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PSYC 251: Physiological Psychology > Midterm STUDY DECK (Ch. 1-8, not 5) > Flashcards

Midterm STUDY DECK (Ch. 1-8, not 5) Flashcards

1
Q

Physiologicial psychology is called _____ nowadays.

A

Behavioral neuroscience

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2
Q

Are there rules for using subjects and participants in psychology experiments?

A

Yes! The research must be humane and the participants must give informed consent. All research must also pass the IRB and IACUC. #neuroethics

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3
Q

Why do we “see” lights when we rub our eyes?

A

Rubbing your eyes increases the pressure within the eyeball, which activates ganglion cells in the retina in the same way as light does – FIRE THE POTENTIALS!!

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4
Q

Is the speed of nerve conduction the same as the speed of light?

A

Nope.

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5
Q

True or false: the further away the neuron is from the brain, the slower it takes to for the action potential to travel there.

A

True

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6
Q

The CNS is made up of:

A

brain, spinal cord, nerves

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7
Q

The PNS is made up of:

A

sensory neurons, motor neurons, interneurons

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8
Q

Parts of the neuron:

A

Soma
Axon
Dendrites
Terminal buttons

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9
Q

The ____ of the neuron contains the nucleus

A

soma

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10
Q

The ____ of the neuron carries information from the cell body to the terminal buttons

A

axon

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11
Q

Purpose of the dendrites:

A

Receive messages from other neurons’ terminal buttons. Synapse!!

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12
Q

Which part of the neuron secretes neurotransmitters?

A

The terminal buttons, obviously

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13
Q

What is axoplasmic transport?

A

An active process that propels substances along microtubule tracks that run inside the length of the axon

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14
Q

Anterograde axoplasmic transport is accomplished by _____ protein.

A

kinesin

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15
Q

Retrograde axoplasmic transport is accomplished by _____ protein.

A

dynein

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16
Q

Autoreceptor

A

A receptor molecule located on a presynaptic neuron that responds to the neurotransmitter released by that neuron

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17
Q

What is the area postrema?

A

The weak part of the blood brain barrier (bonus points: it controls vomiting by detecting toxic substances entering the blood)

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18
Q

What does the blood brain barrier do?

A

It is a selectively permeable barrier that regulates the composition of the ECF and keeps messages from being disrupted

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19
Q

The ______ is the powerhouse of the cell, producing ___

A

mitochondria; ATP

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20
Q

Supporting cells of the CNS:

A

Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia

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21
Q

Functions of astrocytes:

A

Physical support
Clean up crew via phagocytosis
Produce chemicals and provide nourishment (lactate + glycogen)

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22
Q

Functions of oligodendrocytes:

A

Provide support to axons
Produce myelin sheath for CNS

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23
Q

Functions of the microglia:

A

Phagocytes
Immune system – inflammation!

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24
Q

What cells produce the myelin sheath in the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocytes

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25
Q

What cells produce the myelin sheath in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

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26
Q

What is the space between the myelin sheaths called?

A

The node of Ranvier?

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27
Q

Inside the axon, the resting potential is ____mV

A

-70

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28
Q

Hyperpolarization occurs when the membrane potential increases/decreases.

A

increases

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29
Q

Depolarization occurs when the membrane potential increases/decreases

A

decreases

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30
Q

When the inside of an axon is more negatively charged than the outside, ________ occurs.

A

hyperpolarization

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31
Q

When the inside of an axon is more positively charged than the outside, ______ occurs.

A

depolarization

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32
Q

What causes an action potential?

A

A burst of rapid depolarization followed by hyperpolarization

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33
Q

Describe diffusion

A

Molecules move from high to low to achieve equilibrium

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34
Q

Describe electrostatic pressure

A

The force exerted by the attraction/repulsion of ions
Opposites attract; identical repulse

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35
Q

Positive ions (give two examples)

A

Cations – Na+ K+

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36
Q

Negative ions (give two examples)

A

Anions – Cl- A-

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37
Q

Which has more sodium in it – ECF or ICF?

A

ECF

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38
Q

Explain the A-

A

It’s stuck in the ICF. Can’t get out. End of story.

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39
Q

Explain the Cl-

A

It’s mostly in the ECF, but diffusion pushes it into the cell, but then BANG, electrostatic pressure pushes it back out like a boss.

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40
Q

Explain the Na+

A

Mostly extracellular, diffusion and electrostatic pressure pull it in the cell

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41
Q

Explain the K+

A

Mostly kept inside, but diffusion pushes out while electrostatic pressures forces it back in

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42
Q

So…how does the cell keep most of the Na+ outside, even though both forces want it inside?

A

Well, the membrane is helpful, but it’s mostly the sodium-potassium pump’s doing.

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43
Q

The sodium-potassium pump exchanges _ Na+ for _ K+.

A

3; 2

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44
Q

Explain the rate law

A

More potentials shot off = more intense stimulus

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45
Q

Explain the all-or-nothing law

A

An action potential either shoots or it don’t

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46
Q

True or false: The action potential gets retriggered at each node of ranvier.

A

TRUE

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47
Q

Saltatory conduction

A

the rapid method by which nerve impulses move down a myelinated axon with excitation occurring only at nodes of Ranvier

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48
Q

How does Novocaine work?

A

Blocks the Sodium channels so that the cell can’t fire.

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49
Q

Cranial nerves mnemonic:

A

OOOTTAFVGVAH

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50
Q

Two parts of the forebrain:

A

telencephalon (cortex, limbic system, basal ganglia) and diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary gland)

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51
Q

Parts of the telencephalon

A

Cortex, limbic system, basal ganglia

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52
Q

Parts of the diencephalon

A

thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary gland

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53
Q

The midbrain is also called the _______.

A

mesencephalon

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54
Q

The mesencephalon contains the _______ and ______.

A

tectum; tegmentum

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55
Q

The neural axis goes from _____ to ____.

A

bottom of spinal cord to front of forebrain

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56
Q

What is the real name of the epidural in childbirth?

A

Caudal block

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57
Q

The superior and inferior colliculi are located in the ______.

A

Tectum

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58
Q

The inferior colliculi are part of the ______ system

A

auditory

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59
Q

The superior colliculi are part of the _____ system

A

visual

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60
Q

The LGN/MGN is located in the ________ and is part of the visual system.

A

LGN; thalamus

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61
Q

The LGN/MGN is located in the ______ and is part of the auditory system

A

MGN

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62
Q

Which lobe is the M1 (primary motor cortex) stripe located on?

A

Frontal

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63
Q

Which lobe is the S1 (primary somatosensory cortex) stripe located on?

A

Parietal

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64
Q

Which lobe is the V1 located?

A

Occipital

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65
Q

Which lobe is the V2 located?

A

Occipital

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66
Q

Which lobe is the auditory cortex located?

A

Temporal

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67
Q

Broca’s area is located on the _____ lobe.

A

frontal

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68
Q

Wernicke’s area is located on the ______ lobe

A

Temporal

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69
Q

The prefrontal cortex is located on the _____ lobe

A

Frontal

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69
Q

The premotor cortex is located on the _____ lobe

A

frontal

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70
Q

Drug

A

An exogenous chemical not necessary for normal cellular functioning that significantly alters the functions of certain cells of the body when taken in relatively low doses

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71
Q

Antagonist

A

Drug that stops vesicles from dumping their NTs

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72
Q

Agonist

A

Drug that triggers the dumping of NTs

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73
Q

Direct agonist

A

Drug acts like a real NT and binds to post synaptic receptors – like a key!

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74
Q

Direct Antagonist

A

Drug that can bind to postsynaptic receptors but doesn’t open ion channels (wrong key that gets stuck)

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75
Q

Indirect Antagonist

A

Drug binds to a secondary binding site and stops the ion channels from opening

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76
Q

Direct agonist

A

Drug binds to a secondary binding site and helps/boosts it

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77
Q

If you block the autoreceptors, you have an agonist/antagonist

A

agonist (double negative)

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78
Q

If you stimulate the autoreceptors, you have an agonist/antagonist

A

antagonist (double negative)

79
Q

The part of the main terminal button that is sensitive to the axoaxonic terminal button is called the _______ ________.

A

presynaptic heteroreceptors

80
Q

True or false: Usually when the autoreceptors of dendrites release NTs, it serves to slow down the firing rate of the neuron.

A

True

81
Q

When you block dendritic receptors, it’s an agonist/antagonist

A

agonist

82
Q

When you stimulate dendritic receptors, it’s an agonist/antagonist

A

antagonist

83
Q

Enzymes control the steps in synthesizing NTs. If a drug inactivates one of these enzymes, then it is an agonist/antagonist.

A

antagonist

84
Q

Making more of a precursor to an NT is a agonist/antagonist.

A

agonist

85
Q

If you slow down reuptake, it has an agonist/antagonist effect.

A

agonist

86
Q

If you block the enzymes that destroy NTs, then it has an agonist/antagonist effect.

A

agonst

87
Q

To treat myasthenia gravis, you can “turn up” the effects of ACh by preventing __________ from being released.

A

AChE

88
Q

ACh controls _____ ____ in the PNS

A

muscular movement

89
Q

ACh controls ______, ______, and _____ in the CNS

A

REM sleep, learning, memory

90
Q

Botulinum is an agonist/antagonist

A

antagonist

91
Q

Black widow venom is an agonist/antagonist

A

agonist

92
Q

What are the 2 types of ACh receptors?

A

Nicotinic
Muscarinic

93
Q

Tell me everything you know about the ACh receptor muscarinic:

A

metabotropic – slower + longer lasting – BRAIN – blocked by belladonna

94
Q

Tell me everything you know about the ACh receptor nicotinic:

A

Isotropic – fast – muscles – blocked by curare

95
Q

Which two amino acids act as neurotransmitters?

A

Glutamate; GABA

96
Q

Name the monoamines

A

Dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine, serotonin, histamine

97
Q

Is Prozac an agonist or antagonist? What NT does it impact?

A

Antagonist; serotonin (SSRI)

98
Q

What type of patient would get a dopamine agonist?

A

Parkinson’s

99
Q

What type of patient would get a dopamine antagonist?

A

Schizo, bipolar, psychosis

100
Q

Is the placebo effect stopped by opiate-blocking drugs?

A

Yes

101
Q

Glutamate is excitatory/inhibitory

A

excitatory

102
Q

GABA is excitatory/inhibitory

A

inhibitory

103
Q

_______ have a “modulating” effect, meaning that it doesn’t give actual information, just boosts or reduces it.

A

Monoamines

104
Q

Peptides get destroyed by ______, not reuptake.

A

enzymes

105
Q

True or false: Lipids can get through the blood brain barrier

A

True. Uh oh.

106
Q

Examples of lipids:

A

cannabinoids, opiods

107
Q

Soluble gases:

A

nitric oxide

108
Q

The dose-response curve measures the _______ of a drug

A

effectiveness

109
Q

The most desirable drug has a high/low affinity for sites of action that produce therapeutic effects and a high/low affinity for sites of action that produce toxic effects.

A

high; low

110
Q

Tell me about the rods in your eyes.

A

night vision, monochromatic, 120million of them, peripheral retina, poor acuity

111
Q

Tell me about the cones in your eyes.

A

daytime vision, colors, fovea, high acuity

112
Q

What is the last layer in the retina?

A

Ganglion cells

113
Q

________ cells have center-surround receptive fields

A

Ganglion

114
Q

Pathway from eye –> brain

A

Optic chiasm, LGN, primary visual cortex, dorsal & ventral stream

115
Q

The ventral stream tells us _____.

A

what; parietal

116
Q

The dorsal stream tells us _____ and _____.

A

where, how

117
Q

Describe transduction.

A

To change from the physical stuff to psychological stuff, such as turning light to neurons firing.

118
Q

Sensory receptors for vision are:

A

Rods and cones

119
Q

The color red has short/long waves and the color blue has short/long waves.

A

long; short

120
Q

The hue/color is determined by ______.

A

wavelength

121
Q

The brightness is determined by ______

A

intensity

122
Q

The saturation is determined by ______

A

purity

123
Q

The retina is part of the PNS/CNS

A

CNS

124
Q

What are saccades?

A

Jerky eye movements when we move to fixate on different things

125
Q

What are vergence movements?

A

Eyes roll in or roll out to focus both eyes on a single target

126
Q

Rods/cones synapse with ____ cells, which then synapse with _____ cells.

A

Bipolar; ganglion

127
Q

The axons of the ganglion cells leave the eye at the _____ ___ and form the ____ ____.

A

blind spot; optic nerve

128
Q

Rods/cones are at the front/back of the eye, which is not a problem because they are transparent

A

back

129
Q

Why is it good that our visual fields of our eyes overlap?

A

3D vision, baby

130
Q

The fovea is full of ____ while the periphery is mostly ____

A

cones; rods

131
Q

Blindsight occurs when the cortical regions involved in ______ _____ are damaged, but everything else is all good.

A

conscious perception

132
Q

The LGN has three types of layers:

A

magnocellular; parvocellular; koniocellular

133
Q

The magnocellular layer of the LGN is good for _____ ______

A

motion detection

134
Q

The parvocellular layer of the LGN is good for _____ and ______

A

colors and fine detail

135
Q

The koniocellular sublayer of the LGN is good for the color ____.

A

blue

136
Q

True or false: The entire left eye sends its info to the right hemisphere

A

False; each retina is split in 2 and the info crosses over at the optic chiasm.

137
Q

How does the brain use its two eyes to give us 3D vision?

A

Retinal disparity

138
Q

The 8th cranial nerve is _____.

A

auditory

139
Q

Why do afterimages occur?

A

photochemical activity in the retina continues even when the eyes are no longer experiencing the OG stimulus.

140
Q

Hubel and Wiesel discovered that neurons in the visual cortex responded to specific _____.

A

features

141
Q

V4/V8 are in charge of ____.

A

color

142
Q

V5 is in charge of ____

A

motion

143
Q

Which cortices do the initial processing of visual information before sending it out to be further analyzed?

A

V1 and V2

144
Q

In the striate cortex, information from color-sensitive ganglion cells is transmitted (via LGN) to the _________ ___.

A

CO blobs

145
Q

Three types of stripes in CO-blob neurons

A

Thin
Thick
Pale

146
Q

Visual agnosia

A

Can’t recognize an item via sight

147
Q

Prosopagnosia

A

Face blindness

148
Q

PPA

A

Parahippocampal place area; located in extrastriate cortex

149
Q

FFA

A

Fusiform face area; located in extrastriate cortex

150
Q

Pitch has to do with _____

A

frequency

151
Q

Loudness has to be with ______

A

amplitude

152
Q

Timbre covers everything else.

A

Yeah, it does

153
Q

What are the hammer, anvil, stirrup called?

A

The ossicles

154
Q

Which ossicle connects to the oval window on the cochlea?

A

Stirrup

155
Q

The organ of corti sits on the ____ ____ and contains the ____ ___.

A

basilar membrane; hair cells

156
Q

Sensory receptors of the auditory system:

A

Hair cells

157
Q

The base (where the stirrup connects) registers high/low frequency sounds

A

High

158
Q

The apex registers high/low frequency sounds

A

low

159
Q

Name of the mini keyboard in your brain

A

Tonotopic organization

160
Q

Describe place coding

A

What part of the basilar membrane is vibrating; works better for higher frequencies

161
Q

Describe rate coding

A

How many times the hair cells fire; works better for lower frequencies

162
Q

The fundamental frequency is the _____ one, while harmonics are ______.

A

lowest; higher multiplicities

163
Q

Amusia

A

tone deaf

164
Q

How does the vestibular system work?

A

Fluid-filled semicircular canals push on the cupula, which makes hair cells move/fire

165
Q

What are vestibular sacs?

A

Hair cells buried under a gel-like glob of stuff that contains little rocks

166
Q

What moves the vestibular hair cells?

A

WEIGHT

167
Q

What is proprioception?

A

Knowing where your body is

168
Q

Which cranial nerve handles vestibular info?

A

8th / auditory

169
Q

Glabrous skin

A

Found on hands, lips, soles. Slow; not as sensitive

170
Q

Sensitivity to pressure and vibration is caused by ______ of skin, which moves dendrites of mechanoreceptors

A

movement

171
Q

Hairy skin

A

rapid; more sensitive

172
Q

How do mechanoreceptors fire?

A

Mechanoreceptors detect stimuli such as touch, pressure, vibration, and sound from the external and internal environments. They contain primary sensory neurons that respond to changes in mechanical displacement, usually in a localized region at the tip of a sensory dendrite.

173
Q

All the senses involve the thalamus, except for ______.

A

olfaction

174
Q

Five tastes

A

Sweet
Sour
Bitter
Salty
Umami

175
Q

What chemical are we detecting for umami?

A

MSG/Glutamate

176
Q

Is taste ipsilateral or contralateral?

A

Ipsilateral

177
Q

Sensory receptor of taste:

A

Taste buds

178
Q

Where are the olfactory receptors?

A

Olfactory epithelium

179
Q

What part of the brain processes olfactory information?

A

The olfactory bulb

180
Q

How can we ID 10,000 smells if we only have 338 types of receptors?

A

Each of the hundreds of thousands of scents we can detect is made of a mixture of different odor molecules. Each type of molecule may be detected by an array of receptors, creating a puzzle for the brain to solve each time the nose catches a whiff of something new

181
Q

Do you FLEX your muscles?

A

Nope, just your arm. Take that, gym bros.

182
Q

How do skeletal muscle contract?

A

Myosin and actin row over each other. SQUIIIESH.

183
Q

Example of a monosynaptic reflex

A

Doctor whacks your knee with a sledgehammer

184
Q

The stretch receptors in muscles are part of which two senses?

A

Proprioception; kinesthetic

185
Q

What does the gamma motor system do?

A

Modifies the ‘force’ of signals sent from the brain to the muscles. It lets the spinal cord do more than the brain.

186
Q

The Reticular formation covers

A
187
Q

Which part of the brain contains 80% of the neurons?

A

Cerebellum

188
Q

What causes Parkinson’s?

A

The dopamine cells in the substantia nigra die. Rough.

189
Q

What causes Huntington’s?

A

GABA neurons die and can’t inhibit GP from inhibiting the subthalamic nucleus. Too much movement.

190
Q

Constructional apraxia

A

Can’t draw

191
Q

Apraxia

A

Inability to imitate movements or follow directions

192
Q

What happens during direct pathway induced movement?

A

GPi normally inhibits the thalamus, but if the GPi gets inhibited by the caudate nucleus and putamen, the GPi can’t do that, which results in more movement.

193
Q

Indirect pathway induced movement

A

less movement

194
Q

Hyper

A

Quickly stops direct pathway induced movement

PSYC 251: Physiological Psychology (14 decks)

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