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INBDE > Oral Path > Flashcards

Oral Path Flashcards

1
Q

Demographic and location affected by peripheral ossifying fibroma

A

Maxillary anterior gingiva on young adults and kids

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2
Q

Ectomesenchyme derivates include

A

Bone
Cartilage
Connective tissue
Adipocytes
Dental tissues (such as dentin, pulp, cementum, alveolar bone, and periodontal ligament)

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3
Q

Oral hairy leukoplakia is most often seen in patients with a CD4+ count of less than

A

500

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4
Q

biopsy is a technique to screen the oral cavity

A

brush

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5
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris

A

Immune-mediated mucocutaneous
disease that causes desmosome
destruction
● Painful, bleeding, gingiva and mucos
● Requires referral to dermatology for cutaneous involvement
● Associated with positive Nikolsky sign
● Symptomatic management includes dexamethasone rinse

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6
Q

Location of squamous cell carcinoma:

A

Lateral border of the tongue

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7
Q

location of ranula:

A

floor of the mouth

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8
Q

Taste buds are bathed in saliva from the _______ which are minor serous salivary glands.

A

Von Ebner’s glands

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9
Q

_____ is a benign growth of cells native to the organ. (OG)

A

hamartoma

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10
Q

____ is a new and abnormal growth of tissue in the body with uncontrolled proliferation.

A

neoplasm

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11
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

A

Diffuse, blending borders with “ground glass” appearance

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12
Q

Location of dens invaginatus:

A

Permanent maxillary laterals

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13
Q

Cleidocranial dysplasia causes hypodontia or supernumerary teeth

A

supernumerary

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14
Q

Mucous membrane
pemphigoid

A

● Immune-mediated mucocutaneous
disease that causes hemidesmosome
destruction
● Erythematous, sloughing gingiva and
mucosa
● May be painful or painless
● Requires referral to ophthalmology for conjunctiva
involvement
● Symptomatic management includes dexamethasone rinse

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15
Q

ranula occurs due to

A

trauma

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16
Q

Malignant tumor of pigment producing cells:

A

melanoma

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17
Q

Incisional biopsy lesions size

A

larger than 1 cm
Excisional = less than 1 cm

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18
Q

Lesion that arises during periods of hormonal flux (i.e. pregnancy or
puberty):

A

pyogenic granuloma

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19
Q

what biopsy required for pemphigus vulgaris, and membrane pemphigoid,

A

punch biopsy

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20
Q

Van der woude syndrome

A

rare genetic disorder with cleft lip/and or alate and lower lip pits and bifid tongue

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21
Q

Common dentoalveolar anomalies in patients with cleft lip and palate patients include

A

supernumerary and a prognathic mandible.

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22
Q

Peripheral ossifying fibroma may originate as

A

traumatic fibroma

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23
Q

Location of mucocele:

A

lower labial mucose

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24
Q

sickle cell anemia complications include

A

spenic sequestration crosis (splenectomy) and cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

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25
Q

Lymphangioma is associated with

A

Sturge weber syndrome

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26
Q

HPV involved in cervical cancer, oropharyngeal cancer, and other
cancers

A

HPV 16 and 18

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27
Q

Most common odontogenic, developmental cyst

A

Dentigerous cyst

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28
Q

Nikolsky sign

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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29
Q

Crouzon syndrome,

A

causes craniosynostosis (early closure of skull sutures, including those on top of the skull and on the maxilla). Crouzon syndrome, specifically, shows symptoms of:

brachycephaly (short skull anteroposteriorly)
midface deficiency or hypoplasia
frontal bossing (prominent forehead)
hypertelorism (widely separated eyes)
proptosis/exophthalmos (bulging eyes)
class III malocclusion.

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30
Q

Herpangina with sore throat, trouble swallowing and fever, red macules present o soft palate and tonsillar pillars

A

coxsackievirus A

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31
Q

Secondary Sjogren’s syndrome occurs secondary to another autoimmune condition like

A

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis, or scleroderma.

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32
Q

Lisch nodules

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (Von
Recklinghausen’ disease)

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33
Q

where is mouth nicotine stomatitis occur

A

palate,
occurs due to extreme heat in mouth from smoking

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34
Q

apthous ulcer associated with

A

bechet’s disease and crohn’s disease

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35
Q

Lyme disease symptoms

A

bull’s eye or target rash as well as fever, chills, headache, fatigue, and muscle or joint aches.

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36
Q

Introrally, HSV usually appears on

A

herpes simplex presents mainly on keratinized tissues (e.g. vermillion border of lips, hard palate, attached gingiva) in immunocompetent patients

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37
Q

HbA1c count every ____ months
whats ideal for well-controlled diabetes

A

3 months
6.5-7

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38
Q

Pierre Robin Sequence is most commonly associated with ___________________which can present with the same craniofacial abnormalities.

A

Stickler syndrome , a condition that affects connective tissues, specifically collagen

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39
Q

triad of symptoms seen in Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome.

A

facial paralysis, fissured tongue, and granulomatous cheilitis

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40
Q

tx of traumatic bone cyst

A

Treatment includes curettage in an attempt to initiate bleeding to allow for healing and bony filling of the cavity.

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41
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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42
Q

Calcified mass in the maxillary sinus:

A

antrolith

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43
Q

HIV medications like Neucleoside reverse transcriptase (lamivudine (Epivir®) and zidovudine (Retrovir®) can cause what oral manifestation

A

hyperpigmentation in oral mucosal tissue

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44
Q

Neoplasm in the oral cavity:

A

fibroma

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45
Q

Sickle cell anemia causes

A

swelling in extremities, episodes of pain, abdomen. pallow and delayed eruption of dentin

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46
Q

differentiate mucous membrane pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris

A

Mucous membrane pemphigoid: presents in the mouth as bleeding gingiva, erosions, ulcerations, and sloughing tissue. Extraoral involvement is often to the eyes.
Pemphigus vulgaris: presents in the mouth as widespread ragged-appearing ulcerations. Extraoral involvement is often to the skin, and oral lesions can precede skin lesions in some cases.

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47
Q

apert syndrome

A

crocephalosyndactyly, is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder that causes craniosynostosis, acrocephaly (tall skull), byzantine arch (narrow palate with high vault), and syndactyly (fusion of fingers and toes).

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48
Q

A lymphoepithelial cyst

A

is a slow-growing benign lesion that most commonly presents on the ventral surface and lateral borders of the tongue and floor of the mouth.

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49
Q

SCC
1st most common location
what’s the risk?

A

1st most comon: lateral border of tongue
2nd: floor of mouth
Risk: alcohol and tobacco

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50
Q

Pierre Robin Sequence is most commonly associated with______ which can present with the same craniofacial abnormalities.

A

Stickler syndrome
- condition that affects connective tissues specifically collagen

51
Q

The______ virus most commonly causes hand-foot-and-mouth disease and herpangina.

A

coxsackie

52
Q

The clinical findings of a blue macule that blanches on compression, suggests the diagnosis of a

A

varix. A varix is an abnormally dilated blood or lymphatic vessel, commonly presented as a vein.

53
Q

Location of KCOT (keratocystic odontogenic tumor)

A

Posterior ascending
ramus of mandible

54
Q

presents on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue as a pebbly surface
with numerous translucent vesicles:

A

Lymphangioma

55
Q

mass composed of normal cells in an abnormal location in the body.

A

Choristoma

56
Q

Addison’s disease is an

A

autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands resulting in a pathognomonic finding of generalized hyper-pigmented blue-black or brown macules on the tongue, buccal mucosa, and hard palate.

57
Q

Exudate from the abscess will contain a high abundance of

A

neutrophils, lymphocytes, necrotic tissue, and microbial colonies.

58
Q

Mass found on the midline of the neck and moves during swallowing

A

thyroglossal duct cyst

59
Q

Bacteria to cause peptic ulcer disease:

A

H. Pylori

60
Q

5 P’s for exophytic pink lesion

A

peripheral ossifying fibroma
peripheral giant cell granuloma
parulis
pyogenic granuloma
fibroepithelial polyp.

61
Q

kaposi sarcoma what

A

hhv 8
It initially presents as purple, red, or brown spots often on the hard palate, gingiva, or tongue that can resemble bruises and later develops a nodular appearance with or without secondary ulceration.

62
Q

Oral mucosa is derived from

A

oral ectoderm and digestive endoderm.

63
Q

location of granular cell tumor:

A

Dorsal part of the tongue

64
Q

Bohn’s nodules

A

are white-yellow firm papules found on the hard palate.

65
Q

A key oral finding is crusty ulcerations on the vermilion borders of the lips.

A

erythema mutiforme
have target lesion
are immune-mediated

66
Q

The most common cause of failure for metal fiber posts is .

A

root fracture

67
Q

Frictional hyperkeratosis occurs

A

due to cheeck biting. it is also called morsicatio buccarum

68
Q

______ rinses can be used in the treatment of certain inflammatory and autoimmune conditions such as lichen planus.

A

Corticosteroid rinses such as dexamethasone

69
Q

sign of pemphigus vulgaris:

A

nikolsky sign

70
Q

Ramsay hunt syndrome

A

(herpes zoster oticus) occurs when a shingles outbreak affects the facial nerve near one of your ears.
Limited mobility of facial muscles and tinnitus on the right side

71
Q

opportunistic oral infection:

A

Candidiasis

72
Q

Signs of Eagle syndrome include

A
  1. Pain during swallowing and head movement
  2. Shooting pains from the throat to the jaw
  3. Ringing of the ears
  4. Feeling like something is stuck in the throat (globus sensation)
73
Q

Location of osteonecrosis of the jaw

A

posterior mandible

74
Q

Crepitus is characteristic of

A

osteoarthritis of the TMJ.

75
Q

periapical scar

A

well defined radiolucency found after endo treatment. have dense fibrous collagenous tissue

76
Q

what is another name for mandibulofacial dysostosis

A

treacher collin’s syndrome

77
Q

denture related oral pathologies

A

: Epulis fissuratum and inflammatory
papillary hyperplasia

78
Q

_____ is a type of germ cell tumor made of several different types of tissues such as hair, muscle teeth or bone.

A

teratoma

79
Q

The chief risk factors for oral squamous cell carcinomas (SCC),

A

are tobacco and alcohol.

80
Q

bacteria associated with erysipelas, a superficial infection of the skin, which results in a tender red rash with raised borders and is possibly accompanied by a high fever, chills, headache, and malaise

A

streptococcus pneumoniae and streptococcus pyogenes (Group A strep)

81
Q

Horner syndroe

A

Ptosis
Miosis
Anhidrosis

82
Q

biopsy that has Verocay bodies in Antoni-A areas, which is a classical histological feature of

A

schwannoma.

83
Q

difference btw ecchymosis and petechiae

A

An ecchymosis is a site of localized internal bleeding that is larger than 10 mm, whereas petechiae are pinpoint hemorrhages that manifest as small (1-2 mm) red or purple spots on the skin and are caused by minor bleeds from broken capillary blood vessels.

84
Q

bacteria in abscesses, boils, furuncles, and cellulitis), as well as more systemic infections (e.g. pneumonia and endocarditis)

A

staphylococcus aureus

85
Q

A Chancre is a non-painful ulcer at the site of inoculation, seen in

A

primary syphilis.

86
Q

what needs to be ruled out for central giant cell granuloma

A

hyperparathyroidism

87
Q

Odontogenic cyst

A

Radicular cyst

88
Q

Finding in the mandibular canine-premolar region along the lateral root
surface of a vital tooth:

A

lateral periodontal cyst

89
Q

Scurvy

A

is a disease caused by a severe vitamin C deficiency and commonly presents with swollen, bleeding gums.

90
Q

what is epithelial dysplasia

A

Abnormal maturation and changes in the epithelium stratification characterize oral epithelial dysplasia

91
Q

most common failure of implants it

A

heavy smoking, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, bisphosphonate therapy, and chemotherapy or radiation.

92
Q

cleidocranial dysplasia, features

A

defective or missing clavicles, and distinct facial features including:

Frontal bossing
Enlarged fontanelles
Hypertelorism
Maxillary hypoplasia
Mandibular prognathism

93
Q

Specifically, a deficiency in which vitamin can accounts for approximately 25% of angular cheilitis cases.

