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Clinical Bacteriology (Prelim) > (Lecture) Infection > Flashcards

(Lecture) Infection Flashcards

1
Q

Saphrophytes came from the Greek words _____ which means decayed and _____ which means plant

A

Sapros
Phyton

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2
Q

Saphrophytes came from the Greek words “sapros” which means _____ and “phyton” which means _____

A

Decayed
Plant

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3
Q

Free-living microbes that live on dead or decaying organic matter.

A

Saprophytes

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4
Q

Saprophytes are found in _____ and _____

A

Soil
Water

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5
Q

Are the microorganisms that live in complete harmony with the host without causing any damage to it.

A

Commensals

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6
Q

Pathogens came from the Greek words _____ which means disease and _____ which means to produce

A

Pathos
Gen

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7
Q

Pathogens came from the Greek words “pathos” which means _____ and “gen” which means _____

A

Disease
To produce

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8
Q

Are the microorganisms or agents, which are capable of producing disease in the host.

A

Pathogens

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9
Q

Pathogens’ ability to cause disease is called _____

A

Pathogenicity

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10
Q

The degree or level of pathogenicity of a microorganism is called _____

A

Virulence

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11
Q

Types of Pathogens:

A

o Primary (frank) Pathogens
o Opportunist Pathogens

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12
Q

Are the organisms, which are capable of producing disease in previously healthy individuals with intact immunological defenses.

A

Primary (frank) Pathogens

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13
Q

Rarely cause disease in individuals with intact immunological and anatomical defenses; able to cause disease only when such defenses are impaired or compromised.

A

Opportunist Pathogens

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14
Q

Defined as the bodily invasion of microorganisms which involve replication of the agent within the host.

A

Infection

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15
Q

The lodgment and multiplication of an agent on the tissues of a host constitute infection.

A

Infection

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16
Q

2 Classifications of Infections

A

Primary Infection
Reinfections

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17
Q

Initial infection of an organisms in
the host

A

Primary Infection

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18
Q

Subsequent infections by the same
organism in the host

A

Reinfections

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19
Q

When a new agent sets up an infection in a host whose resistance is lowered by a preexisting infectious disease

A

Secondary Infection

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20
Q

An infection that is confined in one area
or part of the body.

A

Local Infection

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21
Q

A Type of Infection on which the microbes have spread throughout the body through the blood or lymph

A

Systemic Infection

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22
Q

Cross-infections occurring in
hospitals

A

Nosocomial Infections

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23
Q

Nosocomial Infections came from the Greek word _____

A

Nosocomion Hospital

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24
Q

Refers to physician induced infections resulting from investigative, therapeutic or other procedures.

A

Iatrogenic Infection

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25
Q

A Type of Infection where
clinical effects are not apparent.

A

Inapparent Infection

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26
Q

This Type of Infection is often used as a synonym to inapparent infection

A

Subclinical Infection

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27
Q

A Type of Infection in which the typical or characteristic clinical manifestations of the particular infectious disease are not present.

A

Atypical Infection

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28
Q

A Type of Infection in which some organisms, following infection, may remain in the tissues in a latent or hidden form proliferating and producing clinical disease when the host resistance is lowered.

A

Latent Infection

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29
Q

Human source infections are transmitted through:

A

o Airborne transmission
o Direct contact
o Through infected materials (Fomites)

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30
Q

Humans serving as the microbial reservoir:

A

o Acquisition of “strep” throat through touching
o Hepatitis by blood transfusions
o Gonorrhea, Syphilis, and AIDS by sexual contact
o Tuberculosis by coughing; and the common cold through sneezing.

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31
Q

_____ is a person who harbors the microorganisms without suffering from any ill effect because of it.

A

Carrier

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32
Q

Types of Carrier:

A

Convalescent Carrier
Healthy Carrier
Incubatory Carrier
Temporary Carrier
Chronic Carrier
Contact Carrier
Paradoxical Carrier

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33
Q

An individual who has recovered from the infectious disease but continues to harbor large numbers of pathogen.

A

Convalescent Carrier

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34
Q

An individual who harbors the pathogen but is not ill.

A

Healthy Carrier

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35
Q

An individual who is incubating the pathogen in large numbers but is not yet ill.

A

Incubatory Carrier

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36
Q

Convalescent, healthy, and incubatory carriers may harbor the pathogen for only a brief period (hours, days, or weeks) and lasts less than six months.

A

Temporary Carrier

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37
Q

They harbor the pathogen for long periods (months, years, or life).

A

Chronic Carrier

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38
Q

Applied to a person who acquires the pathogen from a patient.

A

Contact Carrier

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39
Q

A carrier who acquires the pathogens from another carrier.

A

Paradoxical Carrier

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40
Q

Many pathogens are capable of causing infections in both human beings and animals. Therefore, animals may act as a source of infection of such organisms. These, animals serve to maintain the parasite in nature and act as reservoir and they are, therefore, called _____

A

Reservoir Hosts

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41
Q

The diseases and infections, which are transmissible to man from animals are called _____

A

Zoonosis

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42
Q

Example of Bacterial Zoonotic Diseases

A

Anthrax
Brucellosis
Q fever
Leptospirosis
Bovine tuberculosis
Bubonic plague
Salmonella food poisoning

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43
Q

Example of Viral Zoonotic Diseases

A

Rabies
Yellow fever
Cowpox
Monkeypox

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44
Q

Example of Protozoal Zoonotic Diseases

A

Leishmaniasis Toxoplasmosis
Trypano-somiasis Babesiosis

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45
Q

Example of Helminthic Zoonotic Diseases

A

Echinococcosis
Taeniasis
Trichinellosis

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46
Q

Example of Fungal Zoonotic Diseases

A

Microsporum canis Trichophyton verru-cosum

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47
Q

Blood-sucking insects, such as mosquitos, ticks, mites, flies, and lice may transmit
pathogens to human beings and diseases so caused are called _____

A

Arthropod-borne Diseases

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48
Q

Besides acting as vectors, some insects may also act as reservoir hosts (for example, ticks in relapsing fever and spotted fever). They are classified as _____

A

Reservoir Hosts

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49
Q

Insects that transmit infections

A

Vectors

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50
Q

Types of Vectors

A
  1. Mechanical Vector (External)
  2. Biological Vector (Internal)
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51
Q

The disease agent is transmitted mechanically by the arthropod. Examples: Transmission of diarrhea, dysentery, typhoid, food poisoning and trachoma by the house fly.

A

Mechanical Vector

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52
Q

Those in whom the pathogens multiply sufficiently or has undergone a developmental cycle. The interval between the time of entry of the pathogen into the vector and the vector becoming infective is called the extrinsic incubation period.
Examples: Aedes aegypti mosquito in yellow fever and Anopheles mosquito in malaria.

A

Biological Vectors

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53
Q

Examples of Mechanical Vector:

A

Transmission of diarrhea, Dysentery
Typhoid
Food poisoning
Trachoma by the house fly

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54
Q

The interval between the time of entry of the pathogen into the vector
and the vector becoming infective is called the _____

A

Extrinsic Incubation Period

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55
Q

Examples of Biological Vector

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito in
yellow fever
Anopheles mosquito in
malaria

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56
Q

Examples of pathogens that can survive in Soil

A

Spores of tetanus and gangrene
Fungi and parasites

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57
Q

Types of Contact Mode of Transmission

A

Direct Contact
Indirect Contact

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58
Q

Diseases that can be transmitted through Direct Contact includes:

A

Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Lymphogranuloma Venereum
Lymphogranuloma Inguinale
Trichomoniasis
Herpes
Simplex type 2
Hepatitis B
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

59
Q

Indirect contact may be through the agency of _____, which are inanimate objects, such as clothing, pencils or toys which may be contaminated by a pathogen from one person and act as a vehicle for its transmission to another.

A

Fomites

60
Q

Fine particles that are produced when respiratory secretions are aerosolized through sneezing and coughing.

A

Droplet nuclei

61
Q

Disease transmitted by water and food includes:

A

Acute diarrheas
Typhoid fever
Cholera
Polio
Hepatitis A
Food poisoning
Intestinal parasites

62
Q

Defined as an arthropod or any living carrier (e.g. snail) that transports an infectious agent to a susceptible individual.

A

Vector

63
Q

Some pathogens are able to cross the placental barrier and reach the fetus in uterus. This is called _____

A

Vertical Transmission

64
Q

Example of Vertical Transmission

A

So-called TORCH agents (Toxoplasma gondii, Rubella virus, Cytomegalovirus and Herpes virus), Varicella virus, Syphilis, Hepatitis B, Coxsackie B, and AIDS.

65
Q

If meticulous care in asepsis is not taken, infections like AIDS and hepatitis B may sometimes be transmitted during _____, _____, and _____

A

Administration of injections
Lumber Puncture
Catheterization

66
Q

If meticulous care in asepsis is not taken, infections like _____ and _____ may sometimes be transmitted during administration of injections, lumber puncture, and catheterization.

A

AIDS
Hepatitis B

67
Q

It is the ability of a microbe to produce disease in a susceptible individual

A

Pathogenicity

68
Q

Relates to the capability of an organism to cause disease to a susceptible host.

A

Pathogenicity

69
Q

The relative ability of microorganism to cause disease or the degree of pathogenicity

A

Virulence

70
Q

The degree or level of pathogenicity of an
organism

A

Virulence

71
Q

Reduction of virulence is called _____

A

Attenuation

72
Q

A process that reduces the infectivity of microorganisms can enter the body of the host

A

Attenuation

73
Q

The first step of the infectious process is _____

A

Entry of microorganism into the host by one of several ports

74
Q

The first step of the infectious process is the entry of microorganism into the host by one of several ports. List down the several ports as entry of microorganism.

A

The respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, urogenital tract, or through skin that has been cut, punctured, or burned.

75
Q

The initial event in the pathogenesis is the attachment of the bacteria to body surfaces. This attachment is not a chance event but a specific reaction between surface receptors on host cells and adhesive structures (ligands) on the surface of bacteria.

A

Adhesins

76
Q

Adhesions may occur as organized structures, such as:

A

Fimbriae or fibrillae and pili, or as colonization factors

77
Q

Adhesins are usually made of _____ and are _____ in nature

A

Protein
Antigenic

78
Q

Signifies the ability of a pathogen to spread in the host tissues after establishing infection.

A

Invasiveness

79
Q

Highly invasive pathogens characteristically produce _____ or _____

A

Spreading
Generalized Lesions

80
Q

Less invasive pathogens cause _____

A

More localized lesions

81
Q

Some bacteria cause disease by producing toxins, of which there are two general types:

A

Exotoxins
Endotoxins

82
Q

Soluble, heat-labile proteins inactivated at 60°–80°C and diffuse readily into the surrounding medium.

A

Exotoxins

83
Q

Is Exotoxins are soluble or insoluble?

A

Soluble

84
Q

Is Exotoxins heat-labile or heat-stable?

A

Heat-labile

85
Q

In Exotoxins, treatment with formaldehyde converts exotoxin into _____, are thus useful in preparing vaccines

A

Toxoids

86
Q

In Exotoxins, Treatment with _____ converts exotoxin into toxoids, are thus useful in preparing vaccines.

A

Formaldehyde

87
Q

Exotoxins are generally formed by gram- positive
bacteria but may also be produced by some gramnegative organisms such as:

A

Shiga’s dysentery bacillus
Cholera vibrio Enterotoxigenic E. coli.

88
Q

These are heat-stable, lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
components of the outer membranes of gram negative.

A

Endotoxins

89
Q

Intravenous injections of large doses of endotoxin and massive gram-negative septicemias cause endotoxic shock marked by:

A

Fever, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia,
significant fall in blood pressure, circulatory collapse and bloody diarrhea leading to death

90
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Proteins

A

Exotoxins

91
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Heat-labile (inactivated at 60 degrees to 80 degrees Celsius)

A

Exotoxins

92
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Actively secreted by cells; diffuse into the surrounding medium

A

Exotoxins

93
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Readily separable from cultures by physical means, such as filtration

A

Exotoxins

94
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Action often enzymatic

A

Exotoxins

95
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Specific phramacological effect for each exotoxin

A

Exotoxin

96
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Specific tissue affinities

A

Exotoxins

97
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Highly toxic and fatal in microgram quantities

A

Exotoxins

98
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Highly antigenic

A

Exotoxins

99
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Action specifically neutralized by antibody

A

Exotoxins

100
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Usually do not produce fever

A

Exotoxins

101
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Produced by both gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria

A

Exotoxins

102
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Frequently controlled by extrachromosomal genes (e.g. plasmids)

A

Exotoxins

103
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Disease examples - Botulism diphtheria tetanus

A

Exotoxins

104
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Lipopolysaccharide on outer membrane. Lipid A portion is toxic

A

Endotoxins

105
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Heat-stable

A

Endotoxins

106
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Form integral part of the cell wall; do not diffuse into surrounding medium

A

Endotoxins

107
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Obtained only by cell lysis

A

Endotoxins

108
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

No enzymatic action

A

Endotoxins

109
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Nonspecific action of all endotoxins

A

Endotoxins

110
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

No specific tissue affinities

A

Endotoxins

111
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Moderate toxicity. Active only in very large doses

A

Endotoxins

112
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Weakly antigenic

A

Endotoxins

113
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Neutralization by antibody ineffective

A

Endotoxins

114
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Usually produce fever by release of interleukin-1

A

Endotoxins

115
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Produced by gram-negative bacteria only

A

Endotoxins

116
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Synthesized directly by chromosomal genes

A

Endotoxins

117
Q

Identify if Exotoxin or Endotoxin:

Gram-negative infections, meningococcemia

A

Endotoxins

118
Q

Some bacteria such as _____, _____, and _____ can produce a slippery mucoid capsule that prevents the
phagocyte from effectively contacting the bacterium.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae,
Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae

119
Q

Other bacteria evade phagocytosis by producing
specialized surface proteins such as the M protein on _____

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

120
Q

_____ can acquire iron from the host’s iron binding proteins.

A

Siderophores

121
Q

Coagulase is produced by what bacteria?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

122
Q

Thrombin-like enzyme that prevents phagocytosis by forming a fibrin barrier around the bacteria and walling off the lesion.

A

Coagulase

123
Q

_____ produces lecithinase-C and collagenase promoting
spread of infection in tissue.

A

C. perfrinigens

124
Q

C. perfringens
produces _____ and _____ promoting spread of infection in tissue.

A

Lecithinase-C
Collagenase

125
Q

_____ split hyaluronic acid
and thus facilitate the spread of infection along tissue spaces

A

Hyalurodinases

126
Q

Hyaluronidases split _____
and thus facilitate the spread of infection along tissue spaces

A

Hyaluronic Acid

127
Q

An enzyme that promotes the dissolution of blood clots that keep the infection
localized, once dissolved the microbes can disseminate to other areas

A

Streptokinase

128
Q

These include hemolysins capable of destroying erythrocytes and leukocidins damage
polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

A

Cytolysins

129
Q

These enzymes specifically cleave immunoglobulin IgA which protects at mucosal surfaces.

A

IgA 1 proteases

130
Q

Extrachromosomal DNA segments that carry genes for antibiotic resistance known as R-factors.

A

Plamids

131
Q

Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA segments that carry genes for antibiotic resistance known as _____

A

R-factors

132
Q

An infection that is confined in one area, however infection may be present on either the superficial layer of the tissue or deep within the tissue

A

Localized Infections

133
Q

Circulation of bacteria in the blood is known as _____

A

Bacteremia

134
Q

It is the condition where bacteria circulate and multiply in the blood, form toxic products and cause high, swinging type of fever.

A

Septicemia

135
Q

It is a condition where pyogenic bacteria produce septicemia with multiple abscesses in internal organs, such as the spleen, liver and kidney.

A

Pyemia

136
Q

The term used when there is presence of bacteria in the blood but the
microorganisms are not actively multiplying

A

Bacteremia

137
Q

The condition in which the
invading bacteria in the blood presents with
active multiplication

A

Septicemia

138
Q

The presence of post-inducing microorganisms in the blood that results in
localization in different parts of the body

A

Pyemia

139
Q

The disease which is constantly present in a
particular area, e.g. typhoid fever is endemic in most
parts of India.

A

Endemic

140
Q

The disease that spreads rapidly, involving many persons in a particular area at the same time (e.g. Meningococcal meningitis)

A

Epidemic

141
Q

A sudden increase of cases of a particular disease in a given population.

A

Epidemic

142
Q

It is an epidemic that spreads through many
areas of the world involving very large number of
persons within a short period, e.g. cholera, influenza and
enteroviral conjunctivitis.

A

Pandemic

143
Q

A disease that affects populations across large
regions of the world.

A

Pandemic

Clinical Bacteriology (Prelim) (17 decks)

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