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Equine > Equine 1 - Surgery > Flashcards

Equine 1 - Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

whiter colour on xray

A

radiopaque
more radiation absorbed

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2
Q

dark colour on xray

A

radiolucent
more radiation passed through

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3
Q

how different organs absorb radiation

A

metal > bone > soft tissue, fat, water > gas

opaque –> lucent

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4
Q

3 methods of xray detection

A

conventional
computed
direct/ digital

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5
Q

periosteum

A

new bone formation on outside of bone

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6
Q

endosteum

A

new bone formation on inside of bone

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7
Q

sclerosis

A

increased bone mass
increased opacity
in response to stress, wall off infecton, protect weakened area

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8
Q

osteophyte

A

new bone production at margins of articular cartilage and periarticular new bone

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9
Q

entheseophyte

A

new bone production where tendons, ligaments or joint capsules attach on the new bone

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10
Q

focal demineralisation due to

A

infection, inflammation, neoplasia
continued pressure on the bone
cyst

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11
Q

general demineralisation due to

A

osteopenia
long standing non weight bearing lameness
pregnancy, dietary imbalance, metabolic imbalance

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12
Q

description of fractures

A

location
complete/ incomplete/ comminuted
displace/ non displaced
articular / non articular

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13
Q

physitis

A

widening at epiphseal and metaphyseal margins of the growth plate
immature horses

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14
Q

ocd common location

A

hock and stifle

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15
Q

ocd on xrays

A

irregular lucent zones in subchondral bone
can be surrounded by increased opacity
alteration in contour of articular surface

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16
Q

osteoarthritis on xrau

A

periarticular osteophyte formation
subchonrdal bone lysis / sclerosis
lucent zones in subchonrdal bone
narrowing of joint space
cyst like lesions
joint capsule distension

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17
Q

contrast radiography

A

radiodense medium
helps see communications

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18
Q

standard view for lamintis

A

LM

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19
Q

standard view for farrier

A

LM
DPa

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20
Q

standard view for lameness

A

LM
DPa
DPrPaDiO of pedal and navicular bones
oblique and skyline view

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21
Q

visible on a LM view
of distal phalanx

A

orientation of distal phalanx
distal interphalangeal joint margins
palmar processes
solar margin of distal phalanx
navicular bone
thickness of dorsal hoof wall and sole

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22
Q

visible in dorsopalmar view
of distal phalanx

A

orientation of distal phalanx, thickness of sole
ungular cartilafes
solar margins of distal phalanx
prox border of nav bone

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23
Q

visible in dprpadio view of distal phalanx

A

margins of distal phalanx
ungular cartilages
insertion site of cl dip joint

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24
Q

name for skyline view of navicular

A

palmaroproximal palmarodistal oblique view

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25
Q

name for oblique view of navicular

A

dorso 6o lateral palmaromedial oblique and dorso 60 medial palmarolateral oblique

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26
Q

associated strucutres of navicular disease

A

navicular bursa
ddft
distal sesamoidean impar lig
collateral ligs of nav bone
chondrosesamoidean lig

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27
Q

what is OCLL

A

irregularity on the solar surface of the distal phalanx and other palmar processes

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28
Q

standard views of pastern bone

A

LM
DPa
DL-PaMO
DM-PaLO

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29
Q

standard views of fetlock

A

LM
DPa
DL- PaMO
DM- PaLO
flexed DPa to highlight metacarpal condyles
oblique view of sesamoid bones - latero30dorso70proximal - mediopalmarmarodistal
skyline of sagittal ridge - dorsoproximo-dorsodistal oblique

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30
Q

common injurys to splint bones

A

fracture
exostosis

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31
Q

standard views of carpus

A

LM
flexed LM
DPa
D45M- PaLO
Pa45 - DMO
skyline

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32
Q

which bone is most commonly affected by sclerosis and fractures of carpal bones

A

3rd carpal cone

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33
Q

standard views of radius and elbow

A

Mediolateral
craniocaudal

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34
Q

indications of neck xray

A

ataxia
neck pain
poor performance
FL lameness cant be localised with diagnostic anaesthesia

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35
Q

neck xray

A

lareral- lateral radiohraphs
at least 4 images
oblique views of articular process joints

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36
Q

standard view for MC III bone

A

LM
DPa

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37
Q

standard view for splint bones

A

oblique

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38
Q

stardard view for foot balance

A

LM
DPl

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39
Q

fetlock standard views

A

LM
DPl
D45- PIM oblique
Pl45L - DM oblique

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40
Q

what is sequestrum

A

part of devitalised bone, seperated from the surrounding bone due to necrosis

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41
Q

standard views of hock

A

LM
D45L - PIMO
PL45L- DMO
DPl
flexed LM
skyline

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42
Q

OCD common location

A

distal intermediate ridge of the tibia
trochlear ridges of the talus
medial malleolus

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43
Q

standard views of the stifle

A

LM
caudocranial
Flexed LM
weight bearing LM
flexed LM
caudocranial
skyline of patella

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44
Q

what to include in back xrays

A

dorsal spinoous processes - laterolateral
vertebral bodies - laterolateral
articular processes - ventral-dorsal- oblique views

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45
Q

xray of cranium to view

A

cranial vault and bony skull
ethmoid bones
part of frontal bones
ventral rami of bones
pharynx, larynx and guttural pouch

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46
Q

views of cranium

A

LL
VD - centre at larynx
obliques - temporomandibular joint

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47
Q

pathologies of cranium

A

sinusitis
cyst
tumour
proliferative ethmoid haematoma
trauma

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48
Q

suture of young horses cranium

A

os frontale - 3-5months
nasofrontalis - 6months
speheno- occipitalis - 5yrs

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49
Q

xray bean for LL of cranium

A

btw orbit and lateral opening of infraorbital canal

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50
Q

xray beam for VD of cranium

A

midline btw horizontal rami of mandible
at level of caudal and mid third border

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51
Q

xray of DV of cranium

A

saggital plane, btw orbit and foramen infrorbital

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52
Q

views for teeth and mandibles

A

lateral-lateral
ventrodorsal
L30V/D-RDO

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53
Q

to see on xray of teeth and mandibles

A

mandibular symphysis
incisors, canines, wolf teeth, premolars, molars
triadan system

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54
Q

views for [harynx, larynx, guttural pouch

A

LL
VD

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55
Q

fields of LL views of thorax

A

dorsocaudal
ventrocaudal
dorsocranial
ventrocranial

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56
Q

vascular lung disease patterns

A

vessels withing interstitium
changes in shape, size of pul arteries and veins
close relationship of vasculature to interstitium
inflammatory lung disease
cardiac disease

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57
Q

fields of LL in abdominal xray

A

cranioventral
mid ventral
mid dorsal
corsocaudal

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58
Q

risk factors of anaesthesia

A

age
type of surgery
position
premedication
duration of anaesthesia
time of day

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59
Q

which position is least risk

A

lateral is 1/3 the risk of dorsal

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60
Q

which is least risky premed

A

ACP

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61
Q

ASA classification of horses
1

A

a healthy horse

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62
Q

ASA classification of horses
2

A

horse with mild systemic disease - mild anaemia, rao

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63
Q

ASA classification of horses
3

A

horse with severe systemic disease = severe rao

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64
Q

ASA classification of horses
4

A

horse with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life - colic

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65
Q

ASA classification of horses
5

A

moribund horse not expected to survive - foal with uroperitoneum

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66
Q

ASA classification of horses
6

A

emergency

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67
Q

fasting recommended prior to anaesthesia

A

6hrs

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68
Q

4 steps prior to sedation

A

antimicrobials
antiinflammatorys
IV catheter into jugular
flushing oral cavity with tap water

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69
Q

4 steps of GA

A

premed
induction
maintenance
recovery

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70
Q

why is ACP good for premed

A

decreases risk of death
improved recovery
MAC decrease -30%

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71
Q

why are alpha2agonists good for premed

A

MAC decrease
analgesia
increase urine though so need to catheterise

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72
Q

opioids used for premed

A

dont use them alone
good analgesia
excitement at high doses

73
Q

benzodiazepines for premed

A

neonates

74
Q

combinations for premed

A

alpha2agonist + phenothiazine/opioid
phenothiazine +alpha2/opioid

75
Q

drugs of induction

A

ketamine
guaiphenesin
barbiturates
propofol

76
Q

effects of ketamine

A

analgesia
amnesia
MAC decrease
increased cardiac output
catalepsy

77
Q

effects of guaiphenesin

A

centrally acting muscle relaxant
no sedation
no analgesion
also use in combo
severe ataxia

78
Q

effects of barbiturates - thiopental

A

fast onset
hypotension
apnoe
no analgesia
prolonged recovery

79
Q

effects of propofol

A

min organ toxicity
expensive
poor quality of inducation
min analgesia

80
Q

combos to give for induction

A

ketamine + diazepam
guan + ketamin + thiopental
tiletamine + zolazepam

81
Q

maintenance of anaesthesia

A

TIVA
inhalation
PIVA

82
Q

what is ideal anaesthesia based on

A

hypnosis
analgesia
muscle relaxation

83
Q

advantages of TIVA

A

less cardioresp depression
good analgesia
less complication
less movement
better recovery
min tissue toxicity
less polution into surgery room

84
Q

Disadvantages of TIVA

A

infusion pump needed
give either bolus or continuous infusion

85
Q

TIVA combos

A

guan + xylazine + ketamine
ketamine + xylazine + diazepam

86
Q

advantages of inhalation anaesthesia

A

depth can chagne rapidly
can be monitores
min drug acculumation

87
Q

disadvantages of inhalation

A

pollution
cardioresp depression
min analgesia
expensive
recovery not as good as tiva

88
Q

drugs for inhalation

A

isoflurane
sevoflurane
desflurane

89
Q

advantages of PIVA

A

less cardioresp depression
increase analgesia
decreased organ toxiicty
less pollution
increased recovery

90
Q

disadvantages of piva

A

both sets of equipment needed
iv drugs accumulate in long procedures

91
Q

drugs for piva

A

ketamine
alpha 2 agonists
ketamine + alpha2
lidocaine
lidocaine + ketamine

92
Q

methods to modify stress response post op

A

increase tissue perfusion
LA
CRI buturphanol - decrease cortisol response

93
Q

8 complications that may arise during/after surgery

A

CPR
anaphlyaxis
intraoperative hypotension
hypoxemia & hypoxia
hypercapnia
postoperative myopathy
postoperative neuropathy
postoperative laryngeal oedema

94
Q

CPR
cause

A

deep anaesthesia
hypotension

95
Q

CPR
signs

A

EtCO2 decrease
weak pulse
cyanotic mm
dilated pupils
agonic breath

96
Q

CPR
treatment

A

discontinue anaesthesia
IPPV
compressions
ventilate with pure o2
iv drugs

97
Q

CPR
drugs

A

epinephrine
dobutamine
atropine
lidocaine

98
Q

anaphlyaxis signs

A

SpO2 decrease
weak pulse
ABP decrease
cardiac arrest
bronchospasm
oedema

99
Q

anaphlyaxis
treatment

A

no drugs
IPPV
ventilate with o2
fluid therapy

100
Q

anaphlyaxis
drugs

A

epinephrine
bronchodilator
corticosteroids
antihistamines

101
Q

intraoperative hypotension
cause

A

myocardial depression, bradycardia

102
Q

intraoperative hypotension
consequence

A

poor tissue perfusion
postop myopathy
spinal cord ischemia
cerebral necrosis
myocardial dysfunction

103
Q

intraoperative hypotension
treatment

A

infusion - electrolyte, colloic, hypertonic

104
Q

hypoxia
cause

A

inadequate tissue oxygenation
decreased perfusion
anaemia

105
Q

hypoxemia
cause

A

PaO2 <60mmhg
failure in o2 supply
problem with tube
pressure on diaphragm

106
Q

hypercapnia
cause

A

PaCo2 > 45mmHg
resp centre depression
hypoventilation
increased co2 production (malignant hyperthermia, HYPP)

107
Q

hypercapnia
effects

A

sympathic stimulation
arrhythmia resp
incracranial pressure increase

108
Q

hypercapnia
treatment

A

IPPV

109
Q

postoperative myopathy
cause and treatment

A

inadepquate positioning
intraop hypotension or hypoxemia

treat - paddiny, assistance to stand, light exercise

110
Q

postoperative neuropathy
cause & treatment

A

inadequate padding
overextension of limbs
treat - sling

111
Q

postoperative laryngeal oedema
cause

A

negative pressure pul oedema
hemiplegia

112
Q

postoperative laryngeal oedema
treatment

A

temporary tracheostomy

113
Q

10 most common risk patietns

A

foals
geriatric horse
donkey
horse with intestinal emergency
pregnant mare
anesthesia and hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
anesthesia and equine malignant hyperthermia
horse with RAO
horse with laryngeal hemiplegia
horse with cv problem

114
Q

PaO2 of foals
at birth

A

40mmhg

115
Q

PaO2 of foals
at 1hr

A

60mmhg

116
Q

PaO2 of foals
at 4hrs

A

75mmhg

117
Q

PaO2 of foals
at 7days - adult

A

90mmhg

118
Q

risks of foals during anaesthesia

A

hypothermia
hypoxemia
hypoglycaemia

119
Q

effects of hypothermia

A

decreased MAC
bradycardia
decreased - tissue perfusion, metabolism
increased - bleeding time
delayed recovery

120
Q

when to give alpha 2 to foals

A

over 4 weeks

121
Q

what is safest for foals

A

diazepam IV to neonates

122
Q

induction of foals

A

inhal - not recommended
iv - ket + diazepam (or alpha2) or propofol

123
Q

maintenance of foals

A

inhal/TIVA/ PIVA

124
Q

why are geriatric horses considered high risk

A

lower ABP
decreased ventricular filling and total body water
decreased metabolic, excretory capacity of the liver, renal, heart function

125
Q

age associated diseases

A

RAO
cushings
aortic vlave insufficiency
hypothyroidism

126
Q

why are donkeys considered high risl

A

narrower, deeper larynx
eliminate drugs faster
hemolysis if use gge

127
Q

preop for colic horses

A

stomach tube
rapid fluid therapy
polymixin, flunixin - antiendotoxins

128
Q

sedation for pregnant mares

A

opiods cross the placenta barrier
flunixin blocks pgf2a release and protects against foetal loss

129
Q

maintenance for pregnant mare

A

tiva can cause bradycardia in foal
lidoaine can be toxic

130
Q

signs during anaesthesia for horses with HYRR

A

hyperkaemia
tachy/brady cardia
ecg chagnes
hypotension
muscle tremor
hypercapnia
normothermia

131
Q

alpha 2 agonists affect

A

presynaptic alpha 2 receptors
decrease release of catecholamines

132
Q

effects of alpha 2 agonists

A

sedation
analgesia
hypertension followed by hypotension

133
Q

cardiopulmonary effects of alpha 2 agonists

A

increased vagal tone
bradycardia
redruced cardiac output
reduced resp

134
Q

gi effects of alpha 2 agonists

A

swallow reflex blocked
reduced bowel motility
hyperglycaemia
urination

135
Q

intra arterial alpha 2 agonists

A

collapse, reversible central blindness

136
Q

alpha 2 agonists antidotes

A

yohimbine
atipamezole

137
Q

phenothiazines effects

A

blocks dopamine receptors

138
Q

cardiopul effects of phenothiazines

A

hypotension
antiarrhythmia
antipyretic
decrease resp rate

139
Q

contraindication of phenothiazines

A

hypovolaemic/ endotoxaemic shock
pain
shock
ileus
foal
stallion

140
Q

intra arterial admin of phenothiazines

A

seizures
sudden death

141
Q

septic joint synovia
WBC

A

> 40 g/l

142
Q

septic joint synovia
TP

A

> 2 g/dl

143
Q

2 processes involved in wound healing

A

repair
regeneration

144
Q

what is repair

A

a stopgap reaction which reestablish the continuity of interrupted tissues, results in scar tissue.

