended point scaler with 2 cutting edges on each blade
- buccal and lingual embrasure areas anywhere in mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the columbia universal curette? What is it used for?

A

A curved, spoon shaped blade with 2 cutting edges. Cutting edges meet to form a rounded toe.
- supra and subgingival scaling anywhere in mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the red hoe scaler? What is it used for?

A

Blade set at 100º angle to shank & cutting edge bevelled at 45º.
- used on mesial and distal surfaces subgingivally with cutting angle of 90º to tooth surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the yellow hoe scaler? What is it used for?

A

Blade set at 100º angle to shank & cutting edge bevelled at 45º.
- used on buccal and lingual surfaces subgingivally with cutting angle of 90º to tooth surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many cutting edges do gracey curettes have?

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe gracey curettes:

A
  • One cutting edge
  • Angle of 110º between lower shank & face of the blade
  • Cutting angle of 70º
  • Blade curves in 2 planes
  • Double ended & mirror image pairs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the grey Gracey Curette used to scale?

A

Anterior teeth (upper and lower)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the green Gracey Curette used to scale?

A

Buccal and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the orange Gracey Curette used to scale?

A

Mesial surfaces of posterior teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the blue Gracey Curette used to scale?

A

distal surfaces of posterior teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What colour is the 1-2 Gracey Curette?

A

grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What colour is the 7-8 Gracey Curette?

A

green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What colour is the 11-12 Gracey Curette?

A

orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What colour is the 13-14 Gracey Curette?

A

blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is charted in complete 6PPC?

A
  • gingival margin
  • pocket depth
  • loss of attachment
  • BOP
  • mobility
  • furcations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A score of Code 2 is given in the modified plaque score when:

A

There are visible plaque deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which are Ramfjords teeth?

A

16, 21, 24, 36, 41, 44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When scaling labial and lingual surfaces of teeth 43-33, where does the operator sit?

A

7 o’clock position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When scaling buccal surfaces of teeth 44-48, where does the operator sit?

A

9 o’clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When scaling lingual surfaces of teeth 34-38, where does the operator sit?

A

9 o’clock position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When scaling buccal surfaces of teeth 14-18, where does the operator sit?

A

9 o’clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When scaling lingual surfaces of teeth 44-48, where does the operator sit?

A

11 o’clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When scaling buccal surfaces of teeth 34-38, where does the operator sit?

A

11 o’clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When scaling labial palatal surfaces of teeth 13-23, where does the operator sit?

A

11 o’clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When scaling palatal surfaces of teeth 14-18, where does the operator sit?

A

11 o’clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When scaling buccal and palatal surfaces of teeth 24-28, where does the operator sit?

A

11 o’clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the periodontal grade based on? what are the options?

A

% bone loss DIVIDED BY patients age

<0.5 = Grade A (slow rate of progression)
0.5-1.0 = Grade B (moderate rate of progression)
>1.0 = Grade C (rapid rate of progression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the periodontal stage based on? what are the options?

A

Amount of interproximal bone loss (at worst site)

<15% = Stage I
Coronal Third = Stage II
Mid Third = Stage III
Apical Third = Stage IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does staging show in periodontal diagnoses?

A

The severity of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does grading show in periodontal diagnoses?

A

Speed of progression of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is stability of disease in periodontal diagnoses assessed by?

A

Presence of inflammation (BOP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What blood test would you take if you suspected your patient had anaemia?

A

Full blood count
- look at mean cell volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What mean cell volume result would suggest patient had microcytic anaemia?

A

<80fl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What mean cell volume result would suggest patient had normocytic anaemia?

A

80-100fl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What mean cell volume result would suggest patient had macrocytic anaemia?

A

> 100fl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some causes of microcytic anaemia?

A
  • iron deficiency
  • alpha/beta thalaessemia
  • chronic inflammatory disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A
  • vitamin B12 deficiency (pernicious anaemia)
  • folate deficiency
  • hypothyroidism
  • alcohol abuse
  • pregnancy
  • drug induced (methotrexate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are some causes of normocytic anaemia?

A
  • blood loss/bleeding
  • haemolytic anaemia
  • bone marrow disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why can bone marrow disorders lead to anaemia?

A

Bone marrow unable to produce RBCs that package haemoglobin

43
Q

Why can chronic kidney disease lead to anaemia?

A

Reduced erythropoietin levels (produced in kidney)

44
Q

Why can hypothyroidism lead to anaemia?

A

Thyroid hormones facilitate erythropoesis

45
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

Anaemia caused by Vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor

46
Q

What blood tests should be taken in a patient with suspected haemolytic anaemia and what results would be seen?

