Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What are signs and symptoms of infectious disease

A
  • systemic symptoms: fever, chills, malaise, nausea and vomiting
  • 102º rule, divides conditions into two groups
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what can a fever > 104 cause

A

delirium or seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

acute infection fever

A
  • lasts 7-10 days and goes up and down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sepsis and ongoing infections - Fever

A

> 10 days and up to 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

intermittent fever

A

temperature goes to normal within 24 hours (may come back)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Remittent Fever

A

fluctuates but not back to normal (normal with viral infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sustained or continuous Fever

A

remains above normal within minimal variations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recurrent or relapsing fever

A

fever for a few days and then goes away but then comes back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

integumentary symptoms of infectious disease

A
  • Purulent drainage from abscess, open wound or - skin lesion
  • Skin rash, red streaks
  • Bleeding from gums or into joint: Joint effusion or erythema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cardio symptoms of infectious disease

A
  • Petechial lesions
  • Tachycardia (see aneurysm and thrombophlebitis)
  • Hypotension
  • Changes in pulse rate (may increase of decrease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CNS symptoms of infectious disease

A
  • Altered level of consciousness, confusion, seizures
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Memory loss
  • Stiff neck, myalgia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

GI symptoms of infectious disease

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GU symptoms of infectious disease

A
  • Dysuria or flank pain
  • Hematuria
  • Oliguria
  • urgency , frequency to use the bathroom
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Upper respiratory tract symptoms of infectious disease

A
  • tachypnea/dyspnea
  • Cough
  • Hoarseness
  • Sore throat
  • Nasal drainage
  • Sputum production
  • Oxygen desaturations
  • Decreased exercise tolerance
  • Prolonged ventilatory support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why are older adults more susceptible to infections

A
  • Changes in cell-mediated or t-cell and b-cell function
  • Experience increased morbidity and mortality
  • Need for additional vaccines and boosters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Infection defintion

A

an organism establishes a parasitic relationship with host (begins with transmission of an infectious organism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three outcomes of an infection

A
  1. Contaminate the body surface and be destroyed by first line of defense
  2. A subclinical infection may occur causing immune response of the host
  3. A clinically apparent infection - one or more clinical symptoms, infectious disease
    More involve
    The early it is caught the easier to resolve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Colonization

A

pathogen presented in host but host is asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Incubation period

A

time between pathogen entering host and appearance of clinical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Latent infection:

A

after microorganism has replicated but remains inactive in host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Period of communicability:

A

this time period when an organism can be shed and infect others through direct or indirect contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Types of organism

A
  • virus
  • mycoplasmas
  • bacteria
  • Rickettsiae
  • chlamydiae
  • Protozoa
  • fungi
  • prions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mycoplasmas

A

are unusual, self-replicating bacteria that have no cell wall components and very small genomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rickettsiae:

A

primarily pathogens transmitted through a bite (mosquitoes and tics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Chlamydiae:

A

require host cells for replication contain DNA and RNA
- susceptible to antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Protoza:

A

a single cell or group of non differential cells loosely held together and not forming tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Fungi:

A

are unicellular to filamentous organisms possessing hyphae (filamentous outgrowths) surrounded by cell walls and containing nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Prions:

A

proteinaceous, infectious particles consisting of proteins but without nucleic acids
- transmitted from animal to humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HAI

A
  • Healthcare acquired infection aka nosocomial infections are infections acquired during hospitalization
  • Joint infections
  • Don’t have it going in but you get it going out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Reservoir

A

an environment in which an organism can live and multiply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The portal of exit:

A

place where parasites leaves reservoir (secretions, fluids, excretions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mode of transmission: routes

A
  • Contact (direct or indirect)
  • Airborne
  • Droplet
  • vehicle/vector borne
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Portal of entry - examples

A

ingestion, inhalation, bites, or through contact with mucous membranes, percutaneously or transplacentally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the 3 lines of defense for the host

A
  • external
  • inflammatory process
  • immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Principle pathogens:

A

regularly cause disease in people with apparently intact defense systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Opportunist pathogens:

A

do not cause disease in people with intact host defense systems but can clearly cause devastating disease in many hospitalized and immunocompromised clients
Can still impact the host in an intact immune system

37
Q

Pathogenicity:

A

the ability of the organism to induce disease, depends on the organism’s speed of reproduction in the host, the extent of damage it causes to tissues, and the strength of an toxin released by the pathogen

38
Q

Virulence:

A

refers to the potency of the pathogen in producing severe disease and is measured by the case fatality rate