145
Q

what is regeneration

A

Replacement of damaged tissues with normal cells of type lost: the cells need to be capable to mitosis

146
Q

partial thickness wounds

A

migration
proliferation

147
Q

full thickness wounds 3 steps

A

inflammation
proliferation
matrix synthesis and remodelling/ maturation stage

148
Q

acute inflammatory phase

A

scar formation
accumulation of inflammatory exsudate

149
Q

scar formation

A

bleeding - vasoconstriction - vasodilation - increased capillary permeability - cellular and non cellular components enter wound - fibrin - clot - dehydration - scab

150
Q

cellular proliferation stage

A

begins when blood clots and infection has been removed
- fibroplasia
- granulation tissue
- wound contraction

151
Q

when does First fibroblast appear

A

in 2-3 days

152
Q

when does - First collagen appear

A

5-7 days

153
Q

when does First elastic fibers appear

A

4 weeks

154
Q

granulation tissue is composed of

A

capillaries, fibroblast, macrophages, mast cells

155
Q

wound contraction is composed of

A

Myofibroblast
Contractile

156
Q

effect of Zinc on wound healing

A

delayed wound

157
Q

effect of cu on wound healing

A

collagen synthesis important

158
Q

effect of vitamin a on wound healing

A

elasticity, collagen synthesis and epithelization

159
Q

effect of **vitamin k ** on wound healing

A

haemorrhage

160
Q

effect of vitamin c on wound healing

A

epithet anigo and collagen

161
Q

effect of nsaids on wound healing

A

Decrease inflammation and granulation tissue formation
-painkiller
-increase blood flow
-Prefer COX-2 selective inhibitors

162
Q

effect of steroids on wound healing

A

Stops wounds healing
Decreases collagen synthesis
Decrease Angiogenesis
Decrease Granulation tissue formation
Decrease epithelization

163
Q

effect of trauma on wound healing

A

Infections – sensitivity
Dull trauma causes severe problems
Decrease contractility

164
Q

effect of local anaesthetics on wound healing

A

Less leukocyte can adhere to the endothelium
Decreases blood vessel lumens

165
Q

steps of primary wound healing
7

A
  1. incised space fills with blood and clot
  2. neutrophil accumulation
  3. mitotic activity
  4. macrophages dominant on day 3
  5. angiogenesis dominant on day 5
  6. collagen and fibroblast proliferation on the 2nd week decreased edema,
  7. No sign of inflammation after 1 month, avascularisated scab.
166
Q

disorders of primary wound healing

A

hematoma
wound dysjunction
resorption fever
septic signs
suture failure

167
Q

sedcond intention steps

A

clean wound
granulation
constriction
epitheliazation

168
Q

disorders of 2nd intention
clean wound

A

-Decreased vascularity
- necrosis

169
Q

disorders of 2nd intention
granulation

A

-Not enough -too much -irregular

170
Q

disorders of 2nd intention
constriction

A

no conscritction

171
Q

disorders of 2nd intention
epitheliazation

A

-Tired wound – torpid wound
-Typical in large, lacerated wounds
-imperfect epithelialization, epithel detachment -Usually by irregular granulation tissue

172
Q

increased sounds of gi

A

colitis

173
Q

decreased sounds of gi

A

displacement
obstipation
ileus

174
Q

percussion of gi
Left Upper third:

A

dulled tympanic

175
Q

percussion of gi
left middle third

A

dulled tympanic

176
Q

percussion of gi
left Lower third

A

dull

177
Q

percussion of gi
Right o Upper third:

A

tympanic (caecum always have come gas)

178
Q

percussion of gi
Right
o Middle third:

A

dulled tympanic

179
Q

percussion of gi
Right
o Lower third:

A

dull

Equine (25 decks)

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