A
  • LDH (elevated)
  • Reticulocyte ( elevated)
  • Biliruben (elevated)
  • Haptoglobin (low)
47
Q

What are the signs of anaemia?

A
  • pallor
  • tachycardia
  • scleral icterus (jaundice eyes)
  • enlarged liver & spleen
48
Q

What are some symptoms of anaemia?

A
  • tired & weak
  • dizzy
  • shortness of breath
  • palpitations
49
Q

Why do we mark the high smile line on record blocks?

A

Gives an idea of how much tooth will show when smiling

50
Q

Why do we mark the centre line on record block?

A

To ensure midline of teeth matches up with patients face midline

51
Q

What does the canine line on record blocks dictate?

A

The size of tooth to use

52
Q

What does INR stand for?

A

International Normalised Ratio

53
Q

Patient presents with excessively dry mouth, how would you test for Sjögren’s syndrome?

A
  • also dry eyes?
  • blood test to check for Anti-La antibody (Anti-Ro & ANA also)
  • biopsy/imaging of salivary gland
54
Q

What areas may need to be relieved on an upper denture?

A

Incisive papilla and palatine torus

55
Q

What is the lingual pouch used for in lower dentures?

A

Retention

56
Q

What emergency drugs are used in dental practises for medical emergencies?

A

Oxygen = 15L/min for everything

Adrenaline = 1:1000 0.5mg IM injection

GTN spray = 400 micrograms, 2 puffs under tongue

Aspirin = 300mg chewed

Salbutamol = 2x 100microgram actuations to anyone with a wheeze hold for 10s. In severe asthma patients give up to 10 actuations via spacer device let them breathe for 20s

Glucose = fast acting gel

Glucagon = 1mg IM injection

Midazolam = 10mg via buccal mucosa when prolonged seizures

57
Q

Give the name of a polyether impression material & give some uses:

A

Impregum
- situations where high accuracy is needed
- crowns, bridges, implants

58
Q

Give the name of a irreversible hydrocolloid impression material & give some properties:

A

Alginate
- primary impressions
- diagnostic casts
- study models

59
Q

Give the name of a reversible hydrocolloid impression material & give some properties:

A

Agar
- high accurate scenarios
- implant restorations, complex restorative cases, orthodontic studies

60
Q

Give the name of a addition silicone impression material & give some properties:

A

Polyvinyl siloxane
- crown, bridges and implants
- cases with deep subgingival margins

61
Q

Give the name of a non-elastic impression material & give some properties:

A

Impression compound
- dentures
- temporary crowns and bridges
- special trays

62
Q

What pieces of equipment are use in paediatrics to achieve moisture control?

A
  • dental dam
  • cotton wool rolls
  • parotid shield/dry guard
  • tongue retractor
  • aspirator
  • saliva ejector
63
Q

At what age to permanent lower central incisors erupt (approx.)?

A

6 years old

64
Q

At what age to permanent lower first molars erupt (approx.)?

A

6 years old

65
Q

At what age to permanent upper central incisors erupt (approx.)?

A

7 years old

66
Q

At what age to permanent lower lateral incisors erupt (approx.)?

A

7 years old

67
Q

At what age to permanent upper lateral incisors erupt (approx.)?

A

8 years old

68
Q

At what age to permanent lower canines erupt (approx.)?

A

9 years old

69
Q

At what age to permanent upper & lower first premolars erupt (approx.)?

A

10 years old

70
Q

At what age to permanent upper second premolars erupt (approx.)?

A

10.5 years old

71
Q

At what age to permanent upper canines erupt (approx.)?

A

11 years old

72
Q

At what age to permanent lower second premolars erupt (approx.)?

A

11 years old

73
Q

At what age to permanent lower second molars erupt (approx.)?

A

11 years old

74
Q

At what age to permanent upper second molars erupt (approx.)?

A

12 years old

75
Q

At what age to permanent upper and lower third molars erupt (approx.)?

A

17 years old

76
Q

What does SOCRATES stand for?

A
  • Site
  • Onset
  • Character
  • Radiation
  • Associated factors
  • Time course
  • Exacerbate/relieving factors
  • Severity
77
Q

What should be checked during the extra-oral exam?

A
  • Symmetry
  • TMJ = clicking, deviation on opening, locking
  • Lymph nodes = any swelling/hardness/tenderness
  • MOM = any tenderness etc.
78
Q

What should be checked during an intra-oral exam?

A
  • Buccal mucosa
  • Labial mucosa
  • Tongue surfaces
  • Palate (hard & soft)
  • Floor of mouth
  • Gingiva
79
Q

What is angina?

A

Chest pain due to ischemia (lack of blood flow; lack of oxygen) of the heart muscle
- characterise by restrosternal chest pain or discomfort (tightness/heaviness) that may radiate

80
Q

What is stable angina vs unstable angina?

A

Stable = chest pain or discomfort that occurs during activity or stress and is relieved by rest

Unstable = lack of blood flow and oxygen that occurs at rest and may lead to a heart attack. Refer to GMP or ambulance if worsening

81
Q

What do you do if your patient is experiencing angina?

A
  • stop treatment & sit upright
  • oxygen 15L/min via breathing mask
  • GTN spray
  • Aspirin 300mg chewed
82
Q

What drugs does warfarin interact with ?

A
  • Metronidazole
  • NSAIDs (ibuprofen/aspirin)
  • Carbamazepine inhibits warfarin
83
Q

What complications will a patient with Sjögren’s syndrome suffer with?

A
  • dry mouth
  • burning mouth
  • caries
  • difficulty with denture retention
  • difficulty with speech and swallowing
  • increased risk of oral infection
  • long-term risk of salivary lymphoma
84
Q

What occurs during the “ask” portion of the 5 As?

A
  • do you smoke?
  • how many per day?
  • when first cigarette in day?
  • why do you smoke?
85
Q

What occurs during the “advise” portion of the 5 As?

A
  • Are you aware of the health benefits of quitting?
  • Quitting is the single most effective way to improve health status
  • Past failure will increase chances this time round
  • Causes: lung cancer, heart disease, oral cancer, gum disease, stained teeth
86
Q

What occurs during the “assess” portion of the 5 As?

A
  • Have you ever considered quitting?
  • Would you like help?
87
Q

What occurs during the “assist” portion of the 5 As?

A
  • Negotiate a stop date
  • Review previous failed attempts and anticipate problems
  • Inform of nicotine replacement therapy/e-cigs
88
Q

What occurs during the “arrange” portion of the 5 As?

A
  • refer to services
  • monitor
  • support and encourage continued cessation at future appointments
89
Q

What are the 5 R’s associated with smoking cessation?

A
  • Relevant benefits
  • Risks
  • Rewards
  • Roadblocks
  • Repeat
90
Q

What is reversible pulpitis?

A
  • Mild inflammation to pulp caused by caries, exposed dentine, defective restoration
  • Tooth may respond more to cold & sweet (usually not warm)
  • Stimuli produces sharp pain (A delta) that resolves within 5-10 seconds after stimuli removed
  • Once inflammation is removed pulp returns to normal & symptoms subside
91
Q

What is irreversible pulpitis?

A
  • Can be symptomatic or asymptomatic
  • Dull aching pain that lasts minutes or hours (c fibres)
  • Worse at night or when lying down due to increase in intra pulpal pressure
  • Removal of causal factor does not lead to pulp regeneration
  • If left untreated will become necrotic (XLA or RCT)
92
Q

You are about to give LA to a patient, what are the steps of the procedure?

A
  • Open cartridge and check expiration date & batch number
  • Secure needle into handle & ensure click
  • Pull back safety sheathe to click once
  • Test LA to see if it works
  • Pull safety sheathe down until going to use
93
Q

Why are paper points used in endodontics?

A

To ensure canal is dry before medicating or obturating

94
Q

What is Ledermix?

A

Corticosteroid and antibiotic mixture that helps hot, infected pulps to reduce inflammation

95
Q

What are the constituents of Gutta Percha?

A
  • 20% gutta percha
  • 65% zinc oxide
  • 10% radiopacifiers
  • 5% plasticers
96
Q

What are the parts of caries risk assessment?

A
  • medical history
  • oral hygiene/plaque control
  • clinical evidence of caries
  • diet
  • fluoride use
  • saliva
  • social history
97
Q

How long is a splint placed in PRIMARY dento-alveolar fracture?

A

3-4 weeks

98
Q

How long is a splint placed in Subluxation?

A

2 weeks flexible

99
Q

How long is a splint placed in intrusive and extrusive luxation?

A

2 weeks flexible

100
Q

How long is a splint placed in avulsion?

A

2 weeks flexible

101
Q

How long is a splint placed in lateral luxation?

A

4 weeks flexible

102
Q

What are alkaline hypochlorites good for in denture cleaning?

A
  • effective dissolution of plaque
  • stain removal properties
  • bacterial and fungicidal properties
103
Q

What are some cons of using alkaline hypochlorites to clean dentures?

A
  • possible bleaching of acrylic resin
  • residual taste after use

bds3 osce prep (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions