Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BGSU > AERT 3820 FINAL > Flashcards

AERT 3820 FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

When planning for an operation, a simplistic approach to planning bids us to consider which of the following?
- how we should perform an activity, when we should do it, and who will do it
- the finances (cost and profit, if applicable)
- all of the above
- a forecast of the possible outcomes

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is not considered as one of the key planning principles of an airport operational plan?
- finances
- productivity
- efficiency
- public image

A

public image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Changes in aircraft operators’ schedule and their aircraft fleet significantly impact the operations planning at an airport especially the staff cost; airport operators often have to consider this aspect while planning for an operation. Which of these is not necessarily considered as cost driver for the staff cost at an airport?
- complex aircraft operators
- reliability objectives
- complex aircraft fleets
- seasonal variations

A

reliability objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Collaborative Decision Making (CDM) was created to aid bringing the aviation stakeholders together. Which of the following is not considered as one of the reasons for creating CDM?
- balancing the demand and capacity of passenger at airports
- stakeholders learning for each other to enhance valuable decision making
- minimizing the air traffic low at any time
- bringing different information perspectives of the stakeholders together

A

Minimizing the air traffic low at any time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of these is not considered as one of the essential rules of data sharing within the CDM effort?
- Data is considered proprietary and hence it should be handled appropriately
- The data provider has to approve the release of the information to other stakeholders
- Data can be manipulated accordingly to support the management of flight operations
- Those stakeholders who provide the data are the one who will be provided with the aggregate data from the FAA

A

Data can be manipulated accordingly to support the management of flight operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Within the aviation industry context of the US, there are three main groups of stakeholders in the collaborative decision making effort. Which of these is not one of them?
- FAA - Government/Air Traffic
- Airport Operators
- Operators
- Cargo Operators

A

Cargo Operators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is the key element that is shared among various stakeholders in a collaborative decision making?
- Customers
- Technical Facilities/Equipment
- Personnel
- Data/Information

A

Data / Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

in the airport collaborative decision making process, ____________ is considered as both the initiator and the facilitator of the process
- FAA
- Airport Operator
- Aircraft Operator
- Private Firm working at an airport

A

airport operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bowling Green Airways operates charter flights mainly for college athletic programs across the country. The airline fleet consists of Airbus A321 and the Boeing 757. Recently, the airline just secured a permission to operate flights out of West Lafayette Airport in Indiana. The airport mainly serves the Purdue university flight students and a few private small aircraft operators. If the West Lafayette airport was to be certified under Part 139, what class would it belong?
- Class IV
- Class II
- Class I
- Class III

A

class IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following Federal Grant Assurances address the maintenance and upkeep of the pavement areas at an airport?
- #11 and #19
- #5 and #11
- #11 and #17
- #4 and #19

A

11 and #19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_________________ occurs when an airport must violate a component of the Part 139 regulation because of some emergency conditions at an airport
- Deviation
- Exemption
- Allowance
- Limitation

A

Deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following airports below would not be required to implement a Safety Management System?

Airport FAA Category Annual Enplanement
A Small 105,411
B Medium 98,569
C Large 569,894
D None 112,568
E Medium 104,531
B and D
A and D
A and B
D and E

A

B and D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Regarding the overall safety of the airport, which of the following is not the main responsibility of the airport executive?
- Continuously assessing the safety risks at an airport – this includes adjusting the safety budget as costs of safety measures increase
- Promoting the budget for safety operation and projects to the airport sponsor
- Being responsible to the governing authorities for safety related matters at an airport
- Directing the airport sponsor on the safety initiatives to be undertaken at the airport

A
  • Directing the airport sponsor on the safety initiatives to be undertaken at the airport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is not one of the elements of the Safety Management System?
Safety Assurance
Safety Implementation
Safety Promotion
Safety Risk Management

A

Safety Implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following possible airport surfaces is considered as a rigid type of surface?

Dirt
Concrete
Gracel
Asphalt

A

Concrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

James completed his initial training at Dallas-Fort Worth International airport on October 14th, 2018. To comply with Part 139, the airport management must store James’ training evidence until at least _______________
October 31st, 2019
October 14th, 2019
October 31st, 2020
October 14th, 2020

A

October 31st, 2020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If the Detroit internal inspection personnel conducted the inspection of the pavement on September 27th, 2019, the records of the conducted inspection is to be stored until at least ________________
September 27th, 2020
September 30th, 2020
September 27th, 2021
September 30th, 2021

A

September 30th, 2020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of these would not be considered to be an advantage of using asphalt as a pavement surface at an airport?
- No answer text provided.
- Less Expensive in comparison to other paved surfaces
- It can be installed faster in comparison
- It requires less maintenance over time

A

it requires less maintenance over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Regarding the maintenance and safety standards of an airport, which of the following is not required area of maintenance according to Part 139 regulation?
- Vehicle Parking Facility
- Runways and Taxiways
- Marking and Lightings Systems
- Navigational Aids

A

Vehicle Parking Facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

_______________ is a type of airport self inspection which is performed when a complaint has been addressed or there is unusual event such as rain or thunderstorm
Special Inspection
Continuous Surveillance Inspection
Regularly Scheduled Inspection
Periodic Condition Inspection

A

Special Inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When driving in the area immediately behind a large jet aircraft with its engines running, a driver should:
- Not be concerned about danger from the jet blast because a typical car/van is too heavy to be affected.
- Stop or stay well back, and do not proceed too closely behind the aircraft.
- None of the above.
- Cross the area of jet blast at a perpendicular angle to minimize the hazard

A

Stop or stay well back, and do not proceed too closely behind the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

___________ are primarily used to clean up the residue left on the pavement surface by a plow or blower
Rotary Snowplows
Displacement Snowplows
Snow Melters
Snow Sweepers

A

Snow Sweepers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

____________ happens when a pilot violates any Federal Regulation while on the airport airfield
Surface Incident
Vehicle Deviation
Runway Incursion
Pilot Deviation

A

Pilot Deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A ______________ distinguishes a displaced threshold from a stop-way, blast pad or taxiway that precedes the runway
demarcation bar
touchdown zone marking
runway threshold bar

A

Demarcation bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Runway markings are ____________
Yellow
Green
Red
White

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Taxiway markings are ___________
Green
White
Yellow
Red

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A business has approached the airport management about consultation on the newly proposed development which will be constructed near the airport. The airport management considers that this new development might pose as an obstruction to the airport’s operations. To that end, the airport management advises the business to each out to the FAA’s ________________ or Airports’ District Office, and also to review the Code of Federal Regulations Part ______________
Certification Division & 139
Air Traffic Division & 77
Air Traffic Division & 139
Certification Division & 77

A

Air Traffic Division & 139

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of these is not one of the conditions with which if an airport encountered any of them, they had to conduct a Wildlife Hazard Assessment?
- An air carrier aircraft experiences substantial damage from striking wildlife;
- Wildlife of large enough size or in numbers that can cause an accident is observed to have access inside the airport terminal
- An air carrier aircraft experiences multiple bird strikes;
- Wildlife of a large enough size, or in numbers that can cause an accident, is observed to have access to any airport flight pattern or aircraft movement area

A

Wildlife of large enough size or in numbers that can cause an accident is observed to have access inside the airport terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of these is not an example of a daily inspection item for the Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting operational plan?
- Ensuring recurring and live fire drills are being done as required
- Ensuring the alarm and emergency notification communication systems are operable
- ARFF Index is still appropriate for the airport operations
- ARFF capabilities comply with the FAA’s approved ACM

A

Ensuring recurring and live fire drills are being done as required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Precision Instrument Runways will contain the all the markings found on the non-precision instrument runways plus these two additional markings: ___________ and _______________
Threshold and Runway Side Stripes
Centerlines and Zone Stripes
Zone Stripes and Runway Side Stripes
Designator and Zone Stripes

A

Zone Stripes and Runway Side Stripes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following personnel is entitled to conduct a Wildlife Hazard Assessment at an airport
Airport Sponsor
A wildlife damage management biologist
FAA Regional Land-Use Planning Director
Designated FAA regional wildlife specialist

A

A wildlife damage management biologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of these is not one of the main components of the approach lighting system?
Threshold lights
Runway end identifier lights (REIL)
Sequence flashing lights
Crossbar lights

A

Threshold lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting _________ can provide the airport management with information as to the equipment, agents, and other operational needs of the airport
Exemption
Index
Time Factor
Limitation Factor

A

Index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The Toledo Express Airport experienced an annual enplanement of 245,389 passengers during 2019. To that end, the airport management has to ensure that they can clear the snow and ice in their priority 1 areas within __________________ hour
2
1
1/2
1.5

A

1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

___________ are primarily used to cast heavy concentrations of snow away from airport operational areas such as runways and taxiways
Snow Sweepers
Rotary Snowplows
Snow Melters
Displacement Snowplows

A

Rotary Snowplows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following methods is not a mechanical way of removing snow from the airport airfield?
Rotary blowing
Material spreaders
Sweeping
Plowing

A

Material Spreaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In which category (ies) are the airports supposed to conduct full mock exercise for their ARFF crews as instructed in the AEP?
Class I
Class I and II
Class IV
Class II and IV

A

Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Airports that comply with Title 14 CFR Part 139 are required to have emergency response equipment and personnel that can accommodate the longest air carrier aircraft with an average of ____________ or more daily departure

12
5
8
6

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following activities does not belong to the active control approach with regard to wildlife at airports?
Trapping techniques
Keeping the airfield grasses short
Scaring techniques
Lethal methods

A

Keeping the airfield grasses short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of these is not one of the traffic and wind direction indicators found on the airport airfield?
Compass Rose
Runway End Lights
Segmented Circle

A

runway end lights

41
Q

If an airport operator needs to change the lighting system at a public-use airport, they are supposed to communicate that to the FAA so that appropriate changes can also be made in the ______________________
Airport Operating Certificate
Airport Improvement Database
Airport Certification Manual
Airport Facilities/Directory

A

Airport Facilities/Directory

42
Q

Which of the following security personnel is responsible for screening the passengers, carry-on and checked baggage?
Transportation Security Inspectors
Transportation Security Officers
Airport Security Coordinator
Trusted Agent

A

Transportation Security Officers

43
Q

Which of the following duties is not one of the primary duties of the ground security coordinators (GSCs)?
- Resolving conflicts between gate agents and passengers
- Provide perimeter security by patrolling the airfield and responding to computer alarms from the access control system
- Intervening in situations with disruptive passengers
- Acting as the primary point of contact for bomb threats and hijackings until relieved by higher authority

A

Provide perimeter security by patrolling the airfield and responding to computer alarms from the access control system

44
Q

One of the changes brought with the Aviation and Transportation Security Act of 2001 was the introduction of the Federal Security Director (FSD) position. The FSD is employed by which of the following entities?
Airport Management
Department of Homeland Security
Federal Aviation Administration
Transportation Security Administration

A

Transportation Security Administration

45
Q

Which of the following airport security areas requires the highest level of security including access controls, CHRC, STA, and ID display/challenge procedures?
SIDA
AOA
Security Area
Sterile Area

A

Security Area

46
Q

Once the ASC has undergone training, they don’t need to undergo additional retraining (like other airport inspectors) unless there was a break of _________ or more year in service as an active and designated ASC

5
4
3
2

A

2

47
Q

The Department of Homeland Security has issued a security directive through the National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS). The directive is related to a security threat on several flights in the national airspace that are currently being monitored. Upon receiving the security directive, airport operators are required to immediately to switch to what type of security plan?
Incident Security Plan
Contingency Security Plan
Supplemental Security Plan
Complete Security Program

A

Contingency Security Plan

48
Q

The airport access badge is required to have several primary elements. Which among the following is not a required element on the access badge?
Sufficient Size and Appearance
Biometric Information
Personnel Access Scope
Full-face Image and related details

A

Biometric Information

49
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three types of security programs that airport operators have to implement at their airports? Normally, Airport operators have to choose which program they will develop and implement based on their airport category
Supplemental Security Program
Complete Security Program
Partial Security Program
Supporting Security Program

A

Supplemental Security Program

50
Q

Title 14 CFR Part 107

A

Airport Security

51
Q

Title 14 CFR part 109

A

Indirect Air Caree

52
Q

Title 14 CFR Part 129

A

Foreign Air Caree

53
Q

The Gerardo Hernandez Airport Security Act was passed by Congress in 2015 in response to a security incident that occurred at Los Angeles International Airport. What aspect of security did the Act require the airport operators to establish procedures and plan?
Airport Access Plans
Active Shooter Response plans
Flooding Emergency Plans
Fire Response plans

A

Active Shooter Response plans

54
Q

In what year did the Federal government required that all checked baggage be screened prior to the flight operation?
1973
2002
1985
1996

A

2002

55
Q

In the process of issuing ID badges, the airport will collect and process the fingerprints of the applicants of the individuals in the presence of the _____________
Airport Security Task Force Liaison
Federal Security Director
Authorized Signatory
Trusted Agent

A

Trusted Agent

56
Q

Which of the following personnel may be excused from undergoing both Criminal History Record Check (CHRC) and Security Threat Assessment (STA)?
You Answered
Foreign Air Carrier Personnel
Airport Personnel
Aircraft Operator
FBO Personnel

A

FBO Personnel

57
Q

XYZ regional airport has experienced a security breach in one of its airfield fences; a group of four armed militia were trying to gain access into the cargo facility before the security officers were able to apprehend them. In this type of situation, airport operators are required to switch to what type of security plan?
Contingency Security Plan
Complete Security Program
Supplemental Security Plan
Incident Security Plan

A

Incident Security Plan

58
Q

Title 49 Part 1500

A

Civil Aviation sec

59
Q

Title 49 Part 1542

A

Airport Security

60
Q

Title 49 Part 1548

A

Indirect Aircraft C

61
Q

As part of the lease agreement, Delta Airlines has made an arrangement with the Wayne County Airport Authority to provide additional security personnel in the McNamara Terminal (where Delta conducts its flight operations). This arrangement is also known as ____________
Exclusive Area Agreement
Airport Tenant Security Programs
Airport Access Control Agreement
Coincidence Security Agreement

A

Exclusive Area Agreement

62
Q

Which of the following groups is not a typical stakeholders to be mentioned in the AEP with some expected responsibilities?
Local Hospitals
Air Traffic Control
Aircraft Operators
Airport Passengers

A

Airport Passengers

63
Q

Passenger aircraft operators are not allowed to sit on the ramp for more than _________ hours for domestic flights, or _________ hours for international flights unless one of the following conditions below exist:

The pilot-in-command determines that to deplane passengers would pose an unacceptable safety or security-related risk (e.g. weather, a directive from an appropriate government agency),
Air traffic control advises the pilot-in-command that returning to the gate or another disembarkation point elsewhere in order to deplane passengers would significantly disrupt airport operations
3 & 5
3 & 4
2 & 3
4 & 5

A

3&4

64
Q

While developing an Airport Emergency Plan (AEP), we can include some the four separate but related actions that are adopted from the Comprehensive Emergency Management (CEM). Which among these is not one of those actions?
Response
Logistics
Mitigation
Preparedness

A

Logistics

65
Q

Which of the following listed items is not one of the main functions of the Incident Command System (ICS)?
Mitigation
Planning
Operations
Logistics

A

Mitigation

66
Q

Which of the following is not one of the main three phases of an airport emergency?
Recovery
Investigation
Communication
Response

A

Communication

67
Q

A typical Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) consists of four basic sections (more or less). Which of the following is not one of those primary sections included in the AEP?
Hazard-Specific Section
Finance and Administration Section
Basic Plan Section
Functional Annexes Section

A

Finance and Administration Section

68
Q

_________ is an example of an irregular operation; it occurs when passengers and their respective aircraft get stuck at the airport for an extended period of time, like a day or more
After-Hours IROP
Extended Stay IROP
Capacity IROP
Surge IROP

A

Extended Stay IROP

69
Q

All individuals who have a role in the airport emergency response plans, are required to undergo the National Incident Management System (NIMS) training in the following courses except for _______ unless these personnel have high ranks and there is a need for it
ICS 100 - Basic Awareness
ICS 200 - Crew Supervision/Initial Management
ICS 400 - Area Command Functions
ICS 700 - Responders

A

ICS 400 - Area Command Functions

70
Q

_______________ is a framework which the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) comprehensive approach to emergency management
Multiagency Coordination System
Joint Public Information System
Incident Command System
national Incident Management System (NIMS)

A

national Incident Management System (NIMS)

71
Q

During the _________ phase of the emergency, the team focuses on dispatching and arriving at the scene, initial fire suppression, and dealing with any hazardous materials
Investigation
Response
Recovery
Communication

A

Response

72
Q

At a minor incident site, the Incident Commander (IC) must handle three additional responsibilities. Which of the following is not one of them?
Dissemination of information to news media
Recovering airport operations
Scene Safety
Acting as a liaison with outside agencies

A

Recovering airport operations

73
Q

When it comes to the airport responding to an emergency happening at an entity located adjacent to the airport, which of the listed things is not a qualification for the airport to be involved in such emergency?
If the airport has responsibilities under local/regional emergency plans and by mutual aid agreements
If the entity is within the authority and responsibility of the airport to respond
If the entity is not capable of handling emergency situations
If the emergency on the entity may present a threat to the airport because of the proximity of the emergency to the airport

A

If the entity is not capable of handling emergency situations

74
Q

Which of the following does not have to be met to open the airport after an emergency?
The aircraft operating area is secure
You Answered
There is adequate and available ARFF protection for aircraft operations
All Aircraft wreckage has been removed from the airfield
The public safety is assured

A

All Aircraft wreckage has been removed from the airfield

75
Q

Which of the following is not one the main three categories of emergencies classified by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)?
Aircraft Emergency
Full Emergency
Local Standby
Incident Emergency

A

Incident Emergency

76
Q

Which of the following is not one of the ways in which the airports operators have utilized to minimize congestions and costs at terminals?
Promoting Terminal Concessions
Ticketless travel
Curbside check-in
Self-ticketing

A

Promoting Terminal Concessions

77
Q

The requirements for small, unmanned aircraft systems in the US National Airspace System are documented the following regulation:
Title 14 CFR Part 91
Title 14 FAR Part 101
Title 14 FAR Part 141
Title 14 FAR Part 107

A

Title 14 FAR Part 107

78
Q

Which of the following airspaces is one allowed to operate a UAV without air traffic control?
Class G
Class E
Class B
Class D

A

Class G

79
Q

Which of these represent a class of aircraft system operations that are typically managed by the US government or another business authorized to operate on behalf of the government
Civil
Model Aircraft
Public
Remote Piloted

A

Public

80
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the three classes of unmanned aircraft system operations?
Model Aircraft
Civil
Public
Remote Piloted

A

Remote Piloted

81
Q

Part ____________ allows operations of drones of less than _________ pounds without a COA, provided the operator has a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate, which requires the passage of an aeronautical knowledge test in addition to the following:

The drone is operated using line-of-sight (LOS) or first-person view with an LOS observer;

Fly during daylight or in twilight (30 minutes before official sunrise to 30 minutes after official sunset), with appropriate anti-collision lighting;

The weather must be a visibility of three miles or greater from the control station;

The maximum allowable height is 400 feet above ground level;

The maximum speed is 100 mph

91_______ 55
107_______55
101 ________55
141 _________ 55

A

107___55

82
Q

Although there are no direct regulations instructing the airport operators on how to manage the terminal and landside areas, these two areas may still be subject to which of the Federal agencies’ regulations?
Transportation Security Administration
Air Traffic Division - FAA
Customs and Border Protection
Bureau of Transportation and Statistics