A

vitamin B2

94
Q

_____ is a medication that is known to precipitate recurrence of infection by varicella zoster virus.

A

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan®) - chemotherapy and immunosuppressive drug

95
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

● CRAB: Calcium elevation (hypercalcemia), Renal failure,
Anemia, and Bone damage
Results in multiple “punched out”
radiolucencies
● IV bisphosphonates and corticosteroids

96
Q

Benign salivary gland tumor:

A

pleomorphic adenoam

97
Q

Fibrous dysplasia is associated with

A

McCune Albright Syndrometr

98
Q

Treponema pallidum is the causative agent of

A

syphilis

99
Q

Mononucleosis:

A

Caused by EBV
Mono/Kissing disease
Can increase stimulated salivary output
fatigue, fever, rash, swollen glands, sore throat, and drooling.

100
Q

biopsy for suspected herpetic lesions or candidiasis.

A

cytologic smear

101
Q

treacher collin’s syndrome

A

● Genetic disorder that affects the
development of facial bones and
associated tissues
● Underdeveloped cheekbones and lower jaw
● Dental abnormalities, including hypodontia
● Cleft palate
● Small, malformed ears
● Downward slanting eyes
● Hearing loss
● Breathing difficulties

102
Q

Gumma is a soft, granulomatous, tumor-like mass that occurs in

A

tertiary syphilis.

103
Q

Transposition

A

Maxillary canine with 1st premolar

104
Q

Scleroderma oral manifestations
(it is autoimmune with abnormal growth of connective tissue) hardening and tightening of skin

A

microstomia
xerostomia
erosions of the mandible
widened periodontal ligament space.

105
Q

Teeth associated with dentigerous cyst:

A

Canines and third molars

106
Q

Finding in patients Epstein Barr virus or HIV patients:

A

oral hairy leukoplakia

107
Q

most common oral ulcer

A

traumatic ulcer

108
Q

Chemical burn - wipe off or not?

A

Chemical burns are lesions that can develop anywhere in the oral cavity and cause a painful white plaque that can be wiped off.

109
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune cause of xerostomia, which can cause various other issues such as

A

angular cheilitis, decay, and traumatic ulcerations.

110
Q

hyperparathyroidism

A

brown tumors

111
Q

second most common oral ulcer

A

apthous ulcer (canker sore)

112
Q

Bacteria for dental caries: S

A

streptococcus mutans

113
Q

tongue tie

A

ankyloglossia

114
Q

Location of nasopalatine cyst:

A

: Anterior hard palate posterior to the
maxillary central incisors

115
Q

1st lime of tx for Ramsay hunt syndrome

A

corticosteroids such as prednisone and antiviral medications such as acyclovir.

116
Q

Varicella zoster virus remains latent predominantly in the

A

trigeminal ganglion, but also in the dorsal root ganglion

117
Q

geographic tongue is due to

A

stress, hormones, nutritional deficiencies

118
Q

Name:
HHV 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8,

A

Herpes simplex virus 1 (HHV-1): Gingivostomatitis, keratoconjunctivitis, herpes labialis, herpetic whitlow, encephalitis

Herpes simplex virus 2 (HHV-2): Genital herpes, neonatal herpes

Varicella-Zoster virus (HHV-3): Chickenpox, shingles, encephalitis

Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4): Mononucleosis, Burkitt lymphoma

Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5): Mononucleosis, congenital CMV, AIDS retinitis

Human herpesviruses 6 and 7 (HHV-6, HHV-7): Roseola infantum

Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8): Kaposi sarcoma

119
Q

______is a non-wipeable white plaque on the vestibule and can show up after prolonged use of smokeless tobacco.

A

Smokeless tobacco keratosis

120
Q

The most common cause of failure for carbon fiber posts is .

A

decementation bc thermal expansion btw carbon fiber ad dentin, aging of cement

121
Q

Difference between idiopathic osteosclerosis and condensing osteitis

A

Idiopathic osteosclerosis presents with a radiopaque lesion at the apex of a tooth and an intact lamina dura.
Condensing osteitis is common in teeth with deep restorations or decay and appears at the apex of a non-vital tooth.

122
Q

Location of periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia:

A

mandibular anterior teeth

123
Q

mucous retention cyst

A

radiopaque, dome-shaped structure with a rounded edge

124
Q

Salivary gland malignancy:

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

INBDE (10 decks)

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