39
Q

Ways to control transmission of infectious diseases

A
  • The use of barrier an desolation
  • Comprehensive immunizations including the required immunization of travelers to or emigrants from endemic areas
  • Drug prophylaxis
  • Improved nutrition, living conditions and sanitation
  • Correction of environmental factors
  • Handwashing
  • Social distancing
40
Q

Transmission based precautions and prevention guidelines

A
  • Standard precautions: Personal protective equipment, Gloves, Face protection, Gowns, Cleaning equipment
  • Airborne precautions
  • Droplet precautions
  • Contact precautions
41
Q

Specific time frames for return to work

A
  • depend on Based on incubation period, how it is transmitted, symptoms etc.
  • Clinical tests play into as well
42
Q

Gram negative infections

A
  • bacterial infection
  • enterobacteriaceae: kebsiella, e-coli, proteus, serratia, yersinia
  • All gram negative (this is what they test for to see if you have these bacteria- response to staining
43
Q

Clostridioides what is it?

A

change in protective flora of the enteric system
- cuts down on good bacteria

44
Q

Clostridioides clinical manifestations

A

abdominal tenderness, cramping, diarrhea
- symptoms with 24 hours and loose bowl
can cause dehydration

45
Q

Clostridioides treatment

A
  • stop taking antibiotics
  • take flagyl, vancomycin, fidaxomocin, taken with probiotics
    ( these are higher. levels antibiotics)
46
Q

Staphylococcal infections general

A
  • bacteria are Among the most common bacterial pathogens normally residing on the skin
  • Staphylococcal bacterial are the leading cause of nosomial and community acquired infections accounting for about 13% of all hospital infections each year if they penetrate skin
47
Q

Staphylococcal s-aureus strain
a) what is it and how is it spread?
b) risk factors?
c) common infection sites?
d) how does it start?

A
  • most common strain that causes problems
  • spread by direct contact but needs a skin breech
  • risk factors: surgical or burn cases, diabetes, neutropenic, chronic diseases, prosthetics, HIV
  • bones, joints, kidney, lungs and heart valves are the most common sites
  • suppuration (bubbles) and abscess formation
  • if caught early prognosis is good
48
Q

Streptococcal infections: streptococcus pyogenes range of diseases it causes

A
  • skin infection to acute self-limited pharyngitis to post infectious syndrome of rheumatic fever and post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
49
Q

Streptococcal infections: Group A Streptococci (GAS) - transmission

A
  • is typical transmitted via contact with respiratory droplets
50
Q

two categories of GAS Streptococcal infections:

A
  • suppurative
  • nonsuppurative
51
Q

Suppurative Streptococcal infections:

A
  • strep throat, scarlet fever, impetico, necrotizing fascista, streptococcal cellulitis, streptococcal myositis, puerperal sepsis, toxic shock syndrome
52
Q

nonsuppurative Streptococcal infections:

A
  • rheumatic fever,
  • acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
53
Q

Streptococcal infections: Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat) clinical manifestations

A
  • sore throat,
  • fever,
  • rash/ palatal petechiae,
  • tonsillar enlargement,
  • tender cervical lymph nodes
54
Q

Streptococcal infections: Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat): diagnosis

A
  • physical exam, throat culture and lab testing
55
Q

Streptococcal infections: Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat): treatment/complications

A
  • antibiotics
  • complications: post streptococcal sequelae, acute rheumatic fever or acute arthritis
56
Q

Streptococcal infections: Scarlet fever - general

A
  • usually follows untreated strep throat but may also occur after wound infection s
  • common in children 2-10
    acquired by inhalation or direct contact to oral secretions
57
Q

Streptococcal infections: Scarlet fever: scarlet fever - clinical manifestations

A

rash first appears on upper chest and then to extremities
- Spares the soles and palms
- strawberry tongue
- sore throat
- fever

58
Q

Streptococcal infections: Scarlet fever - diagnosis

A
  • presentation
59
Q

Streptococcal infections: Scarlet fever - treatment

A
  • antibiotics
60
Q

Streptococcal infections: impetigo - general

A
  • principally caused by GAS
  • most commonly in children aged 2-5 especially in hot and humid weather
61
Q

Streptococcal infections: impetigo clinical manifestations

A
  • most common on face, red itchy sores
  • clear or fluid pus
    crusty
62
Q

Streptococcal infections: impetigo diagnosis

A
  • observation
63
Q

Streptococcal infections: impetigo treatment

A
  • antibiotics
64
Q

Streptococcal infections: impetigo complications

A
  • can lead to lymphadenitis (causes streaking due to overloading the lymphatic system) or cellulitis
65
Q

Streptococcal cellulitis and lymphangitis - clinical manifestations

A
  • redness
  • shiny
  • swollen
  • bullae
  • fever
  • pain
66
Q

Streptococcal cellulitis and lymphangitis diagnosis

A
  • observation
67
Q

Streptococcal cellulitis and lymphangitis - treatment

A
  • antibiotics
68
Q

Streptococcal infections: Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS) where does it mainly occur

A
  • females
  • vaginal
  • pharynx
  • mucosa
  • skin
69
Q

Streptococcal infections: Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS) symptoms

A
  • initial 24-48 hours influenza like
  • pain
  • necrotizing fasciitis
  • systemic signs: tachypnea, hypotension, delirium, organ failure
  • bright red on hand sand feet
70
Q

Streptococcal infections: Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS) treatmetn

A
  • IV antibiotics
    surgical debridement
71
Q

Streptococcal infections: necrotizing fasciitis clinical manifestions

A
  • tenderness
  • pain
  • fever
  • edema
  • progresses rapidly along fascial plane,
  • skin darkens
72
Q

Streptococcal infections: necrotizing fasciitis diagnosis

A
  • difficult pain disproportionate to appearance initially
  • deep pain
  • imaging and blood testing
73
Q

Streptococcal infections: necrotizing fasciitis treatment

A
  • surgery, broad spectrum antibiotics
74
Q

Streptococcal infections: Streptococcal myositis- clinical manifestations

A
  • severe pain and inflammation in affected muscle with few abnormalities of overlying skin
75
Q

Streptococcal infections: Streptococcal myositis- diagnosis

A
  • at time of surgery and biopsy
76
Q

Streptococcal infections: Streptococcal myositis- treatmetn

A
  • surgery, broad spectrum antibiotics
77
Q

Streptococcal infections: Puerperal sepsis- clinical manifestations

A
  • following abortion or delivery
  • fever abdominal pain
  • hypotension
  • TSS
78
Q

Streptococcal infections: Puerperal sepsis- diagnosis

A
  • observation
  • surgery
79
Q

Streptococcal infections: Puerperal sepsis- treatment

A
  • surgery
  • broad spectrum antibiotics
80
Q

Streptococcal infections group B streptococci:

A
  • part of normal vaginal flora found in 40% of pregnant women
  • 50% of newborns are colonized
  • 1% of babies colonized develop infections
  • bacteremia, meningitis, pneumonia, hypotension
  • acquired as they pass through birth canal
81
Q

Streptococcal infections group B streptococci: S. agalactiae treatment

A
  • antibiotics
  • in adults: most common in skin, soft tissue infections, primer bacteremia and pneumonia
  • UTI, upper respiratory, septic arthritis, osteomyelitis, endocarditis and meningitis
  • higher rate of mortality in compromised adults
82
Q

Streptococcal infections group B streptococci: Pneumonia and others caused by S. Pneumoniae - clinical manifestations

A
  • acute onset of fever, chills, pleuritic with pleuritic chest pain, and dyspnea with productive cough or purulent sputum that may be blood tinged
  • progresses radpily over 24-48 hours and the mortality rate is hight without treatment
83
Q

Streptococcal infections group B streptococci: Pneumonia and others caused by S. Pneumoniae - diagnosis

A
  • lab examination of fluids
84
Q

Streptococcal infections group B streptococci: Pneumonia and others caused by S. Pneumoniae - treatmetn

A

antibiotics and immunizations

85
Q

Streptococcal infections group B streptococci: clostridial myonecrosis (GAS Gangrene)

A

the death of body tissue usually associated with loss of vascular supply followed by bacterial invasion and putrefaction

86
Q

Streptococcal infections group B streptococci: clostridial myonecrosis (GAS Gangrene) - clinical manifestations

A
  • sudden sever pain, ischemia, tender edematous
  • skin darkens
  • discharge initially
  • cellulitis
  • myositis
87
Q

Streptococcal infections group B streptococci: clostridial myonecrosis (GAS Gangrene)- diagnosis

A
  • radiographs, CT, MRI, culture, biopsy
88
Q

Streptococcal infections group B streptococci: clostridial myonecrosis (GAS Gangrene) - treatment/complications

A
  • surgical debridement and antibiotics and psychological support
  • complications: tachycardia, hemolytic anemia, septic shock, liver necrosis, renal failure