A

Transportation Security Administration

83
Q

__________________ is one of the essential customer touch points where airport operators can influence the passengers. This concepts is associated with layout and design of the airport itself including restrooms organization
Procedural
Human
Subliminal
Physical

A

Physical

84
Q

__________________ is one of the essential customer touch points where airport operators can influence the passengers. This concepts refers to processes which the passengers encounter during their airport experiences - screening, ticketing, others, etc.
Procedural
Subliminal
Human
Physical

A

Procedural

85
Q

Pick the correct set of terminologies for the following statement:

The term __________ describes the actual vehicle that flies, whereas the term ___________ describes all the components that are required to operate the ___________, such as a ground control station, payload, a datalink, and the vehicle itself

UAS_______UAV__________RPV
UAV________UAS_________UAV
UAS________UAV_________UAS
UAV________RPV_________UAS

A

UAV________UAS_________UAV

86
Q

Which of the following is not one of the information that should be included in the Part 161 analysis of an airport?
Non-restrictions considered by the airport
Cost-benefit analysis
Proposed Compatibility Measures
Proposed Restrictions

A

Proposed Compatibility Measures

87
Q

Which of these regulations require the airlines to retire, replace, or retrofit the older jets that did not meet the federal noise level standards?
Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP)
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act (ASNA)
Federal Aviation Regulations Part 36

A

Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP)

88
Q

Although Part 150 is an optional operational plan, airport operators are strongly encouraged to implement it if certain conditions exist at the airport. Which of these following conditions is not of those?
Increase Airport Operational costs
A threat from urban development pressure to increase incompatible land use near the airport
The introduction of major changes in airport facilities or operations likely to shift or increase noise patterns
The receipt of serious noise complaints

A

Increase Airport Operational costs

89
Q

When it comes to airport noise issues, some airport operators tend to say, “the airport was here first”. This argument doesn’t normally work because of the following reasons except for which one?

It goes against the principles of operating an airport as outlined in the Airport Compliance Manual, which encourages Airport operators to be good neighbors
Flight operations may have changed significantly since the individual purchased their residence at that location
It is not always true and usually only serves to further incense the individual
The airport operator can purchase the land surrounding the airport

A

The airport operator can purchase the land surrounding the airport

90
Q

The Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 introduced the Part ______ regulation, while the Airport Noise and Capacity Act of 1990 created the Part _______ regulation

150______161
161_______150
36_______150
36_______161

A

150______161

91
Q

Which of these were the first regulations to be established in the 1960s to specifically address aircraft design concepts related noise issues at airports? Choose all that apply
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
Federal Aviation Regulations Part 36
Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP)
Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act (ASNA)

A

Federal Aviation Regulations Part 36
Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP)

92
Q

Phase 1

A

Generate the Noi

93
Q

Phase 2

A

Draft and noise

94
Q

Phase 3

A

Allow for Review

95
Q

phase 4

A

Implement the op

96
Q

According to Part 36 regulations, stage _______ aircraft are those that meet the original noise limits set in 1969
3
1
4
2

A

2

97
Q

The Airport Noise and Capacity Act of 1990 (ANCA) created the Part ___________ regulation (Notice and Approval of Airport Noise and Access Restrictions) which placed a limit on how many Stage _________ aircraft (i.e. these are aircraft with over _________ pounds MTOW) were allowed to operate in the US

150_________1_________75000
150_________ 2______75,000
161________2_______75,000
161________1__________75,000

A

161________2_______75,000

98
Q

The compatibility measures developed under Part 150 must meet the five objective highlighted by the FAA. Which of the following is not one of those objectives?
Not create an undue burden on interstate or foreign commerce
Not derogate safety or adversely affect the safe and efficient use of airspace
Consolidate all the necessary powers to the FAA to ensure smooth aviation operations
Not unjustly discriminate against an airport user

A

Consolidate all the necessary powers to the FAA to ensure smooth aviation operations

BGSU (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions