Immunology Make Up Exams Flashcards
1.) A plasma cell differs from a B cell in which way?
a. Plasma cells are an immature form in B-cell development
b. Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody
c. Plasma cells are only found in peripheral blood
d. Plasma cells secrete cytokines
b. Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody
2.) A processed antigen first encounters and binds to MHC class II molecules in the:
a. endoplasmic reticulum
b. membrane surface
c. nucleus
d. endosomal compartment
d. endosomal compartment
3.) Antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells requires
a. class I MHC molecules
b. class III MHC molecules
c. class II MHC molecules
d. no MHC molecules
c. class II MHC molecules
4.) Characteristics of MHC class II molecules include which of the following?
a. Have an alpha chain and beta-2 microglobulin
b. Combine with antigen made inside the cell
c. Have alpha and beta chains of approximately equal size
d. Interact with CD8+ T cells
Have alpha and beta chains of approximately equal size
5.) Class II molecules bind to what kind of peptides?
a. From processed endogenous antigens
b. Carbohydrates
c. From processed exogenous antigens
d. Native peptides
From processed exogenous antigens
6.) Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against which type of pathogen?
a. Parasites
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Viruses
Viruses
7.) Endogenous peptides binding to MHC-A, MHC-B, or MHC-C molecules on the surface of hepatocytes are critical for the response by:
a. cytotoxic T cells
b. macrophages
c. T helper cells
d. B lymphocytes
a. cytotoxic T cells
8.) Granzymes activate which of the following in a target cell?
a. Complement activation
b. Apoptosis
c. Cytokine secretion
d. Phagocytosis
Apoptosis
9.) How many antigen binding sites does IgA in secretions have?
a. 4
b. 1
c. 2
d. 10
e. 5
4
10.) Identify the correct pairing of an immunoglobulin and its property.
a. IgE: major immunoglobulin of secondary response
b. IgG: most abundant in serum
c. IgA: crosses the placenta
d. IgM: immunoglobulin produced by a T cell
b. IgG: most abundant in serum
11.) Identify the statement about monoclonal antibodies that is true.
a. They all recognize numerous antigens
b. They are found only in cancerous states
c. They are used for testing only and not as therapeutic agents
d. They arise from a single plasma cell.
d. They arise from a single plasma cell.
12.) If a mother is MHC A3A14/B5B15/Cw3Cw4 and her child is A3A9/B5B27/Cw4Cw7, which of the following men is the most likely candidate for the father? (The numbers indicate different allotypes)
a. A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7
b. A5A9/B17B27/Cw3Cw5
c. A4A15/B2B27/Cw1Cw5
d. A9A11/B15B21/Cw1Cw4
A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7
13.) Immunoglobulins are grouped into classes on the basis of similarities in:
a. antigen binding sites
b. heavy chains
c. both heavy and light chains
d. light chains
b. heavy chains
14.) In antigen processing, the function of transporters associated with antigen-processing (TAP) proteins is to:
a. recognize and digest exogenous protein
b. help digest large proteins
c. transport digested proteins to MHC class I molecules
d. bind to MHC class II molecules in the endoplasmic reticulum
c. transport digested proteins to MHC class I molecules
15.) MHC class I antigens are recognized by which of the following cells?
a. Macrophages
b. CD4+ T cells
c. B cells
d. CD8+ T cells
d. CD8+ T cells
16.) MHC molecules containing beta-2-microglobulin:
a. contain alpha and beta transmembrane polypeptides.
b. are encoded by HLA-DR genes.
c. are encoded by HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C genes.
d. participate in the activation of CD4 T cells.
c. are encoded by HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C genes.
17.) Perforin and granzymes are used by which cells to kill target cells?
a. B cells
b. CD4 T cells
c. Macrophages
d. CD8 T cells
d. CD8 T cells
18.) T cells are capable of recognizing:
a. native (nondegraded) peptides
b. haptens
c. degraded peptides
d. conformational epitopes
c. degraded peptides
19.) T helper cells recognize which of the following?
a. Microbe-specific structures
b. Native (unmodified) extracellular viral proteins
c. Exogenous peptide bound to class II MHC
d. Endogenous peptides bound to class I MHC
c. Exogenous peptide bound to class II MHC
20.) The AFFINITY of antigen–antibody binding is influenced by which of the following?
a. How well the antigen fits into the binding site on Fab
b. The charge distribution on Fc
c. The number of Fab sites on the immunoglobulin
d. The number of antigens in the reaction
a. How well the antigen fits into the binding site on Fab
21.) The antigen specificity of a B cell is determined:
a. after interaction with antigen
b. after isotype switching
c. only by the L chain
d. by H- and L-chain variable-region sequences
d. by H- and L-chain variable-region sequences
22.) The cells that primarily function by secreting large amounts of cytokines are:
a. T helper cells
b. plasma cells
c. cytotoxic T cells
d. B cells
a. T helper cells
23.) The function of CD4+ T cells is:
a. to kill virally infected cells
b. phagocytosis
c. production of opsonins
d. to help B cells make antibody
d. to help B cells make antibody
24.) The primary response is characterized by:
a. the recognition of antigens by naïve B cells.
b. the recognition of antigens by memory B cells
c. the production of large amounts of IgG
d. a very short lag period
a. the recognition of antigens by naïve B cells.
25.) The purpose of the invariant chain is to block the peptide-binding site of:
a. class II MHC molecules
b. antibody molecules
c. class I MHC molecules
d. T-cell receptors.
a. class II MHC molecules
26.) The receptor for antigen on a mature naïve B cell is:
a. class II MHC molecules
b. class I MHC molecules
c. IgG
d. IgM
IgM
27.) The term “human leukocyte antigen” is synonymous with:
a. major histocompatibility complex
b. allele
c. haplotype
d. chromosome
a. major histocompatibility complex
28.) Which cell is capable of producing antibody?
a. CD4+ T cell
b. Neutrophil
c. Macrophage
d. Plasma cell
d. Plasma cell
29.) Which cells are responsible for killing virally infected host cells and tumor cells?
a. B cells
b. Plasma cells
c. CD8 T cells
d. CD4 T cells
c. CD8 T cells
30.) Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary response?
a. IgM
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgA
IgM
31.) Which immunoglobulin appears in the highest titer in serum during a secondary immune response?
a. IgM
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgA
c. IgG
32.) Which is a characteristic of IgM?
a. It is able to activate complement.
b. It can cross the placenta
c. It increases greatly in the secondary response
d. It can bind only two antigens
a. It is able to activate complement.
33.) Which is characteristic of IgG?
a. The least abundant antibody in serum
b. First class of antibody to appear
c. Found mainly in secretions
d. Provides immunity for the newborn
d. Provides immunity for the newborn
34.) Which of the following is a characteristic of IgA?
a. It activates the classical complement pathway
b. It is a pentamer in serum
c. It is found in secretions
d. It is the primary response antibody
c. It is found in secretions
35.) Which of the following is a characteristic of MHC-DR, MHC-DP, and MHC-DQ molecules?
a. Expressed co-dominantly (maternal and paternal)
b. Antigen receptors on all lymphocytes
c. Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes only
d. Surface alloantigens on liver and kidney cells
a. Expressed co-dominantly (maternal and paternal)
36.) Which of the following proteins that form channels in target cell membranes?
a. granzyme B
b. pentraxins
c. opsonins
d. perforin
perforin
37.) Which option best describes MHC class I antigens?
a. They are found on all nucleated cells.
b. They are coded for on chromosome 9.
c. They are recognized by helper T cells.
d. They combine with exogenous antigen.
a. They are found on all nucleated cells.
38.) Which marker is found on the group of T cells that assists B cells in making antibody?
a. CD5
b. CD8
c. surface Ig
d. CD4
CD4
39.) Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?
a. Fc
b. CH
c. Fab
d. CL
Fab
40.) Which T-cell surface protein is associated with the T-cell receptor and is involved in signal transduction?
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CD154
d. CD3
CD3
All the following are characteristics of acute-phase reactants EXCEPT:
-they limit destruction of host tissue
-they are constituents that increase rapidly in response to infection
-they enhance phagocytosis
-they are used to diagnose a specific disease
-they are used to diagnose a specific disease
Select the test that could be used to determine whether a patient has a specific deficiency in C3.
-CH50 -Hemolytic titration assay -AH50 -Radial immunodiffusion
-Radial immunodiffusion
Which of the following can activate the alternative complement pathway?
-IgG -C1q -mannose-binding lectin -C3b
C3b
Which of the following is a characteristic of opsonins?
-They are expressed on the surface of neutrophils -They are molecules that coat bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis -They are produced by NK cells -They are carbohydrates that stimulate T cells
-They are molecules that coat bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis