AERT 3820 FINAL (TRUE & FALSE) Flashcards

1
Q

One of the advantages of top-down management approach in planning is that it allows employees at all levels of the organization to be involved in the decision making process

A

False

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2
Q

One of the disadvantages of bottom-up management approach in planning is that it is easily viewed upon as bossy and dictatorial resulting in employees becoming resentful toward the management team.

A

False

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3
Q

Airport Operational Plan and Airport Collaborative Decision Making are both necessary processes needed by airport operators to ensure smooth operations

A

False

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4
Q

One of the concerns that can arise in a collaborative decision making effort is that, in trying to valuing harmony, stakeholders do not utilize rational thinking during the decision making step. This situation is also known as “Group Thinking”

A

True

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5
Q

Over time, collaborative decision making process has been observed to valuable regardless of the size, traffic level, and complexity of the airport

A

False

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6
Q

In collaborative decision making process, three are four main ways of reaching a decision as a team namely: concensus, voting-based, delphi, dotmocracy

A

True

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7
Q

One of the reasons the FAA encourages the airports to implement the APMS is to help them provide safe and operable pavement system at whatever cost since it is the FAA who funds the installation, repair and replacement of the paved surfaces

A

False

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8
Q

Airports that are not required to be certificated under Part 139 do not have any federal regulation to be certified under. (Ignore the government-operated and military airports)

A

True

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9
Q

Safety Assurance is one of the elements of the Safety Management System (SMS); this element mainly addresses the need for and adequacy of new or revised risk controls based on the assessment of acceptable risk

A

False

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10
Q

Alkali-Silica Reaction happens mostly on Asphalt pavement surfaces; the main reason is because asphalt is a petroleum product

A

False

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11
Q

The airport personnel who should be in charge of the implementation of the SMS is the Accountable Executive

A

True

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12
Q

While airports certificated under Part 139 are not required to have a safety self-inspection program, it is highly recommended that the airport operators establish such programs to ensure safe and effective operations

A

False

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13
Q

According to the FAA, airport operators who do not implement a preventative maintenance approach on their paved surfaces are most likely to spend between $3 to $4 more repairing the paved surface later in the life of the pavement

A

True

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14
Q

Part 139 requires the paved surfaces be inspected daily while the FAA requires the paved surfaces be inspected on a periodic basis

A

true

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15
Q

The two main causes of pavement deterioration are normally structural and environmental reasons

A

True

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16
Q

According to the Part 139 regulation, airport management must ensure they have the minimal number of personnel needed to run the airport operations; this number can be calculated using the methodology explained in Part 139 document

A

True

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17
Q

Section 42301 of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Modernization and Reform Act of 2012 was established by Congress to regulate airport irregular operations

A

False

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18
Q

Part 139 Section 139.325 requires the airport operators to describe how they will respond to an emergency involving the largest air carrier in the Index group for that airport

A

False

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19
Q

The AEP is a part of the Airport Certification Manual, but it can be prepared as a separate document

A

True

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20
Q

The Airport Communications Dispatchers must be familiar on how to handle sensitive information as explained by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)

A

True

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21
Q

One of the ways that the emergency response personnel can participate in the investigation phase of the emergency is to protect the evidence at the scene. This particular responsibility is described in the Advisory Circular 150/5200-12C (Fire Department Responsibility in Protecting Evidence at the Scene of an Aircraft Accident)

A

True

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22
Q

The National Incident Management System (NIMS) is a management system to enable effective and efficient domestic incident management by integrating a combination of facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications operating within a common organizational structure

A

False

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23
Q

Airport operators ought to define any relationships (between the airport and the local community) in the Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) or (MOA) sections of the AEP - these mainly address the sharing of the resources between the airport and the local community during an emergency

A

True

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24
Q

The function of the EOC is to provide support to Incident Command personnel and coordinate other necessary support functions, which may also include assistance to the airport operator in keeping the airport open (if possible)

A

True

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25
Q

Functional Annexes section of the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) provides additional and detailed information applicable to the performance of a function in support of a particular hazard

A

False

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26
Q

If the accident occurs off but adjacent to the airport property (about a half-mile or so from the airport fence), the preservation and security of the accident site becomes the responsibility of airport management

A

False

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27
Q

The Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, Public Law 93-288 serve to ensure that all public-use facilities have an emergency plan in place - these include the airports that are not covered under Part 139

A

True

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28
Q

ICAO Annex 14 requires the member countries to ensure their airports have appropriate plan for removing disabled aircraft on or adjacent to the movement area – the Annex recommends the airport operators to designate a coordinator who will oversee the plan

A

True

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29
Q

At large commercial airports, these people may help the Incident Commander (IC) to carry out some of the tasks during an emergency: Safety Officer, Liaison Officer, and Public Information Officer

A

True

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30
Q

For accidents involving aircraft weighing less than 15,500 lbs. Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW), the NTSB has delegated accident investigation authority to the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

A

False

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31
Q

On the fundamental level, the Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting crew have three primary responsibilities

A

False

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32
Q

During the phase 1 documentation of the Snow and Ice Control Plan, the airport operators will address the instruction and procedures that should be taken by the airport operator when dealing with winter storms and notifying airport users in a timely manner when less than satisfactory conditions exist

A

False

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33
Q

Before construction workers start implementing a project on the airport airfield, they are required to be provided with a training on pedestrian and ground vehicle procedures

A

True

34
Q

All the training records for the ARFF crew are to be maintained for 12 months

A

False

35
Q

Public-use airports have a white-red beacon

A

False

36
Q

Runway incursions are grouped into several categories based on the severity of the incident

A

True

37
Q

According to Part 139 regulation, the first ARFF responding equipment is supposed to arrive at the mid-point of the furthest air carrier runway and begin to apply the firefighting agent within 4 minutes

A

False

38
Q

One of the largest causes of runway incursions is the failure of the personnel or pilots to understand a particular sign, marking, or lighting system

A

True

39
Q

If an air carrier aircraft experienced an engine ingestion of a bird during the approach phase of the flight, the destination airport ought to immediately start implementing a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan

A

False

40
Q

An airport certificated under Part 139 is allowed to outsource the function of ARFF to a contractual provider

A

True

41
Q

If a NAVAID is reported or observed to be out-of-service, the airport inspector should issue a NOTAM and notify the FAA Technical Services office. Airport inspectors should also immediately notify the airport engineering team (or a contractor) so they can repair the equipment.

A

False

42
Q

Additional wind cones are required at airports certificated under Part 139 for each runway available for air carrier use. These supplemental wind cones are installed at the end of each runway, or at least at a point visible to the pilot while on final approach and prior to takeoff

A

True

43
Q

In determining the number of Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting vehicles needed for an airport, we utilize the the aircraft length and the frequency of service at that airport

A

true

44
Q

Sequence Flashing lights are a series of lights positioned perpendicularly to both sides of the primary approach lights. They are normally used as a pilot aid in leveling an aircraft’s wings, and for providing distance information to the runway since they are positioned at fixed distances from the threshold

A

False

45
Q

Preseasons preparation, Snow committee composition, snow control center, and personnel training are some examples of elements included in the Snow and Ice Control Plan

A

True

46
Q

A typical inspection of the airfield lighting system involve the inspection of the following tasks:

Runway and taxiway edge lights;

Taxiway centerline lights or centerline reflectors;

Surface movement guidance control lights.

A

True

47
Q

The Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) position is required for all commercial service airports with security programs under Title 49 CFR Part 1542

A

True

48
Q

One of the security positions that commercial airport operators are required to hire is the Aircraft Operator Security Coordinator (AOSC). The AOSC acts as the contact person between the airport and aircraft operators.

A

False

49
Q

The Exclusive Area Agreement (EAA) is very similar to the Airport Tenant Security Program (ATSP) except that the EAA applied to the non-regulated airport tenants

A

False

50
Q

One of the things that brings uniformity in aviation security practices across the world is the establishments of the ICAO security requirements which are described in Annex 17 to the Chicago Convention

A

False

51
Q

With the change brought by the Aviation and Transportation Security Act of 2001, the creation of Transportation Security Regulations (Part 1500 series) included General Aviation airports with the purpose of enhancing security across the nation

A

False

52
Q

Airports can opt out to have the TSA screening personnel; if airports choose to do so, TSA has no legal obligations to be involved with the airport security matters.

A

False

53
Q

The Transportation Security Administration ‘Playbook’ also known as the Aviation Direct Access Screening Program (ADASP) was created to focus on randomly screening the airport employees.

A

True

54
Q

Airport ID badges must expire after 3 years or less.

A

False

55
Q

The sterile areas of the airport can be controlled by three entities at any time: the Transportation Security Administration, the airport operator, and the aircraft operator

A

True

56
Q

The Federal Air Marshals (FAM) program was started in 1962; however, the program was not fully expanded to accommodate the air transport growth until the 9/11 attack

A

True

57
Q

For safety purposes as well, signs should be affixed on both sides of the vehicle to easily and properly identify the vehicle while on the airfield

A

True

58
Q

The Airport Liaison Agent (ALA) is an airport-hired personnel whose role, as described in the security plan, is to coordinate with the Federal Bureau of Investigation and inform them of any security threats/incidents.

A

False

59
Q

As part of their job, Transportation Security Inspectors (TSI) are allowed to ‘violate’ security procedures to ensure that the system they are testing is intact.

A

True

60
Q

Airport operators can choose to do either a criminal history record check (CHRC) or a security threat assessment (STA) on an individual as part of the processing their airport ID badge application.

A

False

61
Q

The Aircraft Operator Standard Security Program (AOSSP) is one of the changes brought by the Aviation Transportation and Security Act of 2001. The program deals with aircraft operators including those who operate out of General Aviation (GA) airports.

A

True

62
Q

One of the differences between a complete and a supporting security program is that the supporting security does not include defined security areas

A

True

63
Q

Public or civil UAVs that are over 75 pounds and are operated in civil airspace either by the federal government or a civil entity must be authorized through a Certificate of Waiver or Authorization (COA), issued by the FAA, which allows a certain entity to operate a specific UAV/UAS in a specific area for a specific purpose

A

False

64
Q

All UAS operators (even those under COA) are required to notify the airport operator and the control tower if they plan to fly within 5 nautical miles of an airport space. The airport operator will have to grant the Letter of Authorization (LOA) which replaces all other FAA approvals - this process is also called the FAA Golden Rule

A

False

65
Q

The term drone is normally used, in its purest form, to describe something that flies in a dull, monotonous, and indifferent manner, such as a target drone

A

True

66
Q

From the airport operator’s perspective on customers, external customers are employees or business departments who receive services from other employees or business departments of the same organization

A

False

67
Q

The FAA now classifies drones weighing 75 pounds or less and used by a hobbyist as “model aircraft”

A

False

68
Q

Subliminal touch point is one of the customer touch points where airport operators can utilize to positively influence the passengers’ experience; this concept relates to the overall atmosphere and “feel” of the airport

A

True

69
Q

The terminal is the airport’s main passenger structure, beginning at the curb and extending through the screening checkpoint to the concourses and aircraft boarding gates

A

True

70
Q

UAS operations can technically be granted in areas outside of Class B airspace; however, most public organizations who run such operations are restricted to airspace classes D, E, and G.

A

True

71
Q

Aircraft noise and land use compatibility have been observed to the most challenging ad emotional issues to the airport management

A

True

72
Q

If federal funds are used for land acquisition, the airport operator is governed by the procedures found in 49 CFR Part 42 and the Uniform Relocation and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act

A

False

73
Q

According to Part 36, stage 3 aircraft are those that meet the noise restrictions established in 1977

A

True

74
Q

The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) required an assessment of noise effects for airports undertaking major projects; under this Act, an economic impact study was optional before developing a mitigation program

A

False

75
Q

Soundproofing is considered the most effective control measure for reducing noise impact at airports

A

False

76
Q

Before submitting the Part 150 plan to the FAA for approval, the airport operator must explain the cost related to implementing the plan and how the airport is planning to obtain the funds

A

True

77
Q

The FAA uses the Day/Night Average (DNL) method of calculation as the standard to be used for forecasting cumulative noise exposure under Part 150 studies. However, this method has been criticized because it processes the noise effects on an average basis instead of accounting for each individual noise event

A

true

78
Q

The Noise Exposure Maps (NEMs) developed by airport operators for Part 150 studies should not be used by local governments (state, city, county) in their planning; the main reason is the differences in formatting and data analysis

A

False

79
Q

One of the reasons for initiating the Part 150 process was to identify compatible land uses given the level of noise exposure that was happening at airports

A

True

80
Q

A property owner who lives near both the airport and an interstate has filed a lawsuit against the airport asking to compensated for the damage caused by the noise pollution due to airport operations. Although it has been shown (by actual data) that the noise levels generated at the airport are exactly the same as those generated by the interstate, the airport must compensate this owner because Part 150 states that this scenario is the same as any other noise complaint scenario

A

False

81
Q

The design of the Part 150 regulations and planning process owed much to two programs that had been previously established. These programs were:

The FAA’s Airport Noise Control and Land Use Compatibility (ANCLUC) program
The Department of Defense’s Airport Installation Compatible Use Zone (AICUZ) program used for military airports

A

True

82
Q

Noise source reduction under Part 36 has primarily centered on the modification of engine design to provide higher air bypass ratios, thereby reducing the amount of noise from the core engine. This coincided with the development of turbo-fan engines

